Lecture 11 - treatment of resp infections Flashcards

1
Q

Which groups of people are at a higher risk of CAP?

A

the elderly, males, alcoholics, and those with chronic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Percentage of CAP caused by conventional bacteria? atypical? virus?

A

conventional 60-80
atypical 10-20
viruses 10-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the two main causes of CAP

A

S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae

(other ones are pneumonia M C L )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name the 4 steps in the investigation of CAP

A

confirm the diagnosis, assess the severity of the disease, define the aetiological agent (important when treating) and identify for complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is antimicrobial management of CAP based on

A

assessment of likely pathogen
severity of the illness
likelihood of resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What microbiological investigations can be taken for CAP

A

sputum analysis and culture
immunoflorescence on sputum samples
blood cultures
urinary pneumococcal legionella antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the criteria for CAP?

A

Confusion
Urea >7mmol/l
Resp rate over 30
Blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe mycoplasma CAP

A

patchy consolidation on CXR, prominent extra pulmonary disease. more likely in young patients. has prolonged gradual onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is characteristic of S aureus CAP?

A

abscess formation on CXR, very aggressive disease increased tissue lysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is characteristic of legionellosis CAP

A

hyponatraemia, multi lobe involvement, confusion and neurological symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which two groups in the UK are more likely to have TB

A

socially disadvantaged and ethnic minority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the two phases of TB

A

Latent phase - where granulomatous forms - controlled by cell mediated response and lays dormant.
Active phase - where disease is reactivated and extracellular growth occurs. bacteria disseminate from granulomatous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which factor keeps TB in latent phase and how

A

DosR maintains the organism in hypoxic environment inside the granulomatous - ensuring organism homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name three typical TB CXR appearences

A

Reactivated TB usually appears in the upper lobes of chest X rays
Reactivated TB in immunocompromised spreads throughout lung
Millary TB is disseminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which TB drugs are bactericidal

A

Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Ethambutol (moderate), Streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Side effects of Rifampicin

A

rash, hepatitis, fever, flu syndrome, drug interactions e.g. pill

17
Q

Side effects of Isoniazid

A

hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, cutaneous hypersensitivity

18
Q

Side effects of Pyranzinamide

A

hepatitis, anorexia, flushing, cutaneous hypersensitivity, hyperuricaemia

19
Q

Side effects of Ethambutol

A

optic neuritis which can cause blindness - never give to someone who cannot report visual changes e.g. a child

20
Q

Side effects of Streptomycin

A

ototoxicity (blood levels should be monitored in renal impairment)

21
Q

How do TB drugs work

A

Rifampicin inhibits RNA polymerase
Ethambutol inhibits synthesis of cell wall polysacherides
Streptomycin binds to mycobacterial ribosome and inhibits protein synthesis

22
Q

What are the principles of chemotherapy for TB

A
  • mycobacteria within an infected individual are in two phases of replication
  • the population contains natural occurring resistance
23
Q

Why is TB treated with two phase therapy and combination therapy

A

2 phase - as bactericidal phase to kill majority of active organisms and sterilising phase which persisting organisms (latent) are eliminated
combination - resistance is frequent- more drugs means less likely to be resistant to all of them (single drug therapy always selects resistant organisms)

24
Q

Why is 6 months required for eradication of TB?

A

persisting organisms undergo intermittent metabolic activity

25
Q

What is DOT in TB testing?

A

nurse of surrogate directly observes all doses taken - increases compliance. UK dont do much but do in US

26
Q

Which TB drug has the highest resistance rates?

A

isoniazid

27
Q

Which patients are more likely to have acquired a MDR TB? (5)

A
  • if the individual has previously been treated for TB
  • contact with known MDR TB case
  • got infection in country with high prevalence of MDR TB
  • patients dont respond to treatment
  • co-existing HIV
28
Q

How is MDR TB managed?

A
  • initial treatment should be with at least 4 TB drugs the organism is sensitive to and should last 3-6 months PAST the sputum becomes culture negative
  • the second phase should be continued with 3 drugs for 15-18 months
29
Q

What else must be done if a patient is found to have MDR TB?

A

notifying TRACE
infection control measures
BCD