LCSW Prep Flashcards

1
Q

is recurrent drug use that results in disruption of academic, social, and occupational functioning or in legal or psychological problems.

A

Drug abuse

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2
Q

is the location – in a neighborhood, community or state – of social or human agencies sensitive to the delivery of services needed by a particular clientele.

A

Service accessibility

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3
Q

is the requirement to respond and provide services in such a manner that clients are assured that high levels of standards are met.

A

Professional accountability

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4
Q

agencies and programs supported by those agencies is a voluntary activity used to determine to what degree an agency meets or exceeds standards.

A

Accrediting

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5
Q

Completion of a predetermined treatment/services regimen, with no further treatment services prescribed, is known as

A

Achieved Treatment or Service Goals

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6
Q

A research design typically used for planning and community organization, includes data collection with the purpose of directly dealing with a social problem through development and implementation of services programs.

A

Action Research

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7
Q

Pertains to intense conditions or disturbances of short duration.

A

Acute

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8
Q

Mental disorders lasting under six months are acute; those lasting more than six months are termed

A

Chronic

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9
Q

A set of health, personal or social services delivered to individuals who require short-term assistance. Acute care is usually provided in hospitals or community social agencies where the extended treatment of long-term care is not expected.

A

Acute Care

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10
Q

A physiological or psychological dependence on a chemical resulting in increased tolerance and in withdrawal symptoms when the substance is unavailable.

A

Addiction

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11
Q

include alcohol, tobacco, narcotics, and many sedative drugs.

A

Addictive Substances

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12
Q

include demographic and clinical data collected for the purpose of making decisions regarding admission, treatment regimen, interventions, and intervention implementation. A clinical record includes the following: client’s name, address, telephone number, date of birth, sex, race/ethnic origin, presenting problem, date of initial interview or intake date and location of last treatment episode, referral source, and recommendations for aftercare services.

A

Contents of a client or clinical record

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13
Q

Post-discharge activities offered on an as-needed basis and geared to assist the client maintain or improve on the progress made during treatment are defined as

A

Aftercare

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14
Q

are not typically part of any case management responsibility for the client – and it is the client who initiates contact with the program – but they may serve as a means for relapse prevention and determining a client’s status.

A

Aftercare services

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15
Q

a viral disease, usually fatal, that prevents the body’s immune system from functioning. The AIDS virus is transmitted through exchanges of body fluids such as infected blood or semen. Individuals infected with the AIDS virus tend to become ill with a variety of illnesses such as pneumonia or cancer.

A

Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

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16
Q

provide details regarding psychoactive drugs and alcohol used in the past; preferred drugs; frequency of use; route of administration; age and year of first use of alcohol and each drug; previous experience with overdose, withdrawal, adverse drug reactions; and attempts at alcohol/drug abuse treatment.

A

Alcohol and drug histories

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17
Q

a physical and at times a psychological dependence on the consumption of alcohol which may lead to social, mental or physical impairment.

A

Alcoholism

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18
Q

a drug that stimulates the cerebral cortex, tends to increase one’s mental alertness temporarily. Amphetamine, known on the street as “bennies,” “uppers,” and “speed,” is addictive and requires increased doses as tolerance develops.

A

Amphetamine

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19
Q

a street term for the psychedelic or hallucinogenic drug PCP (phencyclidine).

A

Angel dust

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20
Q

a regulated drug which induces nausea when taken with alcohol which and is experienced as aversive by individuals who use alcohol.

A

Antabuse

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21
Q

a research design used in the study of social and psychological phenomena or dynamics and in finding solutions to immediate social and psychological problems.

A

Applied research

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22
Q

a data collection and analysis process used to determine the nature, cause, and progression of a problem. Assessment is fundamental to treatment plan development and information acquired during this process is useful in the identification and selection of treatment models and interventions. Assessment can also assist in the determination of a client’s strengths and weaknesses and may influence the treatment process.

A

Assessment

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23
Q

individuals who are vulnerable to or may be adversely affected by a social, psychological or environmental circumstance.

A

At-risk clients

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24
Q

global inspections and assessments of services or clinical records of an individual or organization. Service audits are most often used to verify clinical, or organization services and the various processes used in the delivery of services or meeting organizational missions.

A

Service audits

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25
Q

drugs that act on the central nervous system, are often used to assist in sleep or to control convulsive disorders.

A

Barbiturates

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26
Q

a tendency for findings to lean in a particular direction.

A

Statistical bias

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27
Q

a process which involves the management of social work activities and service providers from other disciplines who are simultaneously serving the needs of a client or client group. Case integration usually involves the delivery of services which are consistent, non-duplicative, and directed toward achieving similar treatment or services goals and objectives.

A

Case integration

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28
Q

a predetermined geographic region, neighborhood or community in which potential clients are served by a designated social agency.

A

Catchment area

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29
Q

Jean Piaget developed the most comprehensive ______ theory by dividing human development into four stages; the sensorimotor stage (birth to age 2), the preoperational stage (ages 2 to 7), the concrete operations stage (ages 7 to 11), and the formal operations stage (age 11 to adulthood).

A

Jean Piaget developed the most comprehensive cognitive theory

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30
Q

a set of subjects who are matched in every respect with another group but who are not provided or exposed to the intervention or variable being studied.

A

Control Group

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31
Q

a numerical index of the extent to which two variables are related.

A

Correlation Coefficient

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32
Q

a statistical method used to determine the relationship between variables and pattern of variation between two situations where change in one is associated with change in the other.

A

Correlation

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33
Q

a research design in which a researcher collects data on the subject under investigation at one point in time, as in a one-time survey; it may also be a comparison of subjects who represent different aspects of a single variable.

A

Cross-sectional research

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34
Q

a method for assessing the relationship between two variables using tabular methods

A

Cross-tabulation

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35
Q

both a philosophy and a perspective for understanding, suggests that specific norms or rituals can only be understood accurately in the context of a culture’s goals, social history, and environmental demands.

A

Cultural relativism

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36
Q

refers to the absence of certain socialization experiences that an individual may need to copy effectively in social situations that are different from past experiences. An individual or group of individuals deprived of specific cultural experiences may often lack social skills, values or attitudes needed to effectively deal with differing cultures.

A

Cultural deprivation

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37
Q

refers to the retention of customs, habits, and technologies even though they have become obsolete or irrelevant to new standards set by the prevailing culture.

A

Cultural lag

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38
Q

objective assessments of the resources needed to accomplish specified objectives.

A

Feasibility studies

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39
Q

an agreement to participate expressed by gestures, signs, actions or statements that are interpreted as agreement or by unresisting silence or inaction.

A

Implied consent

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40
Q

the granting permission by a client to a Social Worker to use specific interventions and models in the provision of services, along with the acknowledgment of risk factors in the use of the interventions or models.

A

Informed consent

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41
Q

refers to activities directed toward improving or changing the social order, including such efforts as political action, community organization, education, and advocacy. Social workers interested in macro practice consider the socio political, historical, economic, and environmental forces which affect the human condition.

A

Macro Practice

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42
Q

activities focus on the client’s psychosocial conflicts. Micro practice is designed to assist in solving problems experienced by individuals, families, and small groups.

A

Micro Practice

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43
Q

a structured interview in which the Social Worker attempts to acquire specific information from the client by asking specific questions. Objective interviews, which tend not to be therapeutic, are conducted during the intake phase of treatment/services.

A

Objective Interview

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44
Q

a research process aimed at determining whether a program is achieving its objectives and whether the results are due to the predetermined interventions.

A

Outcome evaluation

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45
Q

are tasks needed to perform those activities delegated to Social Workers upon entry into the work force.

A

Knowledge, skills, and abilities

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46
Q

best defined as “becoming a human being.” Human beings become who they are because of their genetic makeup and social pressures. Human beings are influenced by major social factors; family, religion, community, education, government, and self.

A

Human socialization

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47
Q

the individual has a high tolerance for alcohol, drinks in response to physiological withdrawal symptoms, and puts drinking ahead of all other activities.

A

Primary Alcoholism

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48
Q

includes such concerns as those of individuals who are experiencing a major psychiatric disorder before the onset of drinking problems. The most common symptom of secondary alcoholism is affective disorder and antisocial personality disorder.

A

Secondary alcoholism

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49
Q

is characterized by heavy or excessive drinking that starts soon after experiencing a perceived crisis, such as the death of a loved one, surviving an accident or crime victimization.

A

Reactive alcoholism

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50
Q

The two most often used classification systems of alcohol abuse and dependence are the

A

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-V) and the International Classification of Diseases (ICD).

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51
Q

there are four major classifications of drugs that tend to be abused

A

stimulants, hallucinogens, depressants/sedatives/hypnotics and narcotics/analgesics/opioids.

52
Q

Stimulants consist of

A

amphetamines/methamphetamine and cocaine.

53
Q

include increased heart rate and elevated blood pressures. When taken in large dosages, amphetamines/methamphetamines will increase oxygen consumption and body temperature.

A

Physical effects of amphetamines/methamphetamine

54
Q

consist of an increased sense of well-being, energy, dizziness, insomnia, and euphoria. High dosages of amphetamines/methamphetamines may cause psychosis, paranoia, and delusions.

A

Psychological effects of amphetamines/methamphetamines

55
Q

Physical effects of _______ include rapid heart rates and blood pressure, and some papillary dilation. High dosages may cause depressed respiration, heart failure, and seizures.

A

Physical effects of cocaine

56
Q

The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 stated that…

A

43 million people have issues regarding disabilities, whereas other estimates say the number is at least 14.5 % of the population.

57
Q

Created by Sigmund Freud and embellished by his students, this paradigm emphasizes the importance of unconscious forces in mental life, conflict between biological instincts and society’s demands, and early childhood experiences.

A

Psychodynamic Paradigm:

58
Q

Ideas which emphasize that a person’s capacity for personal growth, freedom to choose one’s destiny, and self-understanding are critical for understanding behavior and that behavior change can occur using a nurturing and warm professional relationship.

A

Humanistic Paradigms:

59
Q

A set of ideas which emphasize the scientific study of behavior and its environmental determinants. This paradigm argues that individuals engage in specific behaviors because of environmental conditions experienced as rewards.

A

Social Learning Paradigm

60
Q

A set of ideas which emphasize that behavior is influenced by social/physical environmental factors such as community, family, neighborhood, peer group, and school. The paradigm also argues that behavioral changes can occur because of applying interventions to specific parts of the client’s social, emotional, and cognitive system.

A

Social Systems Paradigm:

61
Q

provides taxonomy for behavioral change, allows for character, typically requires insight, is long term, and has helped in the establishment of foundations for modern psychology.

A

Psychodynamic theory

62
Q

In psychodynamic theory

A

human behavior is an outcome of unconscious impulses.

63
Q

is very amenable to research, establishes clear behavioral outcomes, and encourages the use of baseline data.

A

Social learning theory

64
Q

based on a psychotherapeutic approach, uses interpersonal relationships as a tool for creating change and supports the ideas that social factors influence behavior, and that behavioral change is a result of social interaction.

A

Humanistic theory

65
Q

a comprehensive theory for intervention, is not researched, supports the idea that change is possible at multiple levels, is used by a variety of professions to understand human behavior, encourages the analysis of social change, and establishes human behavior as an outcome.

A

Social system theory

66
Q

The treatment phases are….

A

referral, intake, assessment, diagnosis, treatment plan development and execution, treatment plan review and execution, clinical progress recording, termination, and aftercare.

67
Q

The DSM-V definition of mental disorder

A

is a clinically significant behavioral or psychological syndrome or pattern that is associated with present distress or with a significantly increased risk of suffering, death, pain disability or an important loss of freedom.

68
Q

assures that subjects have an equal chance of being assigned to either the experimental or a control group. Randomization procedures strengthen causal findings.

A

Randomization

69
Q

 The primary reason for use of a ___________, like the experimental design, is to test for cause and effect. Research results based on quasi-experimental designs are not as strong as those from an experimental design.

A

quasi-experimental design

70
Q

Elisabeth Kǘbler-Ross is best known for her classic On Death and Dying. Kǘbler-Ross concepts of death and dying assisted in understanding the cognitive and psychological movement of the patient along the path to death. Kǘbler-Rose’s concepts also have been applied to people suffering losses other than death, such as the loss of a body part or a degenerative condition that leads to progressive physical deterioration.

A

Elisabeth Kǘbler-Ross is best known for her classic On Death and Dying

71
Q

a defense mechanism which reduces anxiety experienced with specific thoughts or emotions by transferring them to another thought or emotion that is more acceptable or tolerable.

A

Displacement

72
Q

a defense mechanism which involves overestimation of another person’s attributes.

A

Idealization

73
Q

a mechanism in which the person ignores emotions and analyzes problems or conflicts objectively.

A

Intellectualization

74
Q

a defense mechanism which includes an effort to engage in counterbalancing a real or imagined deficiency.

A

Overcompensation

75
Q

a defense mechanism by which a person justifies a behavior or thought to make it acceptable when it is unacceptable at a deeper psychological level.

A

Rationalization

76
Q

a defense mechanism which involves replacing an unattainable or unacceptable objective with one that is attainable and acceptable.

A

Substitution

77
Q

Freud suggested five stages of maturation:

A

oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital.

78
Q

 Freud believed that the major tasks of development were completed by the end of the phallic stage.

 Freud taught that each stage had specific developmental tasks and further suggested that every stage was difficult because of the conflict between the id and ego.

 Freud believed that individuals could become stuck at a stage if the main developmental work were not accomplished during that stage.

A

Freud

79
Q

Erickson’s model of life includes

A

eight stages of development, each with its own crisis.

80
Q

Cognitive theory is ….

A

interested in how individuals perceive, remember, think, and make use of language.

81
Q

Role theory is a ….

A

set of concepts, based on sociocultural and anthropological investigations, which pertain to the way people are influenced in their behaviors by the social positions they hold and the expectations accompanying those positions.

82
Q

an orientation that looks at the interaction of individuals and their environment.

A

ecological theory

83
Q

has been described as an attempt to explain in a holistic manner the behavior of societies and people by identifying the components of the system that interact and the controls that keep these subsystems stable and in a state of equilibrium.

A

General systems theory

The General System Theory Approach addresses issues of boundaries, roles, relationships, as well as the way information travels from one portion of the system to another.

84
Q

 Psychotherapy is …

A

the bringing to awareness and manipulation of emotional and cognitive states by self or others.

85
Q

Mary Richmond created the concept of

A

social diagnosis.

86
Q

Crisis intervention theory,

A

with roots running back to the 1940s, ‘50s, and ‘60s, is based primarily on a synthesis of ego and cognitive psychology and individual stress theories.

87
Q

Psychoanalytic theories

A

seek core interpersonal issues.

88
Q

Cognitive-behavioral theories

A

focus on the present, goal-oriented interventions, and what is wrong. They seek to replace unwanted cognition or behaviors.

89
Q

About 5% of the population past the age of 65 has ______ that interferes with cognitive functioning either moderately or severely. Another 10% have a mild cognitive impairment.

A

dementia

90
Q

occurs when blood clots repeatedly cut off the supply to the brain, often in the form of small strokes. Multi-infarct dementia causes about 20% of the deaths from chronic organic brain dysfunction and is present in 12% of Alzheimer’s patients.

A

Multi-infarct dementia

91
Q

Psychosocial/psychoanalytical theories of child development,

A

which believe that heredity and environment interact to produce results, focus on social and emotional development.

92
Q

Cognitive/developmental theories of child development

A

focus on language and cognitive development.

93
Q

Behavioral/social learning theories of child development,

A

which believe that most learning comes from environmental experiences (specifically history of consequences for behavior), focus on managing specific behaviors.

94
Q

Erickson focused on the development of the healthy personality as opposed to Freud, who was more interested in the neurotic personality.

A

 Erickson focused on social and cultural influences on the developing child.

 Erickson believed that as the individual interacts with his environment, he encounters certain psychosocial crises that correspond to certain ages and stages of life.

 Erickson believed that everyone must work through each of these crises to develop a healthy ego identity (clarity about acceptance of self and identification with the culture in which he lives).

95
Q

0-2 Years – Infants take in information through their senses, process it, and act upon it. This is a coordination of sensory input and motor activities.

A

Sensorimotor Stage

96
Q

2-4 Years – Ability to use symbols is shown by language pretend play and drawing. No true concepts formed.

A

Pre-conceptual Stage

96
Q

4-7 Years – Ability to manipulate and transform information in basic ways; can form mental representations of objects and events but cannot think by operations.

A

Intuitive Stage

97
Q

7-11 Years – Ability to understand logical principles that apply to concrete external objects.

A

Concrete Operations Stage

98
Q

Older than 11 – Ability to think abstractly with the constraints of the immediate situations; can think in terms of possibilities and probabilities.

A

Formal Operations Stage:

99
Q

Lawrence Kohlberg’s most interesting work in child development centered on morality.

A

Kohlberg argued that individuals move through several moral development stages which directly influence the ability of children to engage in specific moral decisions.

100
Q

0-9 Years – Morality of self-interest: to avoid punishment or gain concrete rewards.

A

Preconventional

101
Q

10-14 Years – Morality of law and social rule: to gain approval or avoid punishment

A

Conventional

102
Q

14-Adulthood – Morality of abstract principles to affirm agreed-upon rights and personal ethical principles.

A

Postconventional

103
Q

makes the point that childhood encompasses not only physical development but also emotional, cognitive, social, and moral development.

A

Human development theory

104
Q

Behavioral theorists believe

A

that only behavior that can be observed directly can be understood and explained.

105
Q

Skinner believed

A

that behavior is understood only by examining the consequences (as consequences control action).

106
Q

Social learning theory

A

grew out of behavioral theory.

107
Q

Piaget theorized that the

A

concrete operational thinking of the child becomes qualitatively different in the formal operations of the adolescent because the adolescent can consider possibilities, manipulate mental constructs, and assess probabilities.

108
Q

A basic understand of the life cycle is necessary to acquire a sense of human maturation

A

 Ages 16-18: Escape from dominance, marked by a struggle to escape from parental dominance.

 Age 18-22: Leaving the family: The majority of individuals break away from their families in their early 20s.

 Age 22-28: Building a workable life: The trend in the mid-20s is to seek mastery of the real world.

 Age 29-34: Crisis of questions: At the heart of this crisis is a serious questioning of what life is all about.

 Age 35-43: Crisis of urgency: Individuals age 35 to 43 are typically becoming more aware of the reality of death.

 Age 43-50: Attaining stability: In the late 402, acceptance of one’s fate takes hold.

 Age 50 and up: Mellowing: After 50 there is a noticeable mellowing with emphasis on sharing day-to-day joys and sorrows.

109
Q

A statistical mean

A

is a measure of averages.

110
Q

Social work research constantly deals with issues of validity and reliability

A

In research, it is not possible to have validity without reliability, but it is possible to have reliability without validity.

111
Q

 The research design most effective in the generalization of findings due to methodological controls such as randomization and control groups is _________ design.

A

experimental design.

112
Q

Clinical Social Workers utilizing Gestalt therapy

A

would be most likely to encourage clients to express their own moment-to-moment feelings

113
Q

 A disorder of _________ consists of a cognitive disturbance of consciousness and cognitive abilities, characterized by rapid development of symptoms such as disorientation, difficulty focusing, perceptual disturbance, and memory impairments.

A

Delirium

114
Q

is characterized by severe, pervasive loss of contact with reality, causing significant impairment and extending over at least six (6) months. Symptoms include mostly auditory hallucinations, disorganized speech or behaviors, and delusions. Four subtypes of schizophrenia include: paranoid, disorganized, undifferentiated, and Residual.

A

Schizophrenia

115
Q

disorder is like schizophrenia except in duration; schizophreniform has minimum duration of 1 month and a maximum duration of 6 months.

A

Schizophreniform

116
Q

A disorder that includes a hybrid diagnosis of schizophrenia along symptoms of mood disorder is most often known as _______ disorder.

A

schizoaffective disorder.

117
Q

________ disorder is characterized by delusions of duration for at least 1 month. The delusion tends to be ego syntonic or consist with the person’s personality and outlook and tend to focus on an area of stress or dissatisfaction. The disorder includes six types: Erotomanic , Grandiose, Jealous, Persecutory, Somatic and Unspecified.

A

Delusional disorder

118
Q

include a significant depression of at least 2 weeks’ duration, suicidal hopelessness, loss of pleasure, unreasonable guilt, changes in appetite, weight, sleep patterns, and libido.

A

Major Depressive Disorder

119
Q

is characterized by prolonged depression of moderate severity with a minimum duration of 1 year in children and adolescents and 2 years in adults.

A

Dysthymic Disorder

120
Q

includes at least one manic episode and may include depressive, hypomanic, and mixed episodes. Manic episodes support symptoms as an elevated or irritable mood, inflated self-esteem, diminished need for sleep, rapid and pressured speech, loss of inhibitions, distractibility, and poor judgment. May also involve –seeking and risk-taking behaviors. Hypomanic episodes are like manic episodes but are less severe.

A

Bipolar I Disorder

121
Q

is like Bipolar 1 but involves only hypomanic and depressive episodes. This disorder does not include having ever experienced a manic episode.

A

Bipolar II

122
Q

A disorder characterized by numerous episodes of hypomania and mild-to-moderate depression within a period of at least 2 years for adults and 1 year for children and adolescents is ________ Disorder.

A

Cyclothymic Disorder

123
Q

is a fear of crowded or other places from which escape might be difficult, thus, to reduce anxiety a tendency to avoid fear-inducing places.

A

Agoraphobia without History of Panic Attack

124
Q

is characterized by recurrent unwanted thoughts (obsessions) and/or repetitive unwanted behaviors (compulsions) that cause significant distress and impairment. Behaviors such as washing, checking, counting, and repeating actions are the centerpiece of this disorder. Obsessive behavior usually is designed to reduce anxiety and prevent negative situations.

A

Obsessive Compulsive Disorder

125
Q

has a minimum duration of 1 month and is triggered by an event that involves actual or threatened death or injury. This disorder is further characterized by helplessness and horror upon witnessing the event, persistence, re-experiencing of the event, avoidance, and withdrawal and well as increased arousal.

A

Posttraumatic stress disorder

126
Q

The disorder being with 4 weeks of a traumatic event, it lasts at least 2 days but no more than 4 weeks is known as ____________ Disorder

A

Acute Distress Disorder