Leading People Exam Flashcards

Help me study for the final Exam

1
Q

What is a key research focus in the course?

A

Organizational Culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the four main areas of leadership that students will learn about?

A
  • Leading yourself
  • Leading individuals
  • Leading teams
  • Leading organizations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is psychological safety in the context of leadership?

A

Shared belief held by members of a team that they can take risks without being penalized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does leadership impact team performance according to evidence-based leadership?

A
  • Task-focused leadership → team productivity
  • Task-focused leadership → team performance
  • Person-focused leadership → team learning
  • Destructive leadership → employee turnover
  • Destructive leadership → individual performance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the correlation value indicating the impact of task-focused leadership on team productivity?

A

.20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does a high psychological safety team do regarding errors?

A

Teams with high psychological safety report more errors and learn from them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the significance of evidence-based leadership?

A

It links leadership behaviors to measurable outcomes, such as team performance and employee turnover.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the Common Knowledge Effect (CKE) refer to?

A

Information held by more members before team discussion has more influence on team judgments than information held by fewer members.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fill in the blank: The course aims to help you get ready to succeed as _______.

A

[leaders going forward]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the recommended method to protect against the Common Knowledge Effect (CKE)?

A
  • Structure the process
  • Use nominal group technique
  • Discuss pros/cons before sharing preference
  • Rank-order alternatives
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the characteristics of conscientious individuals according to the self-assessment?

A
  • Organized
  • Responsible
  • Dependable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How can leaders create psychological safety in teams?

A

By encouraging open communication and feedback-sharing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the correlation value indicating the impact of destructive leadership on individual performance?

A

-.20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does general mental ability (g) explain in relation to job performance?

A

About 25% of the variance in job performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is self-efficacy?

A

Belief that one can perform a task successfully

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does locus of control affect job satisfaction?

A

Higher job satisfaction and emotional well-being

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What demographic factors have no predictive value in understanding job performance?

A

Gender and ethnicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is personality defined as?

A

A set of traits, characteristics, and behaviors that makes a person distinct across various situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most popular personality test mentioned?

A

Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some limitations of the MBTI?

A
  • Validity issues
  • Bi-modal distributions
  • Low test-retest reliability
  • Inability to predict important outcomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the ‘Big Five’ dimensions of personality?

A
  • Openness to Experience
  • Conscientiousness
  • Extraversion
  • Agreeableness
  • Need for Stability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does ‘Openness to Experience’ refer to?

A

Tendency to seek out familiarity vs. novelty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a characteristic of high conscientiousness?

A

Preference for being organized and structured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does extraversion indicate about a person?

A

Tendency toward sociability and seeking stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How does agreeableness manifest in personality?

A

Tendency to challenge vs. accommodate others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the ‘Need for Stability’ dimension about?

A

Tendency to be relaxed/composed vs. concerned/vigilant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does emotional stability predict in job performance?

A

Good predictive validity for extraversion; better than chance for openness & conscientiousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Fill in the blank: The ‘Big Five’ dimensions of personality include Openness to Experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, and _______.

A

Need for Stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the significance of person-job fit?

A

It relates to how well an individual’s personality matches the job requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

True or False: Emotional intelligence predicts job performance regardless of general mental ability.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a key takeaway from the Wolfgang Keller case?

A

Every personality difference is an opportunity for complementarity or a risk of conflict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the relationship between personality traits and resume cues?

A

Certain traits can be inferred from resume cues, but emotional stability and agreeableness are harder to predict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is self-concept in the context of individual differences?

A

The perception of oneself, including self-efficacy and locus of control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the impact of stereotypes about gender and ethnicity on job outcomes?

A

They can affect job and career outcomes despite having no predictive value for performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the recommended activity for the in-class session?

A

Exchange resumes and predict each other’s Big 5 traits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the role of training in predicting personality traits from resumes?

A

Training improves accuracy in predicting personality traits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What can be inferred if a person demonstrates high levels of extraversion?

A

They likely engage in social and extracurricular activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are emotions?

A

Elicited by target or cause, specific, intense, and short-lived.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are moods?

A

Not elicited by target or cause, general, and more diffuse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Define trait affect.

A

Relatively stable tendency to experience emotions/moods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

List examples of basic emotions.

A
  • Happiness
  • Sadness
  • Pride
  • Fear
  • Anger
  • Surprise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Why are emotions important?

A
  • Influence your own thinking
  • (De)motivate you
  • Convey information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How do positive traits affect creativity?

A

Positive (not negative) trait affect increases creativity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is cognitive reappraisal?

A

A technique to change your thoughts about an event to alter emotional response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is emotional intelligence?

A

Perceiving, understanding, managing emotions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the components of emotional intelligence?

A
  • Self-awareness
  • Self-regulation
  • Self-motivation
  • (Self-)empathy
  • Social skills
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is amygdala hijacking?

A

Threat response to negative emotional stimulus (fear, anger).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the significance of self-compassion?

A

Desire to minimize one’s suffering and treat yourself like you treat others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

True or False: Emotions do not influence job performance.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the impact of positive affect on problem-solving?

A

Enhances problem-solving.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Fill in the blank: Employees want to work for managers who are _______.

A

[emotionally intelligent].

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are microexpressions?

A

Brief, involuntary facial expressions that convey information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does the term ‘self-talk’ refer to?

A

Talking to oneself, which can influence emotions and motivation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the role of emotional management in leadership?

A

It helps in motivating the team and managing relationships.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What did Li Fen realize about emotional management?

A

One must manage their own emotions before dealing with others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the relationship between emotional management and team motivation?

A

Good emotional management leads to higher motivation in the team.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

List the steps in diagnosing Li Fen’s emotional challenges.

A
  • Identify the cause of temper loss
  • Assess impact on subordinates
  • Draw lessons from experiences.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the relationship between emotional intelligence and job performance?

A

Emotional intelligence does not predict job performance unless general mental ability is low.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is a key factor in enhancing creativity according to the text?

A

Positive affect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the outcome of discomfort in the context of emotions?

A

It can signal growth, leading to greater motivation and risk-taking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Fill in the blank: Emotional intelligence explains about _____ of the variance in job performance.

A

[25%].

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the difference between in-group and culture-specific interpretations of emotions?

A

In-group interpretations are shared within a culture, while culture-specific interpretations vary between cultures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is escalation of commitment?

A

The tendency for people to continue to support previously unsuccessful courses of action because they have sunk costs invested in them.

Source: Staw & Ross, 1989

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are common reasons why escalation of commitment happens?

A
  • Preference for initial decision
  • Sunk costs
  • Expertise/self-efficacy
  • Ego threat
  • Proximity to project completion

Source: Sleesman et al., 2012

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How can one avoid escalation of commitment?

A
  • Set limits
  • Be accountable for decision process
  • Avoid tunnel vision
  • Recognize sunk costs
  • Offer incentives for shutting down projects
  • External review

Source: Meglino & Korsgaard, 2004; Molden & Hui, 2011

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is a heuristic?

A

Cognitive tools we use to simplify decision making (i.e., rules of thumb).

Source: Gilovich, Griffin & Kahneman, 2002

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is a bias in decision-making?

A

Cognitive partiality that prevents objective consideration of an issue or situation due to (over)reliance on heuristics.

Source: Gilovich, Griffin & Kahneman, 2002

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the anchoring and adjustment heuristic?

A

Estimating process whereby people start with a known value and then adjust the estimate up or down.

Source: Kahneman et al., 1982

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are common biases associated with anchoring?

A
  • People anchor on non-relevant or misleading factors
  • People under-adjust from the anchor

Source: Kahneman et al., 1982

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the availability heuristic?

A

Tendency to base decisions on information readily available in memory.

Source: Kahneman et al., 1982

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is status quo bias?

A

The tendency for people to stick to the current default option.

Source: Kahneman et al., 1982

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the framing heuristic?

A

People prefer to avoid losses rather than seeking gains (by a factor of 2:1).

Source: Kahneman, Tversky, & Slovic, 1982

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is moral humility?

A

Capacity to transgress if not vigilant.

Source: Kouchaki and Smith, 2020

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the three-stage approach to ethics?

A
  • Prepare in advance for moral challenges
  • Don’t fall victim to ethical mirage
  • Make good decisions in the moment

Source: Kouchaki and Smith, 2020

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ is the tendency for people to continue to invest in a failing course of action due to previous investments.

A

escalation of commitment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

True or False: Individuals with a growth mindset are less likely to fall victim to escalation of commitment.

A

True

Source: Lee, Keil, & Wong, 2020

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What happened in the Challenger Disaster?

A

Cold temperature caused O-ring sealing rocket booster joints to rupture, leading to the disaster.

Source: Staw, Barsade, & Koput, 1997

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A

Look for evidence consistent with a proposition but fail to look for disconfirming evidence.

Source: Kahneman, Tversky, & Slovic, 1982

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the purpose of setting high yet achievable goals?

A

To overcome anchoring and adjustment bias.

Source: Kahneman et al., 1982

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the relationship between sunk costs and decision-making?

A

Sunk costs can lead to escalation of commitment, making individuals continue with failing projects.

Source: Staw & Ross, 1989

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the significance of personality in individual behavior?

A

Personality is your default / your comfort zone (typical patterns of behavior, thought, and feeling).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the components of the OCEAN model of personality?

A
  • Openness to Experience
  • Conscientiousness
  • Extraversion
  • Agreeableness
  • Need for Stability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What influences do emotions have on individuals?

A
  • They influence your own thinking
  • They (de)motivate you
  • They convey information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are the key components of emotional intelligence?

A
  • Self-awareness
  • Self-regulation
  • Self-motivation
  • (Self-)empathy
  • Social skills
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is escalation of commitment?

A

A situation where individuals continue to invest in a decision despite evidence suggesting it may be a poor choice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are some types of heuristics in decision making?

A
  • Anchoring & adjustment heuristic
  • Availability heuristic
  • Status quo bias
  • Framing heuristic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the two types of reciprocity in relationships?

A
  • Direct
  • Generalized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Who tends to perform better in professional settings: Givers, Takers, or Matchers?

A

Givers and Matchers tend to perform better than Takers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What strategies can be used to deal with successful takers?

A
  • Leverage matchers on the team
  • Adjust incentive system
  • Root-cause motives behind behavior
  • Share reputational feedback
  • Account for self-interest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What does degree centrality refer to in social networks?

A

Degree centrality refers to how central an individual is within a social network, influencing their access to information and power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the value of weak ties in networking?

A

Weak ties provide more diverse information and can increase power within a network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

According to Mark Granovetter, what percentage of people find jobs through personal connections?

A

56% of people find jobs through personal connections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are structural holes in social networks?

A

Structural holes are gaps in a network that can be bridged for increased power and influence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Fill in the blank: A good request is something that is ______.

A

[important to you, you cannot figure out on your own, specific]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are common barriers to making requests for help?

A
  • Emotional risk (fear, guilt, embarrassment)
  • Impression management (lack of competence)
  • Interpersonal risks (burden, owing a favor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the purpose of a Reciprocity Ring?

A

To facilitate giving and receiving help among participants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the primary objectives of performance reviews?

A

Reinforce behavioral strengths, highlight improvement opportunities, develop a plan to support improvement, set expectations for next performance cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What percentage of feedback interventions are shown to increase performance?

A

2/3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What percentage of feedback interventions are shown to decrease performance?

A

1/3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What can positive feedback lead to?

A

Complacency, reduced intrinsic motivation, less learning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the primary issue with negative feedback?

A

It can be rejected unless in a collectivistic culture, leading to ego threat and reduced motivation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the feedback sandwich?

A

A technique where positives are ignored or undervalued and positives overpower negatives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are the best practices for giving feedback?

A

Frame, inquiry, humility, specific, transparent conversation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What should one avoid when receiving feedback?

A

Reacting defensively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Fill in the blank: Seeking positive feedback signals lacking _______.

A

self-efficacy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Fill in the blank: Seeking negative feedback signals _______ and improvement focus.

A

initiative.

107
Q

What role did nursing leaders play in the effectiveness of real-time feedback at Temple Health?

A

They played an important role in improving effectiveness.

108
Q

What was a key factor in the initial ineffectiveness of real-time feedback at Temple Health?

A

Morewood did not behaviorally enact real-time feedback by seeking feedback himself.

109
Q

What is one way to improve feedback-giving effectiveness?

A

Role model humility.

110
Q

What is an important aspect of the feedback process according to the science behind giving feedback?

A

Specific examples/stories/actions.

111
Q

True or False: Feedback sandwiches are considered an effective method of delivering feedback.

112
Q

What should one prioritize to receive feedback effectively?

A

Proactive feedback-seeking.

113
Q

What did Morewood require his team to do to improve feedback effectiveness?

A

Give him real-time feedback.

114
Q

What were the steps in the Temple Health System case analysis?

A

Context and background, diagnosis of pros and cons, recommendations.

115
Q

What is one common misconception about feedback interventions?

A

That they always lead to improved performance.

116
Q

What is the significance of a transparent conversation in feedback?

A

It promotes open dialogue and clarity.

117
Q

What is motivation?

A

The desire to achieve a goal or a certain performance level, leading to goal-directed behavior

Source: Locke & Latham, 2002

118
Q

How might goals increase performance?

A

Goals can:
* Direct attention
* Energize effort
* Sustain effort
* Promote discovery of task-relevant knowledge, skills, & strategies

Source: Locke & Latham, 2002

119
Q

What are the costs and benefits of change according to the Change Game?

A

Costs of change are certain and incurred in the present; benefits are uncertain and in the future

Trust is necessary to motivate individuals

120
Q

What happens when there is a lack of involvement in the change process?

A

Leads to little commitment

Those who are more difficult to motivate to change can actually become more powerful; equity issues can arise

121
Q

What is Equity Theory?

A

A theory that evaluates fairness in the distribution of outcomes based on inputs and outcomes of the individual compared to others

Source: Adams, 1963, 1965

122
Q

What are the three types of justice in Justice Theory?

A
  • Distributive Justice
  • Procedural Justice
  • Interactive Justice

Source: Folger & Greenberg, 1985

123
Q

What is the Expectancy Theory of Motivation?

A

Employees evaluate expected outcomes from different behaviors and select behaviors that will result in the most valued outcomes

Motivation = Expectancy X Instrumentality X Valence

124
Q

What does the EPO model stand for?

A

Effort, Performance, Outcome

If employees answer ‘YES’ to all three questions of the model, they are likely to be highly motivated

125
Q

What are some problems with financial incentives?

A
  • Incentives can undermine complex thinking
  • Incentives can be difficult to align
  • Incentives can create perceptions of inequity
  • Incentives can foster competition
  • Communicating pay decisions can cause conflict

Source: Ryan & Deci, 2000; Bloom, 1999; Bloom & Michel, 2002

126
Q

What is Job Characteristics Theory?

A

A theory that focuses on how certain job characteristics can enhance motivation and satisfaction

Source: Oldham and Hackman, 1975

127
Q

What was the finding from the truck drivers’ goal-setting study?

A

A 15% increase in the number of mill trips per day resulted in savings of $2.7 million in less than 4 months

Source: Locke & Latham, 2002

128
Q

What are some negative effects of goal-setting?

A
  • Enhances tunnel vision
  • Reduces giving and collaboration
  • Increases unethical behavior
  • Promotes individualism and competitiveness

Source: Schweitzer et al., 2004; Shah et al., 2002

129
Q

What are the three key performance goals for members of the Florida Sales Team?

A
  1. Selling
  2. New Ideas
  3. Paperwork

Goals set by the Atlanta/NY leaders

130
Q

What does the Effort to Performance link (E → P) indicate?

A

It assesses how likely it is that effort will lead to performance

Strong or weak linkages affect motivation

131
Q

What is the significance of the Performance to Outcome link (P → O)?

A

It evaluates how likely it is that performance will lead to desired outcomes

Strong or weak linkages affect motivation

132
Q

Fill in the blank: Motivation = _______ X _______ X _______.

A

Expectancy X Instrumentality X Valence

Source: Vroom, 1964

133
Q

True or False: Job Characteristics Theory suggests that job design can influence motivation.

A

True

Source: Oldham and Hackman, 1975

134
Q

What are the three types of individuals in relationships according to the course?

A

Givers, Matchers, Takers

135
Q

How can givers succeed in relationships?

A

Help other givers and matchers, be cautious of takers, be both self and other-interested

136
Q

What is the theory that explains how we are connected to individuals?

A

Social network theory

137
Q

What role do weak ties play in social networks?

A

They can re-energize dormant ties

138
Q

What is the purpose of the Reciprocity RingTM?

A

To use in the workplace to foster giving and receiving

139
Q

What are effective strategies for giving feedback?

A

Frame, Inquiry, Humility, Specific, Transparent conversation

140
Q

What should you avoid when receiving feedback?

A

Defensive reactions

141
Q

What is the Expectancy Theory in motivation?

A

It involves effort-performance link, performance-outcomes link, and value of outcomes/rewards

142
Q

What can be demotivating in a workplace context?

A

Financial incentives

143
Q

What are the three risks of offering financial rewards?

A
  1. Decreased intrinsic motivation 2. Inequality among team members 3. Short-term focus
144
Q

What is the first factor in determining if a team is necessary?

A

Task complexity

145
Q

What two types of leadership structures are mentioned for teams?

A

Manager-led, Self-managing teams

146
Q

What are the three criteria for sustained team effectiveness?

A

Output, Collaborative ability/viability, Members’ individual development

147
Q

What are the five enabling factors for team effectiveness?

A
  1. Real team 2. Compelling direction 3. Enabling structure 4. Supportive context 5. Expert coaching
148
Q

What does task-focused leadership emphasize?

A

Team productivity and performance

149
Q

What does relational leadership focus on?

A

Encouraging team members and ensuring engagement

150
Q

What does the Least Preferred Leader Scale measure?

A

Effectiveness of leaders based on personal experiences

151
Q

What does a lower score on List 1 of the Least Preferred Leader Scale indicate?

A

Strong task focus

152
Q

What does a lower score on List 2 of the Least Preferred Leader Scale indicate?

A

Strong relationship focus

153
Q

What challenges do geographically distant teams face?

A

Logistical constraints and response delays

154
Q

What is a key strategy for bridging cultural/social distance in diverse teams?

A

Plan structured interactions

155
Q

What is a critical takeaway regarding sustained team effectiveness?

A

Defined not only by output/performance but also collaborative ability/viability and individual development

156
Q

What does task leadership involve?

A

Developing and communicating visions and project plans

157
Q

What should leaders focus on in the early stages of team formation?

A

Tasks to create energy

158
Q

What is the dark side of goal-setting?

A

It can lead to negative consequences if goals are unrealistic or overly focused

159
Q

What is one of the main topics for Class #9?

A

Building Effective Virtual Teams

160
Q

What is the call to action required in the Dyadic Podcast Assignment?

A

Illustrate the practical importance of your idea

161
Q

How should feedback be framed for it to be effective?

A

Specific and transparent conversation

162
Q

True or False: Feedback sandwiches are effective.

163
Q

What is the average rating for the statement ‘I have gained a deeper understanding of the subject matter’?

A

4.67 / 5

Based on midcourse evaluations

164
Q

What are the two categories of team processes discussed in the course?

A
  • Information sharing
  • Decision-making
165
Q

What is the Common Knowledge Effect (CKE)?

A

Information held by more members before team discussion has more influence on team judgments than information held by fewer members, independent of the validity of the information

166
Q

What are the key components necessary for sustained team effectiveness?

A
  • Real team
  • Compelling direction
  • Enabling structure
  • Supportive context
  • Expert coaching
167
Q

What is one suggestion made by students for improving learning in the course?

A

Provide a two-minute overview of assignments before they are due

168
Q

What can be done to minimize the Common Knowledge Effect?

A

Use inquiry rather than advocacy

169
Q

What type of conflict is considered beneficial for team effectiveness?

A

Constructive conflict

170
Q

What are the three ways leaders can bridge geographical distance between team members in remote teams?

A
  • Regular video conferencing
  • Establishing clear communication protocols
  • Fostering team bonding activities
171
Q

What are the types of task interdependence in teams?

A
  • Pooled
  • Sequential
  • Reciprocal
172
Q

What is one key objective for the class session focused on team process gains and losses?

A

Identify team process gains (or losses) that enable (or hinder) team effectiveness

173
Q

What is the significance of the Team Input-Process-Output Model?

A

It illustrates how individual differences, team dynamics, and environmental factors influence team effectiveness

174
Q

What is the purpose of the Threat Target Maldonia team exercise?

A

Determine which of three potential persons poses the greatest threat to Freedonia

175
Q

What is the Common Knowledge Effect (CKE)?

A

Information held by more members before team discussion has more influence on team judgments than information held by fewer members

176
Q

How can CKE be worsened?

A
  • Use advocacy rather than inquiry
  • Larger team sizes
  • More information
177
Q

How can teams protect against CKE?

A
  • Structure the process
  • Use nominal group technique
  • Discuss pros/cons of each option before sharing preference
  • Rank-order alternatives
  • Use advocacy for unearthing minority opinions
  • Use inquiry for unearthing silent minority opinions
178
Q

What is the difference between brainstorming and brainwriting?

A

Brainstorming involves team members generating ideas together, while brainwriting has individuals generate ideas independently

179
Q

What are the disadvantages of face-to-face brainstorming?

A
  • Worse quality and lower quantity of ideas
  • Production blocked
  • Anxiety about negative evaluation
  • Conformity
180
Q

What are coordination costs in teams?

A

Costs arising from group norms that lead to uneven talk time and expectations about who should speak

181
Q

How can coordination costs be overcome?

A
  • Flatten the hierarchy
  • Rotate leadership
  • Reduce group size
182
Q

What is the Abilene Paradox?

A

Groups often agree to a course of action that none of them wants, assuming others want it

183
Q

What is Group Polarization?

A

Group judgments are often more extreme than the sum of the judgments of individual members

184
Q

What causes Social Loafing?

A
  • Increased anonymity in larger groups
  • Expectation of others free-riding
185
Q

How can Social Loafing be reduced?

A
  • Transparency
  • Accountability
  • Role specialization
  • Task importance
  • Group identification
  • Reducing the sucker effect
186
Q

What is Groupthink?

A

A phenomenon where collective rationalizations downplay negative information, leading to poor decision-making

187
Q

How can Groupthink be overcome?

A
  • Proactively search for disconfirming evidence
  • Create a psychologically safe environment
  • Assign a ‘devil’s advocate’ role
  • Involve an outsider for perspective
  • Hold a ‘pre-mortem’ meeting
188
Q

What is the definition of conflict in teams?

A

A process in which one party perceives that another party has taken or will take actions that are incompatible with one’s own interests

189
Q

What are the three types of conflict in teams?

A
  • Task Conflict
  • Relationship Conflict
  • Process Conflict
190
Q

What is Task Conflict?

A

Awareness of differences in viewpoints and opinions pertaining to a task

191
Q

What is Relationship Conflict?

A

Awareness of interpersonal incompatibilities and personal issues among group members

192
Q

What is Process Conflict?

A

Awareness of controversies about how task accomplishment will proceed

193
Q

What are the outcomes of different types of conflict on team performance?

A

Task Conflict can be positive, while Relationship and Process Conflicts are generally negative

194
Q

What are strategies for having a productive conflict?

A
  • Focus on the facts
  • Multiply alternatives
  • Create common goals
  • Use humor
  • Balance the power structure
  • Seek consensus with qualification
195
Q

What guidelines should be followed when developing a team contract?

A
  • Who will have what responsibilities?
  • How will the team make decisions?
  • How will the team critique individuals’ work quality?
196
Q

What are some ways to build effective virtual teams?

A
  • Invest in best available technologies
  • Implement policies that enhance familiarity
  • Select and prepare team leaders
  • Structure the team and its mission
  • Support team tasks and socioemotional needs
197
Q

What are key takeaways regarding team process gains and losses?

A
  • Team leaders can maximize gains by minimizing losses
  • Empowering members to engage in productive conflict is essential
  • Trust is crucial for effective virtual teams
198
Q

What is the definition of power?

A

Ability to get someone to do something despite resistance

“A has power over B to the extent that A can get B to do something that B would not otherwise do” (Dahl, 1957)

199
Q

What are the two types of characteristics in Status Characteristics Theory?

A
  • Diffuse Characteristics (e.g. age, gender, education)
  • Specific Characteristics (e.g. strong analytic skills)

Source: Berger & Zelditch, 1985

200
Q

Name the five bases of power according to French and Raven.

A
  • Coercive
  • Reward
  • Expert
  • Referent
  • Legitimate/Authority

Source: French & Raven, 1959

201
Q

What bases of power are considered sustainable?

A
  • Expert
  • Referent

These are intrinsic to the person and not dependent on position or resources.

202
Q

What does Power-Dependence Theory state?

A

Power can be thought of as the inverse of dependence

The greater B’s dependency on A, the greater the power A has over B.

203
Q

List the six principles of influence according to Cialdini.

A
  • Reciprocity
  • Scarcity
  • Authority
  • Consistency
  • Liking
  • Social Proof

Source: Cialdini, 2006

204
Q

Fill in the blank: Team members with _______ locus of control are more influenced by influence tactics.

205
Q

What is the characteristic of team members with an internal locus of control?

A

They believe they control their own destiny

They react negatively to influence tactics.

206
Q

What is the first step in the Donna Dubinsky case analysis?

A

Context and Background

207
Q

What should leaders encourage team members to have?

A

Good fights

This involves healthy conflict that can lead to better decision-making.

208
Q

What is the role of intention questions in influence tactics?

A

They help infiltrate resistance tactics and enable contemplation and self-persuasion.

209
Q

True or False: Expert and referent power are dependent on position.

210
Q

What did Campbell ultimately agree to in the Dubinsky case?

A

To let Donna take the lead on the analysis and recommendations

211
Q

What is a key takeaway regarding team process gains and losses?

A

They determine whether individual, team, and environmental inputs enhance team effectiveness.

212
Q

What are the three ways leaders can encourage good fights among team members?

A
  1. Minimizing team process losses
  2. Empowering team members
  3. Developing a team contract
213
Q

What factors increase dependency according to Power-Dependence Theory?

A
  • Importance
  • Scarcity
  • Non-substitutability

These factors increase the power one has over another.

214
Q

What is the impact of stereotypes on expert and referent power?

A

Double standards can create tradeoffs between perceptions of expert and referent power.

215
Q

What are the key aspects of effective change leadership?

A

Characteristics of the source/target of change, change models, organizational structure

Effective change leadership involves understanding both the characteristics of those leading the change and those affected by it, as well as the frameworks that guide the change process.

216
Q

What challenges do leaders face when leading change?

A

Unwanted change, potential losses, need for new skills, low credibility of change agent, unclear meaning of change, powerful resisters

These challenges can arise from various sources, including the change itself and the organizational environment.

217
Q

What are the phases in Kotter’s Change Model?

A
  1. Establish urgency
  2. Form powerful coalition
  3. Create change vision
  4. Communicate vision
  5. Remove barriers
  6. Make short-term wins
  7. Build on wins/capability
  8. Anchor in culture

This model outlines a structured approach to implementing successful change.

218
Q

What does the term ‘organizational structure’ refer to?

A

Defines how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated

Organizational structure is critical for understanding how an organization operates and how changes can be effectively implemented.

219
Q

What are the advantages of a functional structure?

A
  • Efficiency and scale
  • Specialized functional skill development
  • Centralized decisions and directions
  • Excellent coordination within functions

A functional structure can enhance efficiency but may hinder innovation and responsiveness.

220
Q

What are the disadvantages of a divisional structure?

A
  • Duplication of resources across divisions
  • Less functional/technical specialization and expertise
  • Poor coordination across product lines
  • Less top management control

While divisional structures can enhance focus on products or customers, they can also lead to inefficiencies.

221
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ structure offers efficiency and scale benefits while allowing responsiveness and innovation.

A

Matrix

The matrix structure combines elements of both functional and divisional structures.

222
Q

What are some strategies to manage resistance to change?

A
  • Education
  • Participation
  • Facilitation
  • Negotiation
  • Manipulation
  • Coercion

Different strategies can be employed depending on the level of resistance and the specific context of the change.

223
Q

What is the difference between reactive and proactive change?

A

Reactive change responds to performance gaps; proactive change responds to prospective gaps

Understanding the type of change can influence how it is managed and communicated within an organization.

224
Q

True or False: Effective change leadership requires a credible source and a receptive target.

A

True

Credibility and receptiveness are crucial for facilitating successful change initiatives.

225
Q

What are the key objectives for leading change in organizations?

A
  • Understand challenges of leading change
  • Manage resistance to change
  • Apply change principles to simulations
  • Build toolkit for leading change initiatives

These objectives guide leaders in effectively navigating the complexities of organizational change.

226
Q

What is the primary goal of the change management simulation?

A

Persuade 18 executives to implement change in response to customer demands

The simulation emphasizes the importance of influence and strategic approach in leading organizational change.

227
Q

What role do short-term wins play in the change process?

A

Build momentum and demonstrate progress

Celebrating short-term wins can help maintain motivation and engagement during the change process.

228
Q

What should leaders do to anchor change in the organizational culture?

A
  • Tell personal success stories
  • Include change values in selection and training
  • Publicly recognize original coalition members

Institutionalizing change helps ensure its sustainability within the organization.

229
Q

What is organizational culture?

A

System of shared assumptions, values, and artifacts & practices that dictate to employees what behaviors are considered (in)appropriate.

Source: Schein, 1992

230
Q

What are the three levels of organizational culture?

A
  • Artifacts & Practices
  • Values
  • Basic underlying assumptions

Source: Schein, 2003

231
Q

What are artifacts & practices in organizational culture?

A

Behavior, language, architecture, attire, décor. High visibility.

Source: Schein, 2003

232
Q

What are values in the context of organizational culture?

A

Guides to behavior that are hard for newcomers to see but can be learned.

233
Q

What are basic assumptions in organizational culture?

A

Taken-for-granted assumptions about why we hold values and who we are.

234
Q

What is a strong culture?

A

When values are widely shared (high consensus) and strongly held (high intensity).

235
Q

What are advantages of a strong organizational culture?

A
  • Attracting, selecting, and retaining employees that fit the culture
  • Employees motivated to achieve organizational goals
  • Cohesive employee base
236
Q

What are challenges of a strong organizational culture?

A
  • Generating homogeneity, risk of groupthink
  • Adapting to dynamic environments
  • Effecting organizational change

Sources: O’Reilly & Chatman, 1996; Sorenson, 2002

237
Q

How is organizational culture diagnosed from the outside?

A

Through organizational uniqueness bias and stories that answer questions of justice, safety, and control.

Source: Martin, 1983

238
Q

What defines the culture at Bear Stearns and JPMorgan?

A

Differences in basic assumptions, artifacts, and practices.

Refer to the case study for specific details.

239
Q

What was the impact of the Great Recession on the economy?

A
  • Unemployment rate peaked at 10%
  • 8.7 million jobs lost in the US
  • S&P 500, Dow Jones, Nasdaq declined by 50%+
  • Real US GDP contracted by 4.2%
  • 10 million people lost their homes
240
Q

What were the political implications during the Great Recession?

A
  • Gridlock in US Congress on bailouts
  • Rise of political polarization and populist movements
241
Q

What global effects did the Great Recession have?

A
  • Global unemployment rose above 200 million
  • More than 45% of global wealth was destroyed
242
Q

What are the key components of the final exam structure?

A
  • Closed book / closed notes
  • 60 minutes duration
  • 50% multiple choice / 50% short answer
243
Q

What is the significance of the Bear Stearns-JP Morgan culture case?

A

Illustrates the alignment of strategy, structure, and culture in financial institutions.

244
Q

Fill in the blank: Organizational culture is shaped most by its _______.

A

[basic underlying assumptions]

245
Q

True or False: Strong organizational cultures always lead to positive outcomes.

246
Q

What are the two types of values in organizational culture?

A
  • Espoused values
  • Enacted values
247
Q

What is the relationship between artifacts and practices and basic assumptions?

A

Artifacts and practices reflect the underlying values and assumptions of the organization.

248
Q

What are the key components of organizational culture?

A
  • Artifacts and practices
  • Values (espoused and enacted)
  • Basic underlying assumptions
249
Q

What is one benefit of strong organizational cultures?

A

Employee fit, motivation, and cohesion

250
Q

What is a potential drawback of strong organizational cultures?

A

Homogeneity, group think, inflexibility

251
Q

What are the key steps in the selection process?

A
  • Define the position and performance expectations
  • Source candidates
  • Screen candidates
  • Interview candidates
  • Check references
252
Q

Why is the selection process challenging?

A
  • Resume cues of personality are suboptimal
  • Applicants may fake personality profiles
  • Standard interviews are poor predictors of job performance
253
Q

What can improve the selection process?

A
  • Request past examples of actual work product
  • Conduct task trials/simulations
  • Use structured interviews
254
Q

What does socialization involve?

A

Acquiring social knowledge and skills for a new role

255
Q

What are the benefits of effective socialization?

A
  • Cultural adaptation
  • Commitment
  • Performance
  • Retention
256
Q

What are new hire core motives during socialization?

A
  • Uncertainty reduction
  • Social acceptance
  • Self-expression
257
Q

How can socialization be improved?

A
  • Leverage time before job start dates
  • Redesign socialization to yield heterogeneity
  • Encourage proactive socialization
258
Q

True or False: Structured interviews yield better predictive validity than standard interviews.

259
Q

Fill in the blank: The variance explained in performance by standard interviews is _______.

260
Q

Fill in the blank: The variance explained in performance by structured interviews is _______.

261
Q

What are the components of the leader toolkit for selection and socialization?

A
  • Facilitate employee performance
  • Enhance well-being
  • Promote sense of belonging
262
Q

What is a key takeaway from the Bear Stearns-JP Morgan culture case?

A

Strong cultures can be both beneficial and detrimental

263
Q

What should leaders focus on to improve socialization processes?

A
  • Rely on socialization tactics that signal social acceptance
  • Empower new hires to seek out informal mentors