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P2 Lab > Lec > Flashcards

Lec Flashcards

1
Q

Which is not a pyrimidine base?

a. cytosine
b. thymine
c. uracil
d. guanine

A

d. guanine

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2
Q

Where do Z-DNA mostly present?

a. In DNA- RNA hybrids
b. Chromosomal DNA
c. In a sequence of alternating purines
d. RNA- RNA double-stranded regions

A

c. In a sequence of alternating purines

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3
Q

This is a type of topoisomerase where it cut the phosphodiester backbone of one strand of DNA, passes the other end through, and then reseals the backbone

A

Class 1 topoisomerase

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4
Q

Which of the following is true about DNA replication?

a. Manufacturing new DNA strands are orchestrated by ligases.
b. The steps of replication in prokaryotic organisms are different from those of eukaryotic organisms
c. The leading strand is synthesized in the 2’ to ‘direction.
d. Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes begin in DNA strands with a small primer of RNA

A

d. Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes begin in DNA strands with a small primer of RNA.

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5
Q

It is a type of nucleic acid made up of one of the four heterocyclic bases, adenine, cytosine, guanine, or thymine.

A

DNA

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6
Q

It consist of DNA wrapped around a histone core.

A

Nucleosome

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7
Q

This antibiotic can bind to the bacterial ribosome subunit, blocking the exit of growing peptide chain.

A

Erythromycin

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8
Q

It is the biochemical process by which DNA molecules produce exact duplicates of themselves

A

DNA Replication

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9
Q

This is unbranched polymer containing the monomer units called nucleotides.

A

Nucleic Acids

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10
Q

Which of the following DOES NOT belong to the
group?

a. Mitochondrial matrix
b. Inner membrane
c. Cristae
d. Cell wall

A

d. Cell wall

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11
Q

Which of the following is the correct pair?

a. FAD – Flavin Adenosine Dinucleotide
b. ATP – Adenine Triphosphate
c. NAD – Nicotine Adenine Dinucleotide
d. CoA – Coenzyme A

A

c. NAD – Nicotine Adenine Dinucleotide

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12
Q

(1) – Acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate condense to form citryl CoA
(2) The enzyme involved in both reactions within this step is citrate dehydrogenase
(3) Second part of the reaction requires dehydrogenation of a thioester bond
(4) Products of this step are citrate, CoA-SH, and H+

Which of the following is/are true?

A

1 and 4

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13
Q

(1) – Acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate condense to form citryl CoA
(2) The enzyme involved in both reactions within this step is citrate dehydrogenase
(3) Second part of the reaction requires dehydrogenation of a thioester bond
(4) Products of this step are citrate, CoA-SH, and H+

Which of the following is/are not true?

A

2 and 3

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14
Q

This is a series of biochemical reactions in which electrons and hydrogen ions from NADH and FADH2 are passed to intermediate carriers and then ultimately react with molecular oxygen to produce water

A

Electron Transport Chain

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15
Q

Which of the following is not a product of b-oxidation of fatty acids?

a. Acetyl CoA
b. Acyl CoA
c. NADH
d. FAD

A

d. FAD

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16
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about the electron transport chain?

a. Water is formed as a product of the transfer of electrons and hydronium ions.
b. The enzymes and electron carriers required for ETC are located along the inner mitochondrial membrane.
c. Complex IV is the largest protein complex that carries electrons in the electron transport chain.
d. CoQ shuttles the electrons from Complex I and II to Complex III

A

c. Complex IV is the largest protein complex that carries electrons in the electron transport chain.

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17
Q

Which complex protein utilizes FADH2 generated from the conversion of succinate to fumarate in the citric acid cycle?

A

Complex II

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18
Q

What biochemical process synthesizes ATP from ADP as a result of electrons and hydrogen ions from NADH or FADH2?

A

Oxidative Phosphorylation

19
Q

Which of the following statement is TRUE on the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates in our body?

a. Gastric juice does not affect digestion
b. Hydrolysis of polysaccharides happens in the stomach
c. Complete hydrolysis of glycosidic linkages occur in the mouth
d. Hydrolysis of polysaccharides occurs in the intestinal lining

A

a. Gastric juice does not affect digestion

20
Q

During oxidation and phosphorylation using inorganic phosphate in glycolysis, what enzyme helps catalyze Fructose 1,6 biphosphate into DHAP and G3P?

A

Aldolase

21
Q

The breakdown of triglycerides by lipases is under
hormonal control of the following except______

a. Epinephrine
b. Progesterone
c. Insulin
d. Glucagon

A

b. Progesterone

22
Q

In the isomerization of 3-phosphoglycerate form 2-phosphoglycerate, what carbons are involved in the migration of the phosphate group?

A

From C3 to C2

23
Q

Which of the cell does glycolysis occur?

A

Cytosol

24
Q

Which of the is not a product of b-oxidation of fatty acids?

a. Acetyl CoA
b. Acyl CoA
c. NADH
d. FAD

A

d. FAD

25
Q

The primary site for carbohydrate is located in the small intestine. In this phase of carbohydrate digestion, the enzyme a-amylase aids digestion again. What organ does a-amylase enzyme come from?

A

Pancreas

26
Q

In the first step of six carbon stage of glycolysis, phosphorylation of glucose occurs to lead glucose 6 phosphate with the help of what enzyme?

A

Hexokinase

27
Q

What is the end-product of glycolysis in aerobic conditions?

A

Acetyl CoA

28
Q

This is a biochemical process by which NADH is oxidized to NAD+ without the need for oxygen

A

Fermentation

29
Q

This is a metabolic pathway in which glycogen is synthesized from glucose 6-phosphate

A

Glycogenesis

30
Q

On the first step of glycogenesis, the formation of glucose 1-phosphate from glucose 1-phosphate from glucose 6-phosphate is catalyzed by an enzyme called phosphoglucomutase. The complete conversion from 6-phosphate to 1-phosphate is a process called _____.

A

Isomerization

31
Q

In the oxidative stage of the pentose phosphate pathway, how many NADPH molecules are produced per molecule of glucose 6-phosphate?

A

2

32
Q

During glycogenesis, in the formation of UDP-glucose (uridine diphosphate glucose), glucose 1-phosphate must be activated before it can be added to growing chains of glycogen. For this to be possible, a high-energy activator must be added. What is this activator compound?

A

Uridine triphosphate

33
Q

What are the products of the hydrolysis of triacylglycerol (TAG)?

A

1 monoacylglycerol and 2 fatty acids

34
Q

Which of the following describes the first step of triacylglycerol mobilization?

a. Phosphorylation of a primary hydroxyl group of the glycerol
b. Oxidation of the secondary group of glycerol
c. Activation of fatty acid by forming a bond with a coenzyme A
d. Transport of fatty acid

A

a. Phosphorylation of a primary hydroxyl group of the glycerol

35
Q

The pyruvate is formed in the cytosol after glycolysis, it then crosses two mitochondrial membranes and enters which part of the mitochondria where the oxidation occurs.

A

Matrix

36
Q

Which of the following information about digestion and absorption of protein is NOT true?

a. Protein digestion starts in the mouth
b. Active transport of amino acids occurs in the intestinal lining
c. Denaturation of protein is due to HCl in the stomach
d. Carboxypeptides hydrolyzes peptide bonds in the small intestine

A

a. Protein digestion starts in the mouth

37
Q

What fuel the urea cycle

A

Carbamoyl phosphate and aspartate

38
Q

This is the state that results when the amount of nitrogen taken into the human body as protein equals the amount of nitrogen excreted from the body in waste materials.

A

Nitrogen balance

39
Q

This is a condition that occurs when there is excess bilirubin in the blood.

A

jaundice

40
Q

What is the secondary fuel in the urea cycle?

A

Aspartate

41
Q

It is a group of conditions in which a defect in tyrosine metabolism results in the deficiency in the production of melanin

A

Albinism

42
Q

This is caused by a deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase, is the most common clinically encountered inborn error of amino acid metabolism

A

Phenylketonuria

43
Q

These are highly specialized cells whose primary function is deliver oxygen to and remove carbon dioxide from body tissues

A

Red blood cells

P2 Lab (3 decks)

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