lecture 1 gout, SLE Flashcards

1
Q

Podagra

A

gout affecting the 1st MTP (big toe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is gout

A
  • deposition of monosodium urate crystals in joints and connective tissue
  • associated with joint pain and inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what condition is associated with hyperuricemia

A

gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

complications of gout

A
  • tophi
  • uric acid nephrolithiasis
  • urate nephropathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

uric acid is formed from the breakdown product of what

A

purine metabolism

  • uric acid is usually secreted by the kidney
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what serum uric acid level is classified as hyperuricemia

A

>6.8 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

people who have hyperuricemia can be broken down into what two categories

A
  • uric acid overproducers (5%)
  • uric acid underexcreters (95%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what causes uric acid overproducers; primary hyperuricemia

A
  • idiopathic
  • genetic disorders (rare)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what causes uric acid overproducers; secondary hyperuricemia

A
  • increased purine consumption
  • malignancy
  • psoriasis
  • enzyme defects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what causes uric acid underexcreters; primary hyperuricemia

A

idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what causes uric acid underexcreters; secondary hyperuricemia

A
  • decreased renal function
  • metabolic acidosis
  • volume depletion (dehydration)
  • medications
  • lead nephropathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

triggers for acute gout attack

A
  • etoh
  • trauma
  • medications
    • loop diuretics, ASA, allopurinol
  • high purine consumption
    • red meat, organ meat, sardines, scallops, legumes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

name the stage: elevated uric acid levels but no sx

A

stage 1

*don’t usually need treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

name the stage: acute attacks of arthritis

  • periods in between acute attacks-generally completely asymptomatic
A

stage 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

name the stage: usually occurs after 10 years or more of acute attacks. in this period, the intercritical gout periods are no longer asymptomatic, the involved joints will develop chronic swelling and tophi

A

stage 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

clinical presentation

  • rapid onset (often at night)
  • pain peaks w/in 8-12 hours
  • severe pain, redness, warmth and swelling
  • usually mono-articular
    • great toe, MTP joint-most common
    • knees, ankles
  • can be self-limiting
  • often recurrent
    • tophi
A

gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

diagnostic studies:

  • joint erosion
  • “rat bite” appearance
    • punched out erosions
A

chronic, advanced gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the gold standard to diagnose gout

A

arthrocentesis

  • needle aspiration of involved joint or tophaceous deposit
  • culture and gram stain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what findings will be present in an arthrocentesis of gout

A
  • monosodium urate crystals
    • negatively birefringent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

whys is serum uric acid levels not the best test for gout

A

sUA may be normal during acute attack

*most accurate >2 weeks after acute gout flare subsides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what diagnostic study can be done to find out if a patient is an uric acid overproducer

A

check urinary uric acid over a 24 hr period

    • if >800 mg on normal diet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

treatment for acute gout attack

A
  • anti-inflammatory: initiate within 48 hours of onset of sx
  • NSAIDS: Indomethacin 50 mg TID (or Naproxen 500mg BID)
    • discontinue NSAIDs 1-2 days after sx completely resolved
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

when would you not give Indomethacin for acute gout attack

A

hx of

  • pelvic ulcer disease
  • GI bleed
  • renal impairment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Treatment for acute gout attack for patients who are unable to take NSAIDs

A

colchicine

initial dose 1.2mg, then 0.6 mg 1 hr later, then 0.6 mg BID until sx free

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Treatment for acute gout attack for patients who are unable to take NSAIDs or colchicine
glucocorticoids * oral: taper over 1-2 weeks after sx resolve * intra-articular: r/o septic arthritis first
26
what prophylactic therapy can you give to prevent recurrent gout?
* NSAIDs * Colchicine * added to a urate-lowering agent
27
what are examples of urate lowering therapies
* uricosuric agents * probenecid * xanthine oxidase inhibitors * allopurinol (used for long term therapy) * febuxostat
28
If your patient has one of the following: what treatment should you give * frequent and disabling attacks * polyarticular gouty arthritis * tophaceous gout * renal stones * prophylacis during cytotoxic therapy
* indications for urate-lowering therapy
29
the drug probenecid (uricosuric agents) is indicated for what type of gout
* underexcreters * enhances renal excretion of uric acids * requires good renal function
30
dosing for probenecid (uricosuric agents)
250 mg BID x 1 week (target uric acid \<6 mg/dL) \*avoid in patients with hx of nephrolithiasis and use ASA
31
when would you give allopurinol (xanthine oxidase inhibitor)
* **agent of choice** for most patients with gout * overproducers AND underexcreters * decreases uric acid synthesis
32
dosing for allopurinol (xanthine oxidase inhibitor)
start at 100mg daily for a week and gradually titrate up until target range is reached * 300mg/d adequately controls most
33
when would you give febuxostate (xanthine oxidase inhibitor)
treatment of gout in patients with mild-moderate renal insufficiency
34
why should urate lowering therapy never be used treat an acute gout attack
initiation may precipitate an acute attack \*wait at least 2 weeks before starting treatment
35
when treating patients with gout, what condition should you be weary of
decreased renal function * consider rheumatology referral
36
what is calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) deposition disease
pseudogout
37
pseudogout is primarily found in what patient population
almost 50% \> 84 yo
38
what disease is characterized by deposition of CPP crystals
pseudogout
39
what two diseases is pseudogout commonly associated with
* hemochromatosis * hyperparathyroidism
40
clinical presentation * acute, typically a monoarticular inflammatory arthritis * attacks may be spontaneous or provoked by trauma or surgery * self -limited * joints affected * **knees (50%)**, wrists, shoulders, feet, ankles, elbows
pseudogout
41
radiographic presentation: * **chondrocalcinosis** (cartilage calcification) * degenerative changes * subchondral cysts * osteophyte formation
pseudogout
42
what diagnostic study of synovial fluid aspiration diagnoses pseudogout
**postively birefringent CPP crystals**
43
treatment for acute pseudogout
* NSAIDs or colchicine * colchicine 0.6 mg BID daily * recommended if \> 3 attacks/year
44
what is systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
* autoimmune disorder * autoantibodies to nuclear antigens * multisystem disease * female \> male * peak incidence of disease during reproductive years
45
clinical presentation * fever, fatigue, weight changes * photosensitivity, alopecia, oral ulcers, **rash (malar "butterfly" and discoid)** * arthritis (symmetric, nonerosive) * inflammation of pericardium * nephritis * sz, psychosis * CAD * **raynaud's**
systemic lupus erythematosus
46
describe malar "butterfly" rash
fixed erythema over nasal bridge (spares nasolabial folds)
47
what is raynaud's phenomenon
* episodic vasospastic disease * worse with cold and stress * red, white, and blue * 1st white (pallor) * 2nd blue (cyanosis) * 3rd red (erythema -following rewarming)
48
diagnostic lab testing for systemic lupus erythematosus
* ANA subtypes * anti-dsDNA antibodies * anti-sm (anti-smith) antibodies
49
hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) is used to treat what condition
antimalarials systemic lupus erythematosus
50
give examples of cytotoxic/immunosuppressive agents you could use to treat systemic lupus erythematosus
* methotrexate * azathioprine
51
pharmacologic treatment for systemic lupus erythematosus
* NSAIDs * antimalarials * corticosteroids (systemic)
52
with drug induced systemic lupus erythematosus, all patients will present with what diagnostic test
* positive antihistone antibody
53
what is Sjogren's syndrome
\*think dry * chronic, systemic **autoimmune** disorder * diminished exocrine gland function
54
what is the sicca complex that is associated with Sjogren's syndrome
dry eyes and mouth
55
keratoconjunctivitis sicca
dry eyes; deficiency in tear production
56
xerostomia
dry mouth
57
clinical presentation * fatigue * **keratoconjunctivitis sicca** * **xerostomia** * parotidis * dryness of nose, throat, larynx, bronchi, vagina, and skin * **arthritis** * raynauds
Sjogren's syndrome
58
diagnostic evaluation for Sjogren's syndrome
* ANA * anti-Ro/SSA * anti-La/SSB * schirmer's test: test for tear production
59
treatment for dry eyes associated with Sjogren's syndrome
* artificial tears * cyclosporine drops (restasis)
60
treatment for xerostomia associated with Sjogren's syndrome
* saliva substitute (biotene OTC) * water
61
what is systemic sclerosis
* autoimmune multisystem disorder * diffuse **fibrosis** of skin and internal organs
62
limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is associated with CREST syndrome. What is CREST stand for
* **C**alcinosis cutis * **R**aynaud's phenomenon * **E**sophageal dysmotility * **S**clerodactyly: diffusely puffy hands * **T**elangiectasia \*limited to fingers, distal forearm, face and neck
63
clinical presentation * rapid development of symmetric skin thickening * trunk and proximal extremities * likely to develop internal organ damage * ischemic injury or fibrosis * arthritis * pulmonary HTN, fibrosis * pericarditis, cardiomyopathy * renal failure
diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis
64
diagnostic lab findings for systemic sclerosis
* **scleroderma antibody (anti-SCL-70)** * anti-centromere antibodies (ACA): specific for limited SSc
65
treatment for cutaneous systemic sclerosis
* symptomatic and supportive
66
treatment for raynauds
nifedipine (calcium channel blocker)
67
can't see, can't pee, can't climb a tree
reactive arthritis
68
what is reactive arthritis
* inflammatory arthritis caused by GI or GU infection * occurs predominantly in those **HLA-B27**
69
clinical presentation * acute, asymmetric **oligoarthritis** * often affects lower extremities * occurs 1-4 weeks after GI or GU infection * **conjunctivitis** (can't see) * **urethritis** (can't pee) * keratoderma blennorrhagicum: hyperkeratotic skin lesion on palms and soles
reactive arthritis
70
when do reactive arthritis symptoms usually resolve
6-12 months
71
genital pathogen that causes reactive arthritis
chlamydia trachomatis
72
diagnostic confirmation of reactive arthritis
HLA-B27 antigen
73
treatment for reactive arthritis
1. NSAIDs 1. indomethacin 25-50 mg TID 2. intra-articular/systemic glucocorticoids 1. if inadequate response to NSAIDs 3. sulfasalzine, methotrexate 1. if inadequate response to NSAIDs and steroids