LE Academy Phase 2 Exam Prep Flashcards

1
Q

What is Curtilage?

A

Area immediately surrounding a residence where family and other activities occur (yard, pool garage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do you determine curtilage?

A

1) Proximity to house
2) Is area enclosed?
3) Nature and uses
4) Steps taken to protect area?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Open Fields

A

Everything outside curtilage (not protected by 4th Amend.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Open View

A

Lawfully present in an area that is NOT constitutionally protected and see contraband

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Plain View

A

Lawfully present in a place that is constitutionally protected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Forced Entry

A

All REASONABLY necessary force can be used to execute S/W

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When would a no knock be granted?

A

1) threat or harm of violence
2) threat of destruction of evidence
3) Hot pursuit or flight will result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Carroll Doctrine

A

If reasonable warrant-less probable cause search of vehicle and all containers that my hold contraband (passengers included)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Strip Searches require what?

A
  • searcher must be same sex
  • must have sheriff/chief approval
  • detainee cannot be exposed to others or be recorded
  • only physician or Rn can do cavity search
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Intervention Options

A
  • Presence
  • Dialogue
  • Control Alternatives
  • Protective Alternatives
  • Deadly Force
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

REACT Model for Arbitration

A
Request Cooperation
Explain Reason
Allow Choice
Check Decision
Take Action
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

DONE model prior to physical intervention

A

Danger
Overriding Concern
No Progress
Escape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

4 Goals for managing crisis

A

1) Ensure safety
2) Maintain Control
3) Resolve Situation Positively
4) Help arrange follow up care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

7 Steps in Crisis Cycle

A

1) Normal State
2) Stimulation
3) Escalation
4) Crisis State
5) De-Escalation
6) Stabilization
7) Post Crisis Drain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Examples of exigent circumstances to enter dwelling

A

1) Hot pursuit: chase into building
2) prevent destruction of evidence
3) Prevent flight or escape
4) Defendant is in immediate danger of death or great bodily harm
5) Emergency Doctrine: Not going in for LE purposes to prevent loss of life or injury
6) Community Caretaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Chapter 51?

A

State Alcohol, Drug abuse, developmental disabilities, and mental health act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Chapter 55 Emergency Protective Placement

A

Protective Services Law (can’t take care of themselves ex: dirty, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Chapter 51 Emergency Detention

A
  • Standards must be met
  • LE can take person into custody and to hospital/treatment
  • 72 hour hold
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Chapter 51 Criteria

A

1) Subject is mentally ill, drug dependent or developmentally disabled
2) Subject evidences behavior which constitutes a substantial probability of physical harm to self or to others
3) Taking the subject into custody is the last restrictive alternative appropriate to subject’s needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Standard for Emergency Detention

A
  • Danger to self
  • Danger to others
  • Inability to care for self
  • Inability to satisfy basic needs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Incapacitated Person

A
  • Is unconscious, or

* Cannot make rational decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

QPR in response to suicidal subjects

A

Question person
Persuade the person to get help
Refer the person to appropriate resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Disturbance Resolution Model

A

Decision Making
Tactical Deployment
Tactical Evalution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Disturbance Resolution

“Decision Making”

A
  • Justifiable?

- Desirable?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Disturbance Resolution

“Tactical Deployment”

A
  • Control of Distance
  • Relative Positioning
  • Relative Positioning Multiple subjects
  • Team tactics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Disturbance Resolution

“Tactical Evaluation”

A
  • Threat Assessment Opportunities
  • Officer/Subject Factors
  • Special Circumstances
  • Level/Stage/Degree of Stablization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When are control alternatives appropriate?

A

To overcome passive resistance, active resistance or their threats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When are protective alternatives appropriate?

A

To overcome continued resistance, assaultive behavior or their threats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When is deadly force appropriate?

A

To stop the threat of great bodily harm or loss life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the purpose of using force?

A

GAIN CONTROL

31
Q

Distances in normal followed by institutional settings

A

Public > 12 feet > 6 feet
Social 4 - 12 feet 3 - 6 feet
Personal 1.5 - 4 feet 1 - 3 feet
Intimate 0 - 1.5 feet 0 - 2 feet

32
Q

Distances in armed or unarmed conflict

A

Unarmed - Less than 10 feet

Club or edged
weapon - Any distance where the officer reasonably
perceives an imminent danger of death or great
bodily harm.

Firearm - In the line of sight unbroken by cover (something
that would stop the bullet).

33
Q

DONE concept when determining to disengage/escalate

A

Danger
Overriding Concern
No Progress
Escape

34
Q

Steps in arbitration process REACT

A
Request Cooperation
Explain Reason
Allow Choice
Check Decision
Take Action
35
Q

Predominant Aggressor Guidelines

A

1) History of abuse
2) Statements
3) Degree of injury on parties
4) Extent of fear each person present appears for the other
5) Any party threatening or threatened in future

36
Q

4 dialogue verbal tactics

A

1) search talk
2) persuasion
3) light control talk
4) heavy control talk

37
Q

Imminent Threat Criteria

A

Intent, weapon, delivery system

38
Q

Target Requirements

A

1) Acquisition
2) Identification
3) Isolation

39
Q

4 types of restraining orders

A

1) Domestic Abuse (4 YRS)
2) Child Abuse (2 YRS)
3) Harassment (4 YRS)
4) Individual at Risk (4 YRS)

40
Q

Constructive Knowledge (Injunctions)

A

Assumption that final injunction is in place even though he wasn’t notified it was in place after receiving TRO hearing date

41
Q

Elements of an authentic order

A
  • names of parties
  • NOT expired
  • signature of a judge
42
Q

Domestic arrests must occur when..

A
  • continued DV against alleged VC is likely
  • physical injury present
  • predominant aggressor identified
43
Q

Consent (Entry into home)

A

No PC required if someone who is lawfully on the premises knowingly, freely gives officer valid consent

44
Q

Emergency Doctrine (entry into home)

A

No PC required because reason for entry is to prevent death, serious bodily harm or significant destruction of private property

45
Q

Community Caretaker Function

A

Officer has an objectively reasonable basis for believing he discovered a member of public in need of assistance

46
Q

Hot Pursuit (entry into home)

A

Officer chases someone into a building or home in pursuit for any jailable offense (MISD or FEL)

47
Q

How long do you have to execute a S/W?

A

5 days

48
Q

Knock and Announce Rule

A

Officers required to knock and announce their presence and authority for their action

49
Q

How long must you wait before using force in a knock and announce S/W?

A

15 - 20 seconds

50
Q

Protective Alternatives

A

To overcome continued resistance, assaultive behavior or their threats

51
Q

Control Alternatives

A

To overcome passive resistance, active resistance or their threats

52
Q

Dialogue

A

To verbally persuade

53
Q

Presence

A

To present a visible display of authority

54
Q

Follow through considerations

A
  • Stabilize
  • Monitor
  • Search
  • Escort
  • Transport
  • Turnover
55
Q

What is the proper distance from subject vehicle on high risk stop?

A

~ 50 ft or 4 car lengths

56
Q

Elements of Robbery

A

1) intent to steal
2) uses force against owner
3) or threatens owner with force
* Dangerous weapon = higher felony

57
Q

Gant Rule Vehicle Searches

A

1) Person arrested at the scene has not been secured

2) When it is reasonable to believe evidence relevant to the crime of arrest might be found in vehicle

58
Q

Search Incident to arrest serves what three purposes?

A

1) Officer safety
2) Preserve Evidence
3) Prevent Escape

59
Q

MARCH in Tactical Emergency Critical Care

A
Massive Hemorrhage
Airway
Respiration
Circulation
Hypothermia/HEAD OUT
60
Q

In adult sex crimes is there a difference b/w contact and intercourse?

A

NO

61
Q

2nd degree sexual assault (adults)

A

sex with use of force or incapacitated victim

62
Q

1st degree sexual assault (adults)

A

great bodily harm involved with sexual assault

63
Q

At what amount does damage to property become a felony?

A

$2,500

64
Q

At what amount does a retail theft turn into a felony?

A

$500

65
Q

What is preclusion?

A

Deadly force concept that means you are able to articulate that you exhausted all other options before deadly force

66
Q

What is the greater danger exception to deadly force?

A

You can use deadly force without target requirements if the danger posed by the suspect outweighs the risk of innocent injury/death.

67
Q

When should you leave cover?

A

Only to gain tactical advantage over subject

68
Q

Cover v. concealment?

A

Cover can stop rounds concealment cannot

69
Q

What are the 4 malfunctions of a handgun?

A
  1. Failure to fire
  2. Failure to extract
  3. Failure to eject
  4. Feed
70
Q

Phase 1 malfunctions include what failures?

A

Fire, Eject & Feed

71
Q

Deadly force defined is…

A

The intentional use of a firearm or other instrument, the use of which would result in a high probability of death.

72
Q

What is apparent authority when it comes to consent searches?

A

Officer reasonably believed the person giving consent had authority to do so

73
Q

Difference between degrees in Adult v. Child sexual assault cases?

A

Adult based on conduct Child based on age