Lecture 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Roles of Imaging in PT Management: (7)

A
  1. Improve understanding of anatomy
  2. Improve understanding of pathology, trauma, healing
  3. Inform interventions
  4. Help you educate your patients
  5. Support or refute PT Dx.
  6. Improve ICD10 coding
  7. Support PT as practitioners of choice for MS conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Large osteophyte at talar head

A

Talar beak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Fibrous or bony attachment in area of foot- causes pain

A

Talocalcaneal coalition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Rare human an atomic variant that usually affects lateral meniscus of knee
MRI used

A

Discoid meniscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When is imaging needed? (4)

What are examples included within these categories?

A
  1. Trauma: MVA, fall, blunt trauma
  2. Cancer/malignancy/tumor: hx, age >55, weight loss, non-mechanical pain
  3. Infection: fever of unknown origin
  4. Miscellaneous: non-responsive to conservative care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

American College of Radiology: Appropriateness Criteria

The _______ the rating number, the more appropriate the study is for that patient

A

HIGHER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ACR Appropriateness Criteria:

Perform variants _____-_____, then if they refer for x-ray, continue ACR rating

A

Variants 1-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If MRI is not appropriate, then ____ may be more appropriate

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

________ are tools used by clinicians to determine likelihood that patient is presenting with given disorder, based on number of variables that have been shown to have predictive ______ in revealing patients most likely to have specific disorders

A

Clinical prediction rules

Validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Canadian C-Spine Rule:

What are the 3 questions?

A
  1. Any high risk factor that mandates radiography?
  2. Any low risk factor that allows safe assessment of ROM?
  3. Able to rotate neck actively?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Canadian C-Spine Rule:

What is considered “high risk factor that mandates radiography”

A

Age >65

Dangerous mechanism/paresthesia in extremeties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Canadian C-Spine Rule:

What qualifies as low risk factor that allows safe assessment of ROM

A
  • Simple rear end MVA
  • sitting position in ER
  • ambulatory at any time
  • delayed (not immediate) onset of neck pain
  • absence or midline cervical spine tenderness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Canadian C-Spine Rule:

What is meant by active neck rotation?

A

45 degrees L/R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ottawa Knee Rules (5 things)

A
  1. Age >55
  2. Isolated patella tenderness
  3. Tenderness at head of fibula
  4. Inability to flex knee to 90 deg
  5. Unable to bear weight immediately after and walk 4 steps in ER
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pittsburgh Knee Rule: 3 things

A
  • Blunt trauma or fall is MOI and either of following is true:
    1. Age <12 or >50
    2. Inability to walk 4 steps in ED
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ottawa Ankle Rules (4)

A
  1. Bone tenderness at posterior edge of distal 6cm of tip of medial or lateral malleolus
  2. Unable both to bear weight immediately after injury and walk 4 steps in ER
  3. Bone tenderness at base of 5th metatarsal
  4. Bone tenderness over navicular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pittsburgh Ankle Rules (2)

A
  1. Age <12 or >50

2. Unable both to bear weight and walk 4 steps in ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

AROM after Acute Elbow Injury:
Limited ROM in all directions of flexion, extension, sup/pro predictive of ________.
Sensitivity _____%, Specificity ______%
Individuals with limitation in ____ or ____ directions had no signs of fx in x-ray

A

Elbow fx
90, 92
One or two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

4 types of imaging modalities

A
  1. Radiographs/X-rays
  2. Computed tomography
  3. Ultrasound
  4. Magnetic resonance imaging
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most widely performed imaging exam?

A

X-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

X-rays are emitted and detected in ______, which can generate either film or digital image.

A

Cassette

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Films are kept on file or in digital archive called _____.

A

PACS (Picture archiving and communications system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

X-rays are a form of _____ ______ radiation (discovered in 1895)

A

Ionizing electromagnetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

X-rays are produced in tube and beamed out of collimator, which controls ______ and _____ of X-ray field

A

Size and shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

X-rays pass through patient and undergo _________

A

Attenuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Reduction in number of X-ray photons in beam as result of photons interaction with matter and losing energy through either scattering, absorption, or beam divergence is known as _____

A

Attenuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

3 ways X-ray photons lose energy

A
  1. Scattering
  2. Absorption
  3. Beam divergence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Combination of physical qualities of an object that determines how much radiation it absorbs from X-ray beam is _______

A

Radiodensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

4 shades of gray from radiolucent —–> radiopaque

A
  1. Air: black
  2. Fat: gray-black
  3. Water: gray
  4. Bone: white
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What color is radiolucent

A

Black- nothing is blocking it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What color is radiopaque

A

Bright white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What color is fat on X-ray

A

Gray-black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What color is air on X-ray

A

Black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What color is bone on X-ray

A

White

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What color is water on xray

A

Gray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

X-ray: ___D seen in ___D

A

3D, 2D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Image of xray is summation of _______

A

An atomic shadows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Radiodensity is function of ____ and _____

A

Thickness and composition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

T/F: One view is no view

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

5 limitations of radiographic imaging

A
  1. Film quality
  2. Sensitivity (not sensitive to subtle pathology)
  3. Specificity
  4. Appropriateness (inability to adequately visualize soft tissue)
  5. Examination errors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Pros of radiographs (5)

A
  1. Widely available
  2. Inexpensive
  3. Doesn’t require advanced technologist knowledge
  4. Can be performed quickly
  5. Portable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Cons of radiographs (3)

A
  1. Ionizing radiation
  2. Relatively intensive
  3. Patient cooperation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

4 types of radiographic distortion

A
  1. Enlargement
  2. Superimposition
  3. Elongation
  4. Foreshortening
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is foreshortening

A

Occurs when beam strikes object that is not at R angle to beam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is superimposition

A

One object on top of another on xray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is enlargement (xray)

A

Anything in front of the expanding beam looks smaller compared to those in the back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

T/F: it is ok to perform X-rays as often as needed

A

FALSE- “Because of the cumulative and harmful effects of ionizing radiation, X-rays should only be done when necessary and never as a routine procedure”

48
Q

CT: T/F

X-ray beam rotates 180 degrees around object

A

False- 360!

49
Q

CT: provides superior contrast and better visualization of _______ than radiography

A

Soft tissue

50
Q

CT: T/F

Not as good for imaging of bone fragments and fractures

A

FALSE! Better imaging of bone fragments and fxs

51
Q

Dynamic and continuous radiographic examination that provides REAL TIME imaging of physiological function is _____

A

Fluoroscopy

52
Q

What is a scintigraphy?

A

Bone scan

53
Q

Bone scan: Injection of polyphosphate and _____ ______ binds to hydroxyapatite found in _____ ______ bone

A

Radioactive isotope

Metabolically active

54
Q

What is a bone scan used for? (3)

A
  1. Bone tumors
  2. Metastasis
  3. Early detection of stress fx
55
Q

What type of imaging is used to see developing baby

A

Diagnostic U/S

56
Q

Diagnostic U/S is an image created by transmitting ________ into body that reflect off tissues. The intensity of the reflected ______ are then interpreted.

A

sound waves

Echoes

57
Q

Ultrasound origins are in ______

A

SONAR

58
Q

What are the 3 components of diagnostic u/s

A
  1. Pulser
  2. Transducer
  3. Scan converter and monitor
59
Q

What are the measurements of the pulser (u/s)

A

2-15 MHz

60
Q

What does the U/S transducer do

A

Converts electricity to sound

61
Q

How is U/S produced?

A

Reverse piezoelectric effect

62
Q

What are the beam characteristics of U/S

A

Converges to focal zone then diverges

63
Q

4 ways U/S sound waves travel

A
  1. Absorption
  2. Reflection
  3. Refraction- waves transmitted across interface an change directions
  4. Scattering
64
Q

How well the surface will reflect the U/S beam is called

A

Echogenicity

65
Q

U/S: Tissues or interfaces that reflect MUCH energy are ______

A

Hyperechoic

66
Q

U/S: Tissues and interfaces that reflect LITTLE energy are called

A

Hypoechoic

67
Q

U/S: Tissues and interfaces that reflect little energy (…thinking should say “no”?)

A

Anechoic

68
Q

Sound waves reflect off ______ tissue and interfaces between tissue that are dissimilar in ______ and produce _____ images

A

Hyperechoic
Density
Bright

69
Q

Dx U/S Scanning Planes:

Longitudinal sonogram results in _____ image

A

Sagittal

70
Q

Dx U/S Scanning Planes:

Transverse sonogram results in ______ image

A

Axial

71
Q

Dx U/S Scanning Planes:

Structures can be followed through ______

A

All planes

72
Q

DU/S Advantages: (7)

A
  1. High resolution
  2. Low cost
  3. Safe
  4. Fast
  5. Portable
  6. Easy comparison
  7. Well tolerated
73
Q

D U/S Disadvantages (3)

A
  1. Operator dependent
  2. Bone not penetrated
  3. Poor imaging of obese
74
Q

T/F: U/S is powerful dx tool for examining musculoskel disorders

A

TRUE

75
Q

T/F: Dx MS ultrasound does not fit well with orthopedic PT practice

A

FALSE- it does

76
Q

T/F: U/S substitutes for MRI in evaluating soft tissue injuries such as RTC, Achilles tendon

A

TRUE

77
Q

T/F: U/S provides biofeedback for transverse abdominus contractions

A

TRUE

78
Q

Procedure used to evaluate muscle and related soft tissue morphology and function during exercise and physical tasks

A

Rehabilitative U/S Imaging

79
Q

Measures spatial distribution of protons from H+ atoms in body when excited by radio frequency waves in magnetic field

A

MRI

80
Q

Signal emitted from MRI is ____ _____ ____

A

Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR)

81
Q

2 kinds of NMR used in MRI

A
  1. Free induction decay T2*

2. Echo (Spin, Gradient, Multi) T1, T2, PD

82
Q

Repetition time (TR) modifies ______-weighing

A

T1

83
Q

The longer the TR, the ____ T1- weighing the image is

A

Less

84
Q

Echo time (TE) modifies the ______-weighing

A

T2

85
Q

The ____ the TE, the less T2- weighed the image is

A

Shorter

86
Q

Short TR, short TE

A

T1-weighted image

87
Q

Long TR, long TE

A

T2-weighed image

88
Q

Long TR, short TE

A

PD-weighed image

89
Q

______ has a high intensity signal with T1

A

FAT

90
Q

____ has high intensity signal with T2

A

WATER (“H20-T2”)

91
Q

What is seen as high intensity with PD weighing

A

Fat and fluid

92
Q

MRI contrast- evaluates ______ and joint injuries, bone and _____ tumors

A

Soft tissue, soft tissue

93
Q

MRI: Changes in water content (H+ atoms)common in acute injuries and _____

A

Chronic inflammatory conditions

94
Q

MRI sequences are used for detecting _______ such as edema, effusions, synovial fluid, tumors, hematoma

A

Water changes

95
Q

Bright signal from _____ is often hindrance to dx in MR imaging

A

Fat

96
Q

MRI: More contrast is possible by manipulation of number of variables and by adding contrast medium such as _____

A

Gadolinium

97
Q

Relative tissue appearance:

Bone marrow T1, PD, T2

A

T1 Bright gray
PD Gray
T2 Gray

98
Q

Relative Tissue Appearance:

Fat T1, PD, T2

A

T1 Bright
PD Bright
T2 Gray

99
Q

Relative Tissue Appearance:

Edema/fluid T1 PD T2

A

T1 Dark
PD Bright
T2 Bright

100
Q

What color are ligaments and tendons on MRI

A

Dark

101
Q

Fluid-sensitive sequences:

T2 =

A

Fat-suppressed T2-weighted

102
Q

Fluid-sensitive sequences:

PD =

A

Proton density-weighted

103
Q

Fluid-sensitive sequences:

What is FSE

A

Fast spin echo

104
Q

Fluid-sensitive sequences:

What is short tau/T1 inversion-recovery

A

STIR

105
Q

MRI Artifact (4)

A
  1. Motion
  2. Flow
  3. Chemical shift
  4. Magic angle
106
Q

What is the “magic angle” of MRI

A

Can alter look of MRI if at 5 degree angle from view

107
Q

Limitations of MRI (3)

A
  1. Expensive
  2. Time consuming
  3. False positives
108
Q

3 contraindications to MRI

A
  1. Ferrous metals
  2. Implanted devices
  3. Fixation devices and total joint components made of ferrous metals
109
Q

What is the Lexicom for Uniform Indexing and Retrieval of Imaging Information acronym?

A

Radlex (terminology standards for MRI radiologists)

110
Q

Why do MRIs make noise?

A

Banging is vibration of metal coils of MRI magnet caused by rapid pulses of electricity. The stronger the magnet and stronger the vibrations, louder the banging.

111
Q

In ______ MRI, ear protection is recommended

A

3T

112
Q

Open vs. closed MRI:

Measured in ______

A

Tesla (T)

113
Q

Open vs. Closed MRI:

1.5 T is _____

A

Open

114
Q

Open vs. Closed MRI:

______ is standard and closed

A

3T

115
Q

Open vs. Closed MRI:

_____ T is used in research

A

7