LBO Analysis Flashcards

1
Q

What is a leveraged buyout and why does it work?

A

In a leveraged buyout (LBO), a private equity firm acquires a company using a combination of Debt and Equity, operates it for several years, and then sells the company at the end of the period to realize a return on its investment. During the period of ownership, the PE firm uses the company’s cash flows to pay for the interest expense on the Debt and to repay Debt principal. It works because leverage amplifies returns: If the deal performs well, the PE firm will realize higher returns than if it had bought the company with 100% Equity. But leverage also presents risks because it means the returns will be even worse if the deal does not perform well.

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2
Q

Why do PE firms use leverage when buying companies?

A

To amplify their returns. Leverage does NOT “increase returns”: Using leverage – borrowing money from others – to fund a deal simplify makes positive returns even more positive and negative returns even more negative. All PE firms aim for positive returns above a certain IRR, and using leverage makes it easier to get there… if the deal goes well. A secondary benefit is that the PE firm has more capital available to buy other companies since it won’t use up all its funds on acquiring one company.

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3
Q

Walk me through a basic LBO model.

A

“In an LBO model, in Step 1, you make assumptions for the Purchase Price, Debt and Equity, Interest Rate on Debt, and other variables such as the company’s revenue growth and margins. In Step 2, you create a Sources & Uses schedule to show exactly how much how much in Investor Equity the PE firm contributes; you also create a Purchase Price Allocation Schedule to calculate the Goodwill. In Step 3, you adjust the company’s Balance Sheet for the new Debt and Equity figures, allocate the purchase price, and add Goodwill & Other Intangibles to the Assets side to make everything balance. In Step 4, you project the company’s Income Statement, Balance Sheet, and Cash Flow Statement, and determine how much Debt it repays each year based on its Free Cash Flow. Finally, in Step 5, you make assumptions about the exit, usually assuming an EBITDA Exit Multiple, and you calculate the IRR and Money-on-Money multiple based on the proceeds the PE firm earns at the end.”

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4
Q

Can you explain the legal structure behind a leveraged buyout and how it benefits the private equity firm?

A

In a leveraged buyout, the PE firm forms a “holding company,” which it owns, and then this “holding company” acquires the real company. The banks and other lenders that provide the Debt lend to this Holding Company so that the Debt is at the “HoldCo” level. Managers and executives at the acquired company that retain ownership after the deal closes also have shares in this Holding Company. This structure is important because it means that the private equity firm is NOT “on the hook” for the Debt it uses in the deal: It’s up to the Target Company to repay it. Not only does the PE firm borrow other peoples’ money to do the deal, but it doesn’t even borrow the money directly – the company borrows the money so the PE firm can do the deal.

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5
Q

What assumptions impact a leveraged buyout the most?

A

The Purchase and Exit assumptions, usually based on EBITDA multiples, make the biggest impact on a leveraged buyout. A lower Purchase Multiple results in higher returns, and a higher Exit Multiple results in higher returns. After that, the % Debt Used makes the biggest impact. If the deal performs well, more leverage will make it perform even better, and vice versa if it does not perform well. Revenue growth, EBITDA margins, interest rates and principal repayments on Debt all make an impact as well, but less so than the other assumptions.

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6
Q

How do you select the purchase multiples and exit multiples in an LBO model?

A

For public companies, typically you assume a share-price premium and check the implied purchase multiple against the valuation methodologies to make sure it’s reasonable. For example, you might assume a 30% premium to the company’s share price of $10.00, which implies an EV / EBITDA multiple of 10x. For private companies, you determine the purchase multiple by looking at comparable companies, precedent transactions, and the DCF analysis. The exit multiple is typically similar to the purchase multiple but could go higher or lower depending on the company’s FCF growth and ROIC by the end. You always use a range of purchase and exit multiples to analyze the transaction via sensitivity tables.

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7
Q

What is an “ideal” candidate for an LBO?

A

Almost any deal can work at the right price. Assuming the price is right – i.e., the company is relatively undervalued compared with its peers – an ideal LBO candidate should also: • Have stable and predictable cash flows (so it can repay Debt); • Not have much need for ongoing investments such as CapEx; • Be in a fast-growing and highly fragmented industry (so the company can make add-on acquisitions); • Have opportunities to cut costs and increase margins; • Have a strong management team; • Have a solid base of assets to use as collateral for Debt; • Have a realistic path to an exit, with returns driven by EBITDA growth and Debt paydown rather than multiple expansion. The first point about stable cash flows is the most important one after price.

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8
Q

How do you use an LBO model to value a company, and why does it set the “floor valuation” for the company?

A

You use it to value a company by setting a targeted IRR, such as 25%, and then using Goal Seek in Excel to determine the purchase price that the PE firm could pay to achieve that IRR. For example, if the exit multiple is 11x, which translates into $1,000 in Equity Proceeds for the PE firm, Goal Seek in Excel might tell you that the firm could pay $328 in Investor Equity to achieve a 25% IRR over 5 years. At a 50% Debt / Equity split, that translates into a Purchase Enterprise Value of $656. This method produces a “floor valuation” because it tell you the maximum amount a PE firm could pay to realize a certain IRR. Other methodologies are not constrained in the same way.

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9
Q

Wait a minute, how is an LBO valuation different from a DCF valuation? don’t they both value a company based on its cash flows?

A

They are both based on cash flows, but in a DCF you’re saying, “What could this company be worth, based on the Present Value of its cash flows?” But in an LBO, you’re saying, “What could we pay for this company if we want to achieve an IRR of, say, 25%, in 5 years?” Both methodologies are similar, but with the LBO valuation, you’re constraining the values based on the returns you’re targeting.

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10
Q

How is a leveraged buyout different from a normal M&A deal?

A

In an LBO, you assume the company is sold after 3-5 years (and sometimes a bit more than that). As a result, you focus on the IRR and MoM multiple as the key metrics. Also, PE firms can use only Debt and Equity (Equity means “Cash” in this context) to fund deals, whereas normal companies in M&A deals can use Cash, Debt, and Stock. Synergies and EPS accretion/dilution matter a lot in M&A deals, but not at all in LBOs. You determine the Purchase Price in similar ways, but in an LBO, you’ll often “back into” the Purchase Price based on the price required to achieve a targeted IRR.

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11
Q

A strategic acquirer usually prefers to pay for another company with 100% Cash - if that’s the case, why would a PE firm want to use Debt in an LBO?

A

It’s a different scenario in an LBO because: 1) The PE firm plans to sell the company in a few years – so it’s less concerned with the expense of Debt and more concerned with using leverage to amplify its returns by reducing the capital it contributes upfront. 2) In an LBO, the company is responsible for repaying the Debt, so the acquired company assumes most of the risk. In a standard M&A deal, the Buyer or “Combined Entity” carry the Debt, so there’s far more risk for the acquirer.

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12
Q

How could a private equity firm boost its returns in an LBO?

A

The main returns drivers are Multiple Expansion, EBITDA Growth, and Debt Paydown and Cash Generation, so a PE firm could improve its returns by improving any of those. In practice, this means: • Multiple Expansion – Reduce the Purchase Multiple and/or increase the Exit Multiple.
• EBITDA Growth – Increase the company’s revenue growth rate or boost its margins by cutting expenses.
• Debt Paydown and Cash Generation – Increase the Leverage (Debt) used in the deal, or improve the company’s cash flow by cutting CapEx and Working Capital requirements. Since the PE firm has the most control over the last factor, the easiest way to boost returns is to use more Debt (assuming the deal doesn’t blow up and destroy the universe).

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13
Q

How do you calculate the internal rate of return (IRR) in an LBO model, and what does it mean?

A

The IRR in an LBO is “the effective annual compounded interest rate”: For example, if you invest $100 in the beginning and get back $200 after 5 years, what interest rate would turn that $100 into $200 by the end? You calculate the IRR by making the Investor Equity (Cash) that a PE firm contributes a negative, and then using positives for Dividends to the PE firm and the Net Proceeds to the PE firm at the end. Then, you apply the IRR function in Excel to all the numbers, making sure that you’ve entered “0” for any periods where there’s no cash received or spent. If there are no Dividends or other distributions in between purchase and exit: IRR = (Exit Proceeds / Investor Equity) ^ (1 / # Years) – 1

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14
Q

How can you quickly approximate the IRR in an LBO? Are there any rules of thumb?

A

Yes. If you double your money, you can divide 100% by the # of years and multiply by ~75% to account for the compounding, and that gives you the approximate IRR. If you triple your money, you can divide 200% by the # of years and multiply by ~65%, since there’s a greater compounding effect there. The key numbers include:
• Double Your Money in 3 Years = ~25% IRR
• Double Your Money in 5 Years = ~15% IRR
• Triple Your Money in 3 Years = ~45% IRR
• Triple Your Money in 5 Years = ~25% IRR Technically, it’s 44% instead of the 45% IRR, and the first ~25% should be 26%, but the mental math is easier with these figures.

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15
Q

A PE firm acquires a $100 million EBITDA company for a 10x purchase multiple and funds the deal with 60% Debt. The company’s EBITDA grows to $150 million by Year 5, but the exit multiple drops to 9x. The company repays $250 million of Debt in this time and generates no extra Cash. What’s the IRR?

A

Initially, the PE firm uses 40% Equity, which means $100 million * 10x * 40% = $400 million. The Exit Enterprise Value = $150 million * 9x = $1,350 million (Mental Math: $150 million * 10x = $1.5 billion, and subtract $150 million). The initial Debt amount was $600 million, and the company repaid $250 million, so $350 million of Debt remains upon exit. The Equity Proceeds to the PE firm are $1,350 million – $350 million = $1 billion. $1 billion / $400 million = 2.5x, which is in between 2x and 3x over 5 years; since 2x over 5 years is 15% and 3x is 25%, this IRR is approximately 20%.

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16
Q

A PE firm acquires a $200 million EBITDA company using 50% Debt, at an EBITDA purchase multiple of 6x. The company’s EBITDA grows to $300 million by Year 3, and the exit multiple stays the same. Assuming the company pays its interest and required Debt principal but generates no additional Cash, what is the MINIMUM IRR?

A

The Purchase Enterprise Value is $200 million * 6x = $1.2 billion, and the PE firm uses $600 million of Investor Equity and $600 million of Debt. The Exit Enterprise Value in Year 3 is $300 million * 6x = $1.8 billion. The PE firm realizes the minimum IRR when the Equity Proceeds are at their minimum level. For that to happen, the company must repay no Debt and generate no additional Cash. We already know the company generates no additional Cash, so we have to calculate the Equity Proceeds under the assumption that the company repays no Debt. $1.8 billion – $600 million = $1.2 billion, which is a 2x multiple over 3 years. That corresponds to a ~25% IRR (technically, 26%), so that is the minimum in this scenario.

17
Q

How does the IRR change if the company repays all its Debt but nothing else changes?

A

If the company repays the full Debt balance, the PE firm gets the full Exit Enterprise Value of $1.8 billion as Equity Proceeds at the end (i.e., $1.8 billion – $0 = $1.8 billion). The firm has tripled its money in 3 years, which is a ~45% IRR (technically, 44%). These results tell us that the IRR will be between 25% and 45% depending on the Debt repayment.

18
Q

You buy a $100 EBITDA business for a 10x EBITDA multiple, and you believe you can sell it in 5 years for a 10x multiple. You use 5x Debt/EBITDA to fund the deal, and the company repays 50% of that Debt over 5 years. By how much does EBITDA need to grow over 5 years for you to realize a 20% IRR?

A

A 2x multiple in 5 years is a 15% IRR, while a 3x multiple is a 25% IRR, so a 20% IRR should be right in between: A 2.5x multiple. Initially, we buy the business for an Enterprise Value of $1,000, using $500 of Investor Equity and $500 of Debt. We need to earn back $1,250 in proceeds at the end, since 2.5 * $500 = $1,250. The company repays $250 in Debt, which means that $250 in Debt remains at the end. Therefore, we need to sell the company for an Exit Enterprise Value of $1,250 + $250 = $1,500. Since the Exit Multiple stays the same at 10x, EBITDA must grow to $150 over 5 years.

19
Q

A PE firm acquires a business for a 12x EBITDA multiple, using 5x Debt/EBITDA, and plans to sell it in 5 years. The company’s initial EBITDA is $100, and it grows to $200 by Year 5. If there’s no Debt repayment and no additional Cash generation, what exit multiple do we need for a 25% IRR?

A

Initially, we buy the company for an Enterprise Value of $1,200 using Debt of $500 and Investor Equity of $700. To realize a 25% IRR over 5 years, we need to triple our money by earning $2,100 in proceeds at the end. No Debt is repaid, so we need to sell the company for an Exit Enterprise Value of $2,600. Therefore, if EBITDA grows to $200 by Year 5, we need an exit multiple of $2,600 / $200 = 13x.

20
Q

Now assume the company repays 75% of the initial Debt balance over 5 years. What exit multiple do we need for a 25% 5-year IRR?

A

75% of $500 in Debt is $375, which means that $125 in Debt remains at the end. We still contributed $700 in Investor Equity at the beginning, and therefore need to earn back $2,100 in proceeds at the end. Therefore, we need to sell the company for an Exit Enterprise Value of $2,100 + $125 = $2,225. As a result, we need an exit multiple of $2,225 / $200 = 11.1x (you could round this to 11x in an interview).

21
Q

A private equity firm acquires a $200 EBITDA company for an 8x EBITDA multiple using 50% Debt. It wants to sell the company in 3 years, but it’s difficult to find buyers, so the firm decides to take the company public instead. If this company’s EBITDA increases to $240, and it repays ALL the Debt over 3 years, and the PE firm takes it public and sells off its stake evenly in Years 3-5 at a 10x EBITDA multiple, what’s the approximate IRR?

A

Initially, the PE firm pays $1,600 for this company and uses $800 in Investor Equity and $800 in Debt. The PE firm sells its stake in the company for an Exit Enterprise Value of $240 * 10x = $2,400, and all the Debt has been repaid by this point, so the Proceeds to the PE Firm are $2,400. Tripling our money in 3 years would be a 45% IRR, and tripling it in 5 years would be a 25% IRR. Since this is an IPO and the stake is gradually sold off between Year 3 and Year 5, the “Average Year #” for receiving the proceeds is 4. As a result, the IRR is somewhere in between these figures – we could approximate it as a 35% IRR (it’s actually 32%).

22
Q

How does the IRR change if, after going public, the company’s share price drops by approximately 10% in Years 4 and 5?

A

A 10% share price decline each year means that the EBITDA multiple falls to 9x and then 8x. The “average” EBITDA multiple at which the PE firm sells its stake is 9x rather than 10x. Therefore, the Proceeds to the PE Firm decline from $2,400 to $2,160, since $2,400 – $240 = $2,160. The multiple is $2,160 / $800 = 2.7x. A 2.5x multiple over 5 years is a 20% IRR, while a 2.5x multiple over 3 years is a ~35% IRR, so we’d expect an IRR in between those. But it will be closer to 35% since 2.7x is above 2.5x. We could approximate this IRR as 30%; in real life, it is exactly 30%.

23
Q

What’s the approximate IRR if a PE firm acquires a company using $500 of Investor Equity, sells it for $1,000 in Equity Proceeds in Year 3, and receives a Dividend of $250 in Year 2?

A

Doubling our money in 3 years normally corresponds to a ~25% IRR. But the Dividend turns this into $1,250 / $500 = 2.5x, which is halfway between doubling and tripling our money. You’d think, based on “3x in 3 years = ~45% IRR” that the IRR would be around 35% here. But the Dividends arrived in Year 2 instead of Year 3, so it’s higher than that. We would approximate it as “Between 35% and 40%” – in real life, it is 39%.

24
Q

A PE firm acquires a company with $100 in EBITDA, which grows to $150 by the end of 7 years, at which point the PE firm sells the company for a 10x EBITDA multiple. The PE firm uses $500 of Debt initially, and the company has $300 of Net Debt remaining upon exit. If the PE firm realizes an approximate IRR of 10% on this investment, what was the purchase multiple?

A

The Exit Equity Proceeds to the PE Firm are 10x * $150 – $300 = $1,200. We don’t know what multiple a 10% IRR over 7 years corresponds to, but we can estimate it as: • 2x  100% / 7 * 75% = ~14% * 75% = Between 10% and 11%. • 3x  200% / 7 * 65% = ~28% * 65% = Between 18% and 19%. Therefore, we can say the multiple is approximately 2x. This means that the PE firm must have used $600 in Investor Equity in the beginning. Since the PE firm used $500 of Debt, the Purchase Enterprise Value was $500 + $600 = $1,100, and the purchase multiple was $1,100 / $100 = 11x.

25
Q

Could a private equity firm earn a 20% IRR if it buys a company for a Purchase Equity Value of $1 billion and sells it for an Exit Enterprise Value of $1 billion after 5 years?

A

Yes, this is possible. A 20% 5-year IRR corresponds to a 2.5x multiple, so the PE firm needs to earn back 2.5x its Investor Equity. It can do this if it uses $600 million in Debt and $400 million in Investor Equity, and the company repays all the Debt and generates no excess Cash. In that case, the PE firm receives all $1 billion in proceeds at the end, since $1 billion / $400 million = 2.5x.

26
Q

Could a private equity firm ever earn a 20%+ IRR if it buys a company using equity of $1 billion and gets back exactly $1 billion in Equity Proceeds at the end of 5 years?

A

Mathematically, this is possible, but in reality, it is nearly impossible. For the PE firm to earn a 20% IRR in this scenario, the acquired company would have to issue extremely high Dividends and/or do multiple Dividend Recaps during the 5-year holding period. Most companies cannot pay anything close to a 20% Dividend Yield, so this scenario is exceptionally unlikely.

27
Q

What’s the true purchase price in a leveraged buyout?

A

Just as in a merger model, you always start with the Equity Purchase Price – the cost of acquiring all the company’s common shares. Then, depending on the treatment of Cash, Debt, Transaction Fees, and Equity Rollovers, the “true price” may be different, which is why you create a Sources & Uses schedule. For example, if existing Debt is “assumed” (kept in placed or replaced with new Debt that’s the same), it won’t affect the purchase price. But if the PE firm repays the existing Debt with its Investor Equity or a combination of Debt and Investor Equity, that increases the effective price. Using Excess Cash to fund the deal reduces the true price, as do Equity Rollovers. The true price is often close to the Purchase Enterprise Value, but it won’t be the same because of these issues.

28
Q

How can you determine how much Debt a PE firm might use in an LBO and how many tranches there would be?

A

You look at recent, similar LBOs and use the median Debt / EBITDA levels from them as references; you could also look at highly leveraged public companies in the industry and check their Debt / EBITDA levels. For example, if the median Debt / EBITDA for LBOs has been 5x, with 2x Term Loans and 3x Subordinated Notes, you might assume those same figures. Then, you would test these assumptions by projecting the company’s leverage (Debt / EBITDA) and coverage (EBITDA / Interest) ratios over time. If they hold up reasonably well - e.g., the company’s coverage ratio always stays above 2x, then you might stick with the original numbers. IF not, you have to try different assumptions.

29
Q

Can you describe the different types of Debt a PE firm might use in a leveraged buyout, and why it might use them?

A

Broadly speaking, Debt is split into Secured Debt and Unsecured Debt, which some people also label “Bank Debt” and “High-Yield Debt” or “Senior Debt” and “Junior Debt.” Secured Debt consists of Term Loans and Revolvers, is backed by collateral, tends to have lower, floating interest rates, may have amortization, and uses maintenance covenants such as restrictions on the company’s EBITDA, Debt / EBITDA, and EBITDA / Interest. Early repayment of principal is allowed, maturity periods tend to be shorter (~5 years up to 10 years), and the investors tend to be conservative banks. Unsecured Debt consists of Senior Notes, Subordinated Notes, and Mezzanine, and is not backed by collateral; interest rates tend to be higher and fixed rather than floating, there is no amortization, and it uses incurrence covenants (e.g., The company can’t sell Assets above a certain dollar amount). Early repayment is not allowed, maturity periods tend to be longer (8-10 years, and sometimes much longer or even indefinite), and the investors tend to be hedge funds, merchant banks, and mezzanine funds.

30
Q

Why do the less risky, lower-yielding forms of debt amortize? Shouldn’t amortization be a feature of riskier Debt to reduce the risk?

A

Amortization reduces credit risk but also reduces the potential returns. Since risk and potential returns are correlated, amortization should be a feature of less risky Debt. If $100 million of 10% interest bonds stay outstanding for 10 years, and the company repays them, in full, after 10 years, the investors earn a 10% IRR on those bonds. But if there’s amortization or optional repayment, that balance will decline to less than $100 million by the end, so the investors earn less than a 10% IRR. But the investors also take on less risk because more capital is returned earlier on.

31
Q

Why might a PE firm choose to use Term Loans rather than subordinated notes in an LBO, if it has the choice between two capital structures with similar leverage?

A

Term Loans are less expensive than Subordinated Notes since interest rates are lower, and they give the company more flexibility with its cash flows since optional repayments are allowed in most cases. Also, since Term Loans have maintenance covenants, they might be better if the company is planning to divest assets, make acquisitions, or spend a huge amount on CapEx, any of which might be forbidden with incurrence covenants found in Subordinated Notes.

32
Q

Why might a PE firm do the opposite and use subordinated notes isntead?

A

On the surface, this doesn’t make much sense because Subordinated Notes are more expensive than Term Loans. However, a PE firm might prefer Subordinated Notes if they doubt a company’s ability to comply with the maintenance covenants found in Term Loans (e.g., if the company’s EBITDA is projected to decline for a few years). Also, if the company wants to avoid paying cash interest (or the PE firm has doubts about its ability to do so), it may opt for Subordinated Notes with Payment-in-Kind (PIK) Interest so that the interest accrues to the loan principal.