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SF Leader > Leader > Flashcards

Leader Flashcards

1
Q

What are the entry controller responsibilities?

A

Controlling authorized vehicle and pedestrian traffic entering/exiting the installation, processing authorized visitors onto the installation, provide information and assistance to visitors, enforce traffic laws, implement anti-robbery procedures, and conduct searches of persons and vehicles as required

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2
Q

When are visitor passes issued at installation check points?

A

Upon closing of the visitor center

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3
Q

How will SF members be armed at the gate, security unit, or patrol?

A

M9 with 45 rounds of hollow point ammunition and an M4 with 120 rounds of .556 mixed at a ball/tracer ratio of 4/1

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4
Q

What must on-coming SF entry controllers do prior to relieving off-going personnel?

A

Conduct proper change over, an inspection for cleanliness, damaged equipment, and trash

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5
Q

At what volume should commercial radios on post be set at?

A

A level that does not allow the radio to be heard when standing outside the gate shack or transmitting over the handheld radio

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6
Q

Who should all SF entry controllers report their post to?

A

All SF personnel E-7/O-6 and above in their chain of command

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7
Q

What are the telephones at the installation check points designated as?

A

For Official Use Only (FOUO)

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8
Q

What will be conducted on individuals attempting to enter the installation?

A

100% ID Check

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9
Q

On what list will individuals that do not require an escort or sponsor be located?

A

The approved unescorted entry authorization list (AF IMT 4327A)

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10
Q

What credentials on an approved EAL can escort personnel 18 yrs w/ a picture ID?

A

DOD Common Access Card, DD Form 2 (Armed Forces ID Card), DD Form 1173/1173-1 (Uniformed Services ID/Privilege Card), DOD Investigate Services (AFOSI/CID/NCIS) Credentials, AF Form 354 (DOD Civilian Retired Employee), and DD Form 2765 (DOD Uniformed Service ID & Privilege Card)

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11
Q

T/F: Personnel must have a picture ID to get a visitors pass?

A

True

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12
Q

What must visitors present to the entry controller to gain access to the installation?

A

A valid SFMIS generated AF Form 75 or a DBID’s pass

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13
Q

When will news media personnel be granted unescorted entry to the installation?

A

Never

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14
Q

Who must escort news media personnel at all times?

A

Public Affairs

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15
Q

Who must be notified if media personnel arrive unannounced?

A

BDOC

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16
Q

Where will commercial towing vehicles be directed to?

A

CP-9 unless authorized by the ECC

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17
Q

Who will towing companies seeking to repossess a vehicle be referred?

A

87 ABW SJA

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18
Q

Personnel requesting entry to the installation for special events will be located where?

A

An EAL coordinated through the welcome center

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19
Q

Who directs the inspection of motor vehicles entering/exiting the installation?

A

87th ABW Commander

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20
Q

What is the purpose of IEPCs?

A

Recover stolen or missing government property, detect & seize contraband, and prevent the introduction of illegal drugs, contraband, or weapons

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21
Q

What is the definition of an IEPC?

A

The examination of a vehicle without the foundation for a search

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22
Q

Who provides SF with a monthly schedule for IEPCs?

A

Installation Commander or Designated Representative

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23
Q

Why is it important for the randomness of an ISPC to be maintained?

A

Because the results may be used for judicial action

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24
Q

How long are IEPCs conducted?

A

A minimum of 30 minutes not to exceed an hour

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25
Q

What areas of a vehicle are inspected during an IEPC?

A

Trunk, hood, glove compartment, ashtrays, under front seats, cargo area, and rear doors of vans

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26
Q

During an IEPC, when does the vehicle count begin and stop?

A

The count stops when a vehicle is being checked and resumes once the check is completed

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27
Q

What else can be utilized when conducting inbound checks?

A

MWD Team

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28
Q

What will the SF member do if a civilian driver refuses an inbound check?

A

Advise the driver he/she cannot enter the base unless he authorizes the inspection, and that refusal may result in the loss of base driving privileges, the revocation of base registration, and/or barment

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29
Q

What will The SF member do if a civilian driver refuses an outbound check?

A

Identify the vehicle for subsequent barment, conduct a walk around for evidence that can be used as a foundation to search, and release the vehicle if no evidence is found

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30
Q

What will the SF member do if a military driver refuses a vehicle check?

A

Advise the driver that refusal may result in the loss of base driving privileges and revocation of base registration. If the driver still refuses contact the SJA to request search authorization

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31
Q

What must be completed each time a driver refuses permission for an examination?

A

An incident report (AF Form 3545)

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32
Q

What are the codes used during an IEPC?

A

Code 1-5 increasing in implements of 5

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33
Q

During a vehicle inspection, when would you confiscate items identified as government property?

A

When a purchase receipt or document authorizing possession is not present

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34
Q

During a vehicle inspection, who can the inspection team contact for further guidance?

A

Flight Leadership, S-2I, OSI, and SJA

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35
Q

What are some common items subject to confiscation?

A

Items designed for inflicting bodily harm, narcotics, and civilian/military/homemade firearms

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36
Q

What happens if contraband, drugs, or stolen property is found during a vehicle exam?

A

The person involved must be immediately detained or apprehended

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37
Q

How are military members advised or their rights? Civilians?

A

Military is advised IAW with Article 31 of the UCMJ, civilians are advised IAW the 5th amendment of the constitution

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38
Q

Permission to search will be obtained on what form?

A

AF Form 1364 (Consent for Search and Seizure)

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39
Q

What is an SFS Form 18?

A

IEPC Log

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40
Q

What document will contraband seized during a vehicle inspection be annotated on?

A

AF Form 52 (Evidence Tag)

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41
Q

What pass-on information should Flightline patrols receive from their off-going?

A

Locations of PL resources such as Transient aircraft, status of all restricted are boundaries/barriers, ropes and stanchions, painted red lines, warning signs, fences, and facilities

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42
Q

How many random ECP and RAB checks should be conducted per shift and for how long?

A

4 each for 15 minutes

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43
Q

What information should be given to BDOC in regards to ECP and RAB Checks?

A

Initiation and termination time, ECP location, and number of badges checked

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44
Q

How many physical security checks should be conducted per shift and what does it consist of?

A

1 physical security check per shift consisting of lighting checks, restricted/controlled area signs, fence line condition, vegetation, and structures

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45
Q

What should be conducted once per shift by mid shift flight line patrols?

A

A perimeter, area, and special purpose lighting check

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46
Q

How many hangar checks for aircraft should be conducted per shift?

A

2

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47
Q

What should flightline patrols ensure is accomplished if aircraft are present?

A

Aircraft are roped off, the facility is marked as a restricted area with proper signs, and all personnel are displaying their RAB correctly

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48
Q

What form is the Restricted Area Badge?

A

AF Form 1199C

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49
Q

How far apart should restricted area signs be placed?

A

No more than 100 feet outside and 25 feet within

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50
Q

What authority does SF have under exclusive jurisdiction?

A

SF can cite or charge military and civilians with local, state, and federal statutes

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51
Q

What authority does SF have under proprietary jurisdiction?

A

SF are limited to offenses involving military members, incidents involving civilians will be revered to local/state agencies

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52
Q

What authority does SF have under concurrent jurisdiction?

A

Jurisdiction is shared, however incidents involving civilians should be referred to local authorities

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53
Q

What AFI governs hijackings?

A

AFI 13-207 Preventing and Resisting Aircraft Piracy

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54
Q

What are the most vulnerable periods for aircraft theft?

A

At nights, weekends, and holidays when aircrew are on board and aircraft is ready for flight

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55
Q

What are the limiting factors surrounding anti-hijackings?

A

Availability of trained negotiators, response time of federal agencies, hijacker’s mental state or belief in a particular cause

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56
Q

Who is responsible for hijacked aircraft?

A

Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) during flight, FBI on the ground

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57
Q

Who will attempt to negotiate with the hijackers?

A

A trained negotiator

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58
Q

Under what circumstances will a hijacked aircraft not be allowed to take off?

A

When there are nuclear resources or critical components on board

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59
Q

Vehicles used to block hijacked aircraft will be parked how many feet away?

A

No closer than 15 feet and no farther than 25 feet

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60
Q

What will happen if a suspect of the opposite sex had to be searched?

A

A patrolman or individual from another organization of the same gender will be contacted to assist

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61
Q

How do you transport a suspect of the opposite gender?

A

With a patrolman of the same gender or with 2 SF members present in the vehicle

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62
Q

What must be conducted prior to transporting a suspect?

A

A search

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63
Q

Who has the authority to establish temporary restricted areas?

A

The Installation Commander

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64
Q

Who will preannounce all aircraft movements to BDOC?

A

Maintenance Operations Control (MOC)

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65
Q

Who has the ability to establish free zones within the restricted areas?

A

The Installation Commander

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66
Q

Where will aircraft containing PL-1/2 resources be located?

A

The Hazardous Cargo Loading Area (HCLA)

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67
Q

What aircraft are assigned to the AMC Mass Parking Area?

A

All C-17 and KC-10 aircraft

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68
Q

How will the AF Form 1199C be work?

A

Picture side exposed on the outermost garment above the waist

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69
Q

What is open area 1?

A

87th ABW CP

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70
Q

What is open area 2?

A

108th WG CP

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71
Q

What is open area 3?

A

108th WG Aircraft Parking Area during OPLAN 8010

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72
Q

What is open area 4?

A

AMC Mass Parking Area and the 108th Parking Area

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73
Q

What is open area 11?

A

87th ABW/CP Emergency Action Cell

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74
Q

What is open area 12?

A

108th WG/CP Emergency Action Cell

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75
Q

What are the 4 supporting techniques used to authenticate the AF Form 1199C?

A

Personal recognition, EAL, signature/credential check, and telephone/radio verification

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76
Q

What will be used to facilitate emergency entry into restricted areas?

A

Sign/countersign or distance recognition code

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77
Q

How will personnel TDY be granted entry to restricted areas?

A

By their home station RAB, a supporting EAL, or crew orders

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78
Q

Photography within how many feet is unauthorized on the flight line without written permission?

A

300 feet

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79
Q

Unofficial photography for the flighline must be approved by who?

A

Airfield Managment and Public Affairs

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80
Q

What information is found on the Airfield photography approval letter?

A

Names of the personnel approved, specific dates, and specific locations

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81
Q

Who will escort news media personnel at all times?

A

Public Affairs

82
Q

How do you authenticate your status?

A

First letter of your last name and any number from 1-50

83
Q

Who devises duress words and when are the changes?

A

S3-O and semi-annually or when compromised

84
Q

How are duress words used?

A

I a normal sentence

85
Q

What will the SF ECC Controller do if the primary duress word is compromised?

A

Implement the alternate immediately

86
Q

What are the 2 types of duress?

A

Passive and Active

87
Q

When will SF conduct a funds escort?

A

When funds total more than $25,000

88
Q

When escorting funds on foot, how will SF position themselves?

A

Behind the individual or to the side

89
Q

T/F. SF can utilize their vehicle to transport funds.

A

False

90
Q

How many patrols will be dispatched to an alarm activation?

A

2 at a minimum

91
Q

Who will direct patrols upon their arrival on scene?

A

The on scene commander

92
Q

Why do patrols set up on opposite sides of a building?

A

Because it allows a 360 degree view of the facility

93
Q

What code do patrols respond to an alarm activation?

A

2

94
Q

T/F. The on-scene commander will enter the facility to conduct an interior sweep?

A

False

95
Q

Who must be notified of all incidents involving domestic violence?

A

The sponsors unit commander, first sergeant, and family advocacy

96
Q

Who is responsible for investigating major offenses?

A

AFOSI

97
Q

Who must be notified for all child abuse cases?

A

AFOSI

98
Q

How should SF park their vehicle when responding to a house?

A

One house away to not escalate any ongoing situation

99
Q

How long should SF listen at the door before knocking?

A

15-30 seconds to obtain information on the incident

100
Q

Why should SF be alert for sudden movements or glances at closed doors?

A

It may indicate the individuals hiding a weapon, family member, or evidence

101
Q

what type of demeanor should SF interacting with the public use?

A

Calm, positive, and helpful

102
Q

What is the purpose of the VWAP?

A

To provide guidance to victims and witnesses of a crime

103
Q

What form is the VWAP?

A

DD Form 2701

104
Q

What is the code word for a defector seeking political asylum?

A

Seven Bridges

105
Q

What are the actions the patrol/entry controller takes when making contact with the defector?

A

Notify the ECC via telephone of a seven bridges and remove the individual out of public view, conduct a simple frisk of the individual and possessions, and separate if there is more than 1 person

106
Q

What do you tell the individual seeking political asylum they will be interviewed by?

A

A representative of the US government

107
Q

What information will not be given over the radio about the defector?

A

The persons name, function, and nationality

108
Q

What information are you authorized to put over the radio if the defector decides to leave?

A

Direction of travel

109
Q

Where are the secondary controls for the barrier system at McGuire Gate located?

A

At the overwatch

110
Q

The barrier system is deplorable within how many seconds?

A

1-3

111
Q

Where are the master controls for the barrier system located at for the commercial gate?

A

The administration office

112
Q

When are barrier tests conducted?

A

2200-0400

113
Q

What are the types of recalls?

A

Telephone, Wing/pyramid, and com-out

114
Q

What will happen to the 108 WG Aircraft Parking Area upon notification of OPLAN 8010?

A

It will be upgraded to a PL-2 area as well as the 108th CP

115
Q

T/F. 87th Personnel are responsible for supporting OPLAN 8010 operations.

A

True

116
Q

What PL classification are cocked on aircraft designated?

A

2

117
Q

Aircraft in the generation area are considered PL-3 resources until what?

A

They are cocked on

118
Q

T/F. Cocked on aircraft will be separated from aircraft that aren’t.

A

False

119
Q

What does the generation area become when all aircraft are cocked on?

A

Follow on alert area

120
Q

Unescorted entry into the aircraft generation area requires what open area on the RAB?

A

3

121
Q

Who can authenticate EALs for the aircraft generation area?

A

SF E-6/GS-7 or above and the 108th CC

122
Q

How will inspection teams be authorized into a restricted area?

A

Via EAL

123
Q

Who will visitors to the generation area contact to arrange an escort?

A

The unit or agency responsible for the visit

124
Q

Who will designate personnel authorized to act as escort officials in the generation area?

A

Unit commanders

125
Q

Escort officials will have what on their restricted area badge?

A

Open area 3 with an E next to it

126
Q

Prior to entry, how many feet behind the escort official will escorted personnel remain?

A

10 feet

127
Q

T/F. All vehicles entering the generation area will be searched prior to entry.

A

True

128
Q

What personnel will search their own vehicle and equipment prior to entering the generation area?

A

Personnel granted unescorted entry

129
Q

Who is responsible for searching vehicles and equipment brought in by escorted personnel?

A

The escort official

130
Q

When are POVs authorized in the generation area?

A

When in use by the inspection teams

131
Q

Who will notify the 108th CP when aircraft are cocked on or uncocked? Who will notify BDOC?

A

Aircraft commanders will notify 108th CP. 108th CP will notify BDOC

132
Q

Aircrews and crew chiefs authorized to be on alert status will be located on what form?

A

AF IMT 4327A

133
Q

How will preannounced personnel not listed on the AF IMT 4327A gain access to alert aircraft?

A

They must have aircrew escort

134
Q

Who will receive copies of the authenticated AF IMT 4327A?

A

ECPs, ISRTs, and the area supervisor

135
Q

Who will notify BDOC of emergency entry or emergency fast response?

A

108th WG/CP

136
Q

What will happen if the Red Ball crew passes the wrong DRC once? Twice?

A

The SF member will stop the crew and pass the DRC verbally. If it happens a second time the SF member will contact the Aircraft commander to authenticate via AF IMT 4327A

137
Q

What is a Safe haven?

A

A term utilized when a driver and cargo are under threat of seizure or compromise

138
Q

Where do you store a driver and cargo during a Safe haven?

A

Ammo bunker compound-Lakehurst
Munitions storage area-McGuire
Ammo supply point-Dix
Hazardous cargo loading area-in emergency situations

139
Q

What form should be obtained from the store detective or witness of a shoplifting?

A

AF Form 1168

140
Q

When are SF members authorized to collect merchandise from a shoplifting?

A

When the merchandise leaves the store

141
Q

What form will evidence be collected on from a shoplifting?

A

AF Form 52

142
Q

What will military members be charged with for shoplifting?

A

Article 121-Larceny/wrongful appropriation

143
Q

What happens to civilian shoplifters in possession of an AACRS/Commissary Privilege Card?

A

Card will be confiscated via 52 and will be issued a suspension of AAFES privileges letter

144
Q

What will happen to civilian shoplifters without an AAFES/Commissary privilege card?

A

Issued an order to leave via CVB accomplished by flight leadership

145
Q

T/F. Juveniles age 17 and under MUST be advised of their rights in the presence of their legal guardian.

A

False. If a legal guardian cannot be present, 2 SF members must be present

146
Q

What type of information should be included in selective traffic enforcement?

A

Location, RADAR/LIDAR unit #, and how many/types of citations used/issued

147
Q

When are pursuits warranted on JBMDL?

A

Only in response to hostile acts and serious offenses

148
Q

When should SF discontinue a pursuit?

A

When endangering the public

149
Q

What type of report is conducted for a major vehicle accident? Minor?

A

AF Form 3545 (Incident Report)and AF Form 1315 (Accident Report). SFFL 28 (Motor Vehicle Accident Worksheet)

150
Q

What constitutes a Major Vehicle Accident?

A

Fatalities or personal injuries, damage assessed at $25,000 or more, or when the vehicle is disabled

151
Q

When available, who will be dispatched to all major vehicle accidents?

A

A certified traffic accident investigator

152
Q

PL-1

A

Resource for which the loss, theft, distraction, compromise, or misuse would result in GREAT HARM to the STRATEGIC CAPABILITY of the US

153
Q

PL-2

A

Resource for which the loss, theft, distraction, compromise, or misuse would cause SIGNIFICANT HARM to the WAR FIGHTING CAPABILITY of the US

154
Q

PL-3

A

Resource for which the loss, theft, distraction, compromise, or misuse WOULD DAMAGE US WAR FIGHTING CAPABILITY

155
Q

PL-4

A

Resource for which the loss, theft, distraction, compromise, or misuse would ADVERSELY AFFECT the OPERATIONAL CAPABILITY OF THE AIR FORCE

156
Q

What are the phases of DWI/DD detection?

A

Vehicle in motion, personal contact, and pre-apprehension/arrest screening

157
Q

What should SF members request from the driver before field sobriety tests are conducted?

A

The vehicle keys

158
Q

When does the pre-apprehension arrest screening begin?

A

When the driver exits the vehicle

159
Q

What do Standardized Field Sobriety Tests consist of?

A

Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus (HGN), walk and turn, and the one leg stand

160
Q

T/F. Any SF member can administer the HGN?

A

False, only personnel certified through the National Highway Safety Administration or an accredited NJ agency

161
Q

On what form will SFST/FSTs be recorded?

A

DD From 1920 (Alcohol Incident Report)

162
Q

In what order will SFST/FSTs be administered? Why?

A

HGN, walk and turn, and one leg stand. Because of accuracy

163
Q

Before administering SFST/FSTs, what information should you obtain from the suspect?

A

Physical injuries, inner ear disorders, or medications that would affect their ability to do any portion of the tests

164
Q

If a SFST/FST cannot be conducted or the suspect refuses what will the SF member do?

A

Detain based of previous observations

165
Q

T/F. Miranda rights are required before conducting SFST/FSTs.

A

False

166
Q

What are the phases of the walk and turn test?

A

Instruction phase and walking phase

167
Q

What types of individuals should not be administered the walk and turn?

A

65 years or older, one eye, 50lbs overweight, or physical impairment that would affect their balance

168
Q

When observing a one leg stand how far away should you position yourself?

A

3 feet away

169
Q

What are the phases for the one leg stand?

A

Instruction phase and balance/counting phase

170
Q

Who generates the RAM schedule?

A

S3O

171
Q

What do you look for during a RAM?

A

Suspicious individuals, packages, and vehicles

172
Q

What must the SF member do prior to conducting a check of the CDC during duty hours?

A

Inform the personnel at the front desk that an exterior check will be conducted

173
Q

FPCON Normal

A

A general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture

174
Q

FPCON Alpha

A

A general threat of terrorist activity exists, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable

175
Q

FPCON Bravo

A

An increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists

176
Q

FPCON Charlie

A

An incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely

177
Q

FPCON Delta

A

A terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent

178
Q

Code 1

A

Routine

179
Q

Code 2

A

Urgent

180
Q

Code 3

A

Emergency

181
Q

Code 4

A

Wants/Warrants

182
Q

Code 5

A

Traffic Stop

183
Q

Code 6

A

Comfort Break

184
Q

Code 7

A

Meal Break

185
Q

Code 8

A

Suspect in Custody

186
Q

Code 8A

A

Suspect in Custody of opposite gender

187
Q

Code 9

A

Change radio frequency

188
Q

Code 10

A

All Secure

189
Q

Code 11

A

Funds Escort

190
Q

Code 12

A

DWI

191
Q

Code 13

A

Immediate Assistance Required

192
Q

Code 14

A

Duress

193
Q

Code 14A

A

Duress at Armory

194
Q

Code 14C

A

Duress at Alt. BDOC (6049)

195
Q

Code 14L

A

Duress at LE Desk

196
Q

Code 14W

A

Duress at 87th Wing Command Post

197
Q

Code 15

A

Bomb Threat

198
Q

Code 15A

A

Positive MWD Alert

199
Q

Code 15B

A

Suspicious package

200
Q

Code 15C

A

Package confirmed by EOD

201
Q

Code 15D

A

Detonation of Device

202
Q

What are the SF Patrol Responsibilities

A

Responding to incidents and complaints, restoring or maintaining order at a scene, and reporting as necessary to the ECC.
Notify the ECC anytime they dismount their vehicle and advise of their location.
Parking properly unless on an emergency call.
Conducting initial investigations of criminal incidents, complaints, traffic accidents, and providing follow on assistance to investigators.
Preparing and submitting reports.
Responding to alarm activations.
Conducting funds escorts.
Conducting building checks.
Patrolling and controlling entry to an accident, incident, and disaster scenes.
Enforcing traffic laws.
Employing speed measuring devices.

SF Leader (1 decks)

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