LECTURE Flashcards

1
Q

first isolated by Pfeiffer in 1890; waserroneously named during the influenza pandemic that ravaged the world from 1889 to 1890

A

Haemophilus influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The basis for this assumption was the frequent isolation of this bacillus from the [?] of patients with influenza and from [?] during those times when viral isolation methods were unavailable.

A

nasopharynx; postmortem lung cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

secondary (opportunistic) invader

A

H. influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Influenza, commonly referred to as the flu is a viral disease characterized by [?] of the upper airways.

A

acute infammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

intense infammation of the mucous membranes lining the nose

A

(coryza)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

severe generalized muscle pain

A

(myalgias)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

require special nutrients for isolation and identification

A

fastidious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

special nutrients that are often supplied by addition of enrichment ingredients to culture media

A

growth factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Species in the genus Haemophilus require [?] for optimal growth

A

Factor X and/or Factor V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bordetella species, on the other hand, require

A

niacin (also known as nicotinic acid, a form ofvitamin B3), cysteine, and usually methionine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Brucella species require

A

thiamine, niacin, and biotin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most bacteria included in this group are [?] or produce [?] infections.

A

nonpathogenic

opportunistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

General Characteristics
•Small, pleomorphic, gram-negative bacilli. The cells are typically coccobacillary or short rods.
•Nonmotile.
•Facultative anaerobes.
•Growth is enhanced in a 5% to 10% CO2-enriched atmosphere. •Are “blood-loving”

A

Haemophilus species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

requiring enriched media, usually containing blood or its derivatives, that provide preformed growth factors, X and V; isolation usually requires the presence of X and/or V factor in the culture medium.

A

blood-loving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  • Protoporphyrin IX which acts physiologically as hemin or hematin
A

Factor X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  • An important component of cytochromes, catalase, and peroxidase.
A

Factor X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  • Heat-stable and is frequently supplied by the incorporation of heat-lysed (“chocolatized”) blood cells in agar such as in chocolate agar or Fildes medium.
A

Factor X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  • Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) or NAD phosphate (NADP).
A

Factor V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  • Heat-labile and is commonly supplied by the incorporation of yeast extract or other appropriate supplements in the medium
A

Factor V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  • May also be provided by a suspension of hemolytic strains of bacteria (e.g., staphylococci, pneumococci, and neisseriae)
A

Factor V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pfeiffer’s bacillus

A

Haemophilus influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Haemophilus influenzae: CHARACTERISTIC

A

Requires both X and V factor for growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Haemophilus influenzae: HABITAT

A
  • only in humans

- upper respiratory tract (oropharynx and nasopharynx) of 20% to 80% of healthy persons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Haemophilus influenzae: TRANSMISSION

A

person- to-person by respiratory droplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Strains of H. influenzae are divided into 2 broad groups based on

A

capsular polysaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

These are encapsulated strains of H. influenzae which are separated into one of six groups: type a, b, c, d, e, or f; all have potential to invade deeper tissues.

A

Typeable strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

90% of invasive H. influenzae infections are caused by .

A

serotype b (Hib) strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Haemophilus influenzae [?] is most commonly encountered in serious infections in humans which include meningitis esp. in
infants and children; and several other diseases such as epiglottitis and bacteremia.

A

serotype b (Hib) strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

They do not produce capsule.

A

Nontypeable strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

These are most commonly encountered as normal inhabitants of the upper respiratory tract of man; but
may cause mild localized infections (otitis media and sinusitis in children), and is associated with respiratory
tract infections (pneumonia).

A

Nontypeable strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Until the availability of the Hib vaccine, H. influenzae was the most common cause of meningitis in children between [?] of age when nearly all passive immunity has waned, and the child enters a vulnerable non immune period of life. Although, it is still a problem if a child is [?] and not vaccinated.

A

3 months and 6 years

<2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Older children, adolescents and adults can less frequently be infected particularly those who are immunocompromised.

A

Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Meningitis by H. influenzae has very similar presentation with [?], with symptoms of fever, malaise, occasionally vomiting, stiff neck and neurological impairment. Untreated cases have [?] (up to 90%) even with prompt diagnosis.

A

meningococcal meningitis

high fatality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

H. influenzae is the most common cause of this potentially fatal disease in children between the ages of 2 and 4

A

Epiglottitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

It has a rapid onset, with sore throat, dysphagia, fever, and swollen, cherry red epiglottis above the larynx at the base of the tongue.

A

Epiglottitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Acute inflammation and intense edema of the epiglottis may cause complete [?] and [?]

A

airway obstruction and suffocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

can be “cherry red” in children; “thumb sign” on lateral neck x-ray

A

Epiglottitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

is an early manifestation of acute H. influenzae type b meningitis but in some infants, may occur without meningitis

A

Bacteremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

It is mostly seen in children with underlying diseases (e.g., sickle cell); signs and symptoms include fever, lethargy and high neutrophil count

A

Bacteremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

are second to S.pneumoniae as a common cause of otitis media in children, most frequently in children aged 6 months to 5 years with highest incidence among children less than 3 years of age

A

H. influenzae (nontypeable strains)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Signs and symptoms include fever, irritability, headache, occasionally nausea and vomiting, ear pain, hearing loss, discharge from the ear.

A

Otitis media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

It is characterized by persistent cold symptoms, purulent nasal or post nasal discharge, cough, fever, headache, and often facial pain.

A

Sinusitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In adults, H. influenzae causes pneumonia, particularly in individuals with other underlying pulmonary infections. It can be a manifestation of systemic infections caused by H. Influenzae type b.

A

Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

— lobar, segmental and purulent pneumonia.

A

pneumococcal pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Its characteristics are similar to pneumococcal pneumonia

A

Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Hib capsule is a polysaccharide, called PRP

A

polyribosylribitol phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

It is the most important factor of H. influenzae because it allows the organism to resist phagocytosis and intracellular killing by neutrophils and the complement.

A

Capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

This molecule consists of the 5-carbon monosaccharide ribose, linked by an ester bond to ribitol, and a 5-carbon sugar alcohol, which, in turn, is linked to a phosphate group.

A

polyribosylribitol phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

the only capsular type that contains two pentose monosaccharides rather than hexose sugars as subunit carbohydrates.

A

H. influenzae serotype b polysaccharide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

promotes phagocytosis and complement-mediated bacteriolysis.

A

Anticapsular (anti-b) antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

H. influenzae is the only member of the genus that produces [?], an enzyme that cleaves secretory IgA present on human mucosal surfaces of the respiratory tract, thus allowing the bacteria to attach to these surfaces.

A

IgA protease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

They favor attachment of the nontypeable strain of H. influenzae to host epithelial cells.

A

Pili

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Each component is responsible for invasiveness, attachment, and antiphagocytic function.

A

Outer Membrane Proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

of H. inluenzae has been shown to have a paralyzing effect on the sweeping motion of ciliated respiratory epithelium.

A

LPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Antibodies directed against these antigens may play a significant role in human immunity.

A

Outer Membrane Proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Organisms attach to epithelial cells using [?] and [?]

A

pili and outer membrane proteins (OMP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Invasion takes place between cells by disruption of [?]. In the submucosa, the [?]allows the bacteria to evade phagocytosis and enter the bloodstream

A

cell–cell adhesion molecules

capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

H. influenzae type b (Hib) disease: PREVENTION

A

vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

PRP, like most bacterial polysaccharides, elicits a strong [?], but with little induction of memory.

A

primary antibody response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

[?], which covalently link the polysaccharide to a protein, induce memory type antibody responses in children and are effective in younger infants who are at higher risk for the disease

A

H. influenzae type b (Hib) conjugate vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

PRP-OMPC
PRP-T
PRP-D
HbOC

A

Neisseria meningitidis outer membrane protein complex
Tetanus toxoid
Diphtheria toxoid
CRM197 mutant Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

• Hib conjugate vaccines are commercially available as:

A

‣ Monovalent vaccine

‣ Combination vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

(containing a single antigen only — Hib PRP)

A

‣ Monovalent vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

(consists of two or more vaccines given in one

shot — Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, HBV, Hib)

A

‣ Combination vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

• Depending on which vaccine product is chosen, the series consists of three doses at [?] of age or two doses given at [?] of age. An additional booster dose is given sometime between 12 and 15 months of age.

A

2, 4, and 6 months

2 and 4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

It is commonly known as Koch-Weeks bacillus.

A

Haemophilus aegyptius

67
Q

H. aegyptius was observed by Koch in 1883 in Egyptians in [?]—hence the species name.

A

conjunctivitis exudates

68
Q

The etiologic agent of an acute, communicable conjunctivitis, sometimes called “pink eye”.

A

Haemophilus aegyptius

69
Q

was recognized as the causative agent of a severe illness called Brazilian Purpuric Fever (BFP) which originated in Sao Paulo, Brazil in the 1980s.

A

H. aegyptius biotype III

70
Q

The illness is characterized by a high fever, abdominal pain with vomiting, a petechial/ purpuric rash, hypotensive shock, and vascular collapse.

A

Brazilian Purpuric Fever

71
Q

mortality rate may reach 70% within 48 hours after onset.

A

Brazilian Purpuric Fever

72
Q

The growth conditions for this organism are the same as those for H. influenzae

A

Haemophilus aegyptius

73
Q

Requires Factor X an Factor V for growth.

A

Haemophilus aegyptius

74
Q

It is strictly a human pathogen, infecting the mucosal
epithelium, genital and nongenital skin, and regional
lymph nodes, and spread by sexual transmission.

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

75
Q
highly communicable sexually transmitted genital
ulcer disease (GUD); soft chancre
A

chancroid

76
Q

After an incubation period of
approximately 4 to 14 days, a nonindurated, painful lesion with an irregular edge develops, generally on the genitalia or perianal areas accompanied by suppurative, enlarged and painful inguinal lymph nodes

A

chancroid

77
Q

The disease must be differentiated from syphilis, herpese simplex infection, and lymphogranuloma venereum.

A

chancroid

78
Q

pale-staining, gram-negative coccobacilli, often arranged in clustered groups (“school of fish”) or loosely coiled parallel chains (“railroad tracks”) - rarely seen in clinical specimens

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

79
Q
Organisms may be inside and outside of
polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs).
A

Haemophilus ducreyi

80
Q

The organism is more fastidious than H. influenzae.

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

81
Q

Requires X factor for growth.

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

82
Q

may be difficult to recover in culture as it requires additional growth factors and special media for cultivation in the laboratory

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

83
Q

(1) [?] supplemented with 5% chocolatized horse blood plus 1% IsoVitalex enrichment.
(2) [?]supplemented with 2% bovine hemoglobin, 5% fetal calf serum, and 1% IsoVitalex.

A

Müeller–Hinton agar

GC agar base

84
Q

[?] (3 µL/mL final concentration) may be added to inhibit contaminating gram-positive bacteria
colonizing the genital tract. Certain strains of H. ducreyi have shown to be sensitive to this antibiotic; using more than one media type to optimize the recovery of H. ducreyi may be necessary.

A

Vancomycin

85
Q

Cultures for H. ducreyi should be incubated at [?] in 5% to 10% CO2 in a candle jar or CO2 incubator with high humidity; most produce visible growth in 2 to 4 days, but may require for as long as 7 days to grow.

A

33°C

86
Q

• It is a member of the normal oral and nasopharyngeal flora.

A

Haemophilus parainfluenzae

87
Q

• It is involved in infective endocarditis in adults with underlying congenital or rheumatic heart disease which is characterized to have an insidious onset. Symptoms first appear approximately 1 month after routine dental procedures and primarily involves the mitral valve.

A

Haemophilus parainfluenzae

88
Q

• Requires V factor for growth.

A

Haemophilus parainfluenzae

89
Q

• They are are part of the normal flora of the respiratory tract and are rarely associated with infections.

A

Haemophilus haemolyticus and Haemophilus parahaemolyticus

90
Q

Nonencapsulated strains are (1-2 mm)
smooth, blue-gray in color and translucent at
24 hours; encapsulated strains form larger,
more mucoid colonies; mouse nest odor.

A

H. influenzae

91
Q

Resembles H. influenzae, except colonies are

smaller at 48 hours.

A

H. aegyptius

92
Q

On selective medium: Small, flat, smooth,
and translucent to opaque at 48-72 hours;
colonies can be pushed intact across agar
surface.

A

H. ducreyi

93
Q

Medium to large, smooth, light gray, and

translucent.

A

H. parainfluenzae

94
Q

Resembles H. influenzae

A

H. haemolyticus

95
Q

Resembles H. parainfluenzae.

A

H. parahaemolyticus

96
Q

The genus Bordetella includes three primary human pathogens:

A

Bordetella pertussis
Bordetella parapertussis
Bordetella bronchiseptica

97
Q

• Small, gram-negative coccobacilli on primary isolation.
- On subculture, they tend to become more pleomorphic.
• Obligately aerobic.
• Grow optimally at 35°C to 37°C
• Catalase (+)
• Do not utilize carbohydrates.
• Relatively inactive in biochemical test systems

A

Bordetella species

98
Q

• Bordet-Gengou bacillus

A

Bordetella pertussis

99
Q

strictly human pathogen that colonizes the cilia of the

respiratory epithelium

A

Bordetella pertussis

100
Q

Vaccinated individuals serve as reservoir.

A

Bordetella pertussis

101
Q

transmitted by direct contact with respiratory droplets or by inhalation of infectious aerosols

A

Bordetella pertussis

102
Q

a contagious childhood illness that causes an acute tracheobronchitis, with a 7-10 day incubation

A

Pertussis or whooping cough

103
Q

Pertussis or whooping cough follows a prolonged course consisting of three overlapping stages

A

(1) Catarrhal phase
(2) Paroxysmal phase
(3) Convalescent phase

104
Q
  • The onset is insidious and persists for 1-2 weeks; it is so named because of mucous membrane inflammation (catarrh).
A

Catarrhal phase

105
Q

Symptoms are nonspecific, resembling common colds, and include sneezing, mild cough, runny nose, and perhaps conjunctivitis, although infants can develop apnea or respiratory distress or both.

A

Catarrhal phase

106
Q
  • At this stage, the infection is highly communicable because of the large number of organisms in the upper respiratory tract and cause of disease is unrecognized.
A

Catarrhal phase

107
Q

This begins during the second week of illness and is characterized by paroxysms of cough (severe, repetitive coughing) followed by the characteristic “whoop”. The whooping sound is caused by the rapid gasp for air following the prolonged bout of coughing.

A

Paroxysmal phase

108
Q

Coughing spells may occur many times a day and often every few minutes, and are sometimes followed by vomiting. This lasts for 2-4 weeks.

A

Paroxysmal phase

109
Q

Generally begins within 4 weeks of onset with a decrease in frequency and severity of the coughing spells. Gradual recovery occurs over weeks or months.

A

Convalescent phase

110
Q

Pneumonia (due to B. pertussis or other bacterial pathogens), otitis media, and encephalopathy are among the secondary complications.

A

Convalescent phase

111
Q

Mediate adhesion of the organism to ciliated epithelial cells and are essential for tracheal colonization

A

Fimbriae; Filamentous hemagglutinin (FHA); and Pertactin

112
Q

major virulence factor of B. pertussis

A

Pertussis toxin (PT)

113
Q

an A-B toxin characterized as a protein exotoxin found outside of the B. pertussis cell.

A

Pertussis toxin (PT)

114
Q

is internalized and ADPribosylates a G protein that affects adenylate cyclase activity.

A

A subunit (enzymatic subunit)

115
Q

mediate attachment of the toxin to carbohydrate moieties on the host cell surface.

A

B subunit (binding subunit)

116
Q

The main activity of PT is modification of host proteins by adenosine diphosphate-ribosyl transferase, which interferes with signal transduction, others are promotion of lymphocytosis, sensitization to histamine, and enhanced insulin secretion (insulinemia).

A

Pertussis toxin (PT)

117
Q

It is a fragment of the bacterial peptidoglycan that inhibits DNA synthesis in ciliated cells of the upper respiratory tract.

A

Tracheal cytotoxin

118
Q

appears to act in concert with endotoxin (LPS) to induce nitric oxide, which kills the ciliated epithelial cells

A

Tracheal cytotoxin

119
Q

It is a potent, pore-forming toxin which enters the host cells and catalyzes the conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP at level far above what can be achieved by normal mechanisms.

A

Adenylate cyclase (AC)

120
Q

This activity interferes with cellular signaling, chemotaxis, superoxide generation, and function of immune effector cells, including PMNs, lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells.

A

Adenylate cyclase (AC)

121
Q

can also induce programmed cell death (apoptosis).

A

Adenylate cyclase (AC)

122
Q

Whooping cough is preventable by

A

vaccination

123
Q

that contain combinations of virulence factors have been licensed for use

A

Acellular pertussis vaccines

124
Q

All contain PT and FHA, and pertactin or pili in some. In combination with [?], the acellular vaccine has now replaced the whole cell DTP as DTaP (“a” for acellular).

A

diphtheria and tetanus toxoids

125
Q

Every infant should receive three injections of [?] during the first year of life (at 2, 4, and 6 months) followed by a booster series (at 15-18 months, 4-6 years) for a total of five doses.

A

pertussis vaccine

126
Q

It may produce a disease similar to whooping cough, but it is generally less severe. The infection is often subclinical.

A

Bordetella parapertussis

127
Q

Is said to have a silent copy of the pertussis toxin gene

A

Bordetella parapertussis

128
Q

It is a respiratory tract pathogen of numerous animals, including dogs, in which it causes kennel cough; rabbits in which it causes snuffles; and swine causing atrophic rhinitis

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

129
Q

It is infrequently responsible for chronic respiratory tract infections in humans which generally manifest with a nonspecific cough or bronchitis, primarily in individuals with underlying diseases.

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

130
Q

Similar with B. parapertussis; has a silent copy of the pertussis toxin gene. This organism also possesses a β-lactamase that renders it resistant to penicillins and cephalosporins.

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

131
Q

cause disease primarily in domestic, and some wild animals

A

Brucella

132
Q

In animals, they typically have predilection for organs rich in erythritol present in the reproductive organs, and sterility or abortion are often the only signs of the disorder.

A

Brucella

133
Q

represents a potent localizing factor in the relevant species, but is absent in humans.

A

Erythritol

134
Q

is either an acute febrile disease or a persistent disease with a wide variety of symptoms.

A

Human brucellosis

135
Q

Because of their potential application in bioterrorism, Brucella species are considered [?] select biological agents by the CDC. These agents are easy to disseminate and cause moderate morbidity but low mortality

A

category B

136
Q

• Gram-negative (but often stain irregularly) coccobacilli or short bacilli, 1.2 µm in length.
• Nonmotile
• Non-spore-forming.
• Aerobic. ( Whereas B. abortus requires 5–10% CO2 for growth).
• Have complex nutritional requirements - been cultivated on defined media
containing amino acids, vitamins, salts, and glucose.
• Catalase (+)
• Oxidase (+)
• Urease (+)
• Nitrate(+)

A

Brucella species

137
Q
  • Brucella melitensis -
  • Brucella suis -
  • Brucella abortus (Bang’s bacillus) -
  • Brucella canis -
A

goats and sheep
swine
cattle
dogs

138
Q

most important source of Brucella infection in humans.

A

Brucella melitensis

139
Q

are transmitted to humans from infected animals or contaminated animal products

A

Brucella species

140
Q

The organisms may gain entry into the body through a variety of portals.

A

Brucella species

141
Q

Brucella species: Transmission

Oral entry, by [?] of contaminated animal products (often raw milk or its derivatives) or by [?] with contaminated fingers.

A

ingestion

contact

142
Q

Brucella species: Transmission

[?] containing the bacteria
[?] of the conjunctivae

A

Inhalation of aerosols

aerosol contamination

143
Q

Brucella species: Transmission

[?] through skin abrasions or by accidental inoculation

A

Percutaneous infection

144
Q

Human infections with Brucella species are associated predominantly with [?] in slaughterhouses, livestock handling, and veterinary trade.

A

occupational contact

145
Q

Human-to-human transmission, although rare, may occur through [?] and [?]

A

sexual contact and breast-feeding

146
Q

Malta fever
undulant fever
Bang’s (after B.L. Bang, a Danish physician) disease

A

Brucellosis

147
Q

are facultative intracellular pathogens, multiplying mainly in monocyte-macrophage cells.

A

Brucellae

148
Q

Brucellae are carried to the regional lymph nodes through the lymphatic fluid.

A

Brucellosis

149
Q

Phagocytes infected with brucellae are released into the bloodstream and are lodged into organs creating focal lesions in liver, spleen, bone marrow, and kidney.

A

Brucellosis

150
Q

3 stages of brucellosis based on disease duration

A

(1) Acute
(2) Subchronic or Undulant
(3) Chronic

151
Q

Is marked by non-specific symptoms including fever,
malaise, headache, anorexia, arthralgia, myalgia, and
back pain that usually become apparent within 1 to 4
weeks of exposure

A

Acute

152
Q

Typically occurs within a year of exposure and is
characterized by undulating fevers (body temperatures that rise in the afternoon and evening and fall in the morning), arthritis, and epididymoorchitis (inflammation of the epididymis and testis).

A

Subchronic or Undulant

153
Q

Commonly manifests 1 year after exposure with symptoms, such as depression, arthritis, and chronic fatigue syndrome.

A

Chronic

154
Q

The brucellae that infect humans have apparent

differences in

A

pathogenicity

155
Q

usually causes mild disease without suppurative complications; noncaseating granulomas of the reticuloendothelial system are found

A

B. abortus

156
Q

also causes mild disease

A

B. canis

157
Q

infection tends to be chronic with suppurative lesions; caseating granulomas may be present

A

B. suis

158
Q

infection is more acute and severe

A

B. melitensis

159
Q

Ability to survive and multiply within professional phagocyte - facilitated by inhibition of both the [?] and of [?]

A

myeloperoxidase system

phagosome–lysosome fusion

160
Q
  • prolongs the life of the host cell where the brucellae are replicating.
A

Inhibition of apoptosis

161
Q

Prevention is primarily by measures that minimize [?] and by the [?] of dairy products.

A

occupational exposure

pasteurization

162
Q

Control of brucellosis rests on limitation of spread in animals which involves a combination of [?] with an attenuated strain of B. abortus and [?] of infected stock.

A

immunization

eradication

163
Q

No human vaccine is in use

A

Brucellae