LAWS 207 - Contract + Tort Law PT1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a tort

A

A type of civil wrong committed by one person against another

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2
Q

Define contract

A

A legally enforceable agreement between 2+ parties

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3
Q

How are torts/contracts within the paralegal scope?

A

Small claims deals with tort/contacts with claims up to $35,000

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4
Q

What are torts committed against

A

A person’s body, reputation, property or business interests

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5
Q

What is the purpose of tort law?

A

Discourages harmful action and provides victims with the ability to seek compensation from a wrongdoer regardless if the person had been punished criminally

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6
Q

What jurisdiction is property and civil rights law

A

Provinces

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7
Q

What are types of property and civil rights

A

Private rights, including torts and contracts

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8
Q

Cause of action

A

Set of factual elements that entitle a plaintiff to sue

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9
Q

Statement of claim

A

The document setting out the cause of action and supporting facts that a plaintiff typically prepares and files to initiate a lawsuit

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10
Q

Statement of defence

A

Document prepared and filed by a defendant in response to a statement of claim

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11
Q

Balance of probabilities

A

in civil cases, the burden of proof the plaintiff must meet to prove their, case specifically that it is more likely than not that the defendant committed the tort

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12
Q

What are intentional torts

A

The tortfeasor intends the conduct that gives rise to the tort

Other than with business torts this means that the tortfeasor only needs to intend to commit the physical act itself but does not necessarily need to intend to commit a wrong or to cause damage

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13
Q

What is negligence

A

Unintentional tort

A person that acts negligently does not commit an act intentionally but due to carelessness or recklessness.

Occurs when someone who owes you a duty of care acts unreasonably or carelessly and in doing so causes you reasonable foreseeable damages.

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14
Q

What are strict liability torts

A

The defendant may be held liable even if the defendant did not intend the conduct that caused harm to the plaintiff and did not act carelessly (thus was not negligent).

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15
Q

Assault - Intentional tort example

A

Swinging your fist at someone’s head, where the person sees the punch coming

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16
Q

Battery - Intentional tort example

A

Making contact with the person’s head

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17
Q

Intentional infliction of mental suffering - Intentional tort example

A

Harassing and humiliating someone in a way that causes them to suffer injuries

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18
Q

False imprisonment - Intentional tort example

A

Locking someone in a room against their will

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19
Q

Malicious prosecution - Intentional tort example

A

Calling the police and accusing someone of a crime for malicious reasons when you know they are innocent

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20
Q

Abuse of process - Intentional tort example

A

Suing your neighbor in order to harass her so that she’ll move

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21
Q

Two types of interference with real property

A

Trespass to land - eg person who entered another’s property with person but then refuses to leave (?really?)

Nuisance - eg noise, excessive shade, odours, and air pollution.

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22
Q

Trespass to Chattels

A

Interference with possessions other than land

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23
Q

Conversion

A

Wrongful possession of a chattel where the defendant exercises rights of ownership and prevents the actual owner from exercising those rights

Ex: stealing a friend’s laptop

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24
Q

Detinue

A

Wrongful possession of chattel that belongs to another

Ex: refusing to return your friend’s watch after being asked

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25
Q

Deceit

A

A defendant commits deceit when:
- they make false representation
- they know the representation was false
- the plaintiff relies on the defendant’s statement
- the plaintiff suffers a loss

Ex: lying to get a discount you are not entitled to

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26
Q

Defamation

A

Plaintiff must establish:
- the defendant’s words “lowered the plaintiff’s reputation in the eyes of a reasonable person.”
- the words specifically referred to the plaintiff
- the words were published

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27
Q

What are the different types of defamation?

A

Libel: a defamatory statement that is published or broadcast

Slander: an oral defamatory statement

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28
Q

What are defences to defamation?

A

Justification, absolute privilege, qualified privilege, fair comment, responsible communication.

(truth)

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29
Q

What is injurious falsehood

A

False statements harming a person’s products or services

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30
Q

What is slander of title

A

False statements regarding the plaintiff’s real property - form of injurious falsehood.

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31
Q

What is passing off

A

Deception of the public due to misrepresentation

Needs he existence of goodwill and actual or potential damage to the plaintiff.

Ex: knockoff purse with well known logo on packaging

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32
Q

What must be established to prove intimidation

A
  • defendant’s intention to injure the plaintiff or third party
  • defendant made a threat such that the plaintiff’s non-compliance would result in the defendant committing an illegal act
  • as a result of the threat the plaintiff does something they wouldn’t have done otherwise
  • the plaintiff or third party suffers damages
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33
Q

Inducing breach of contract

A
  • plaintiff has a valid and enforceable contract with third party
  • the defendant is aware of the existence of this contract
  • defendant intended to and did procure the breach of the contract
  • the plaintiff suffered damages as a result
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34
Q

2 conditions for unlawful means tort

A
  • defendant uses unlawful means against a third party
  • defendant intended to harm the plaintiff through the use of the unlawful means

Ex: burning your competitor’s supplier so that your business improves

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35
Q

2 types of conspiracy

A

Predominant purpose conspiracy - ex organizing a boycott of a store for the purpose of reducing its business

Unlawful means conspiracy - ex acting with others to break into and vandalize a store

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36
Q

What is a defence

A

Collected facts and method adopted by a defendant to protect against and counter a plaintiff’s action

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37
Q

True/complete defence

A

Defence that eliminates all liability

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38
Q

Defence - what must the defendant prove of their defence

A

All elements of the defence

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39
Q

Consent - forms + defence

A

Complete defence and may be express (written waiver or oral) or implied

Consent to sexual touching can be difficult to determine due to assessment of credibillity

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40
Q

Implied consent

A

If a plaintiff engages voluntarily in an activity in which contact is trivial and normal, the plaintiff has given implied consent to contact

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41
Q

Medical battery

A

Consent to medical treatment must be full and informed

Medical battery may occur where patients consent was never asked for, the patient was not competent to consent, or the patient consented without having a basic understanding of the treatment

Taylor v Hogan, 1994 CanLii 9740

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42
Q

Consent in sports

A

Implied consent - based on the rules of the game and waiver of the participants

R v Bertuzzi, 2004 BCPC 472

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43
Q

Defence of self, others or property - general

A

A person who injures another who is committing an offence against

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44
Q

What is self defence

A

Justifiable self-protection when a person reasonably perceives a threat and responds in a reasonable manner

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45
Q

Defence of others

A

Justifiable protection when a person reasonably perceives a threat to another person and responds in a reasonable manner

46
Q

Defence of property

A

Justifiable protection when a person reasonably perceives a threat to their property and responds in a reasonable manner

47
Q

Three requirements for self defence

A

Purpose - action taken in self-defence must be taken for the purpose of protecting the defendant from the plaintiff

Force - the defendant is not entitled to use more force than is necessary in the circumstances

Honest belief - defence has been successful where the defendant had an honest belief that the plaintiff was going to harm them even though this was not the case

48
Q

What is provocation

A

Mitigating factor - a defence available to a defendant who was faced with a sudden actor insult that would make a reasonable person lose control

49
Q

What must be proven for provocation

A
  • objectionable conduct by the plaintiff
  • the conduct affected the defendant’s self control
  • occurred immediately prior to the defendant’s wrongful act, and
  • provoked the defendant’s wrongful act
50
Q

Defence of necessity

A

Rarely used. May relieve a person from liability for trespass or conversion if that person, having no alternative, harms another’s property in an effort to protect life or health.

Even when met they may still be required to compensate the plaintiff.

51
Q

Proof needed for defence of necessity

A
  • committed what would otherwise have been a tort against the plaintiff
  • the act was committed to avoid more serious harm
52
Q

Legal authority defence

A

Even though acts may have been tortious they were permitted by legal authority.

Full or partial defence, often used by law enforcement

53
Q

What is a limitation period

A

Period defined by a statute within which a plaintiff must commence their action. Of the plaintiff does not bring his action in the required time frame the claim is “statute barred”

54
Q

What is the discoverability rule

A

Allows a plaintiff to sue outside the limitation period where the information needed to support the suit was unavailable within the period.

55
Q

Absolute privilege - defense to defamation

A

Statements made in a court, parliament or between spouses

56
Q

Qualified privilege - defense to defamation

A

Statements made while fulfilling a duty, without malice and where the information is delivered in a way to minimize potential harm to plaintiff

57
Q

Fair comment - defense to defamation

A

Used by individuals or organizations whose mandate is the dissemination of information to the public, content is based on fact, expressed as opinion and not motivated by malice

58
Q

What is negligence

A

An unintentional tort where someone carelessly causes foreseeable harm to a person to whom they owe a duty of care

Ex: Driving carelessly in a parking lot and colliding with your classmate

59
Q

What are the elements of negligence (5)

A
  • Duty of care
  • Standard of care
  • Damages
  • Causation in fact
  • Causation in law
60
Q

What must be proven for negligence (5)

A
  • The defendant owed the plaintiff a duty of care
  • The defendant breached the duty by acting in a way that fell below the standard of care
  • The plaintiff suffered damages
  • The plaintiff’s damages were caused in fact by the defendant’s breach
  • The plaintiff’s damages were caused in law by the defendant’s breach
61
Q

Duty of care

A

The plaintiff must prove that the defendant had an obligation to take reasonable care to keep the plaintiff safe from harm

62
Q

What is the Anns Test

A

Two-pronged test used to determine whether a duty of care should be recognized in novel cases

Foreseeability and proximity

63
Q

What is the standard of care

A

The standard, based on reasonableness, against which a person’s conduct will be compared in determining negligence

Focuses on the conduct of the defendant

64
Q

What is the reasonable person test (4)

A

A person who…
Has reasonable skill, and ordinary intelligence, and acts with reasonable prudence but is not perfect.

65
Q

How does the standard of care change with professionals and experts

A

They will be measured against the standard of a reasonably competent person in their field

Ex: a doctor’s conduct will be measured against the standards of a reasonably competent doctor

66
Q

What is the standard of care of minors

A

Individual basis - depends on the action

Ex: A minor engaging in an adult activity like operating a motor vehicle will be held to the same standard as an adult

67
Q

What types of damages can result of negligence

A
  • personal injury (physical and psychological
  • property damage (real and personal property)
  • Economic loss (eg, due to slip and fall the plaintiff is unable to work)
68
Q

What is causation in fact

A

Factual link between one person’s actions and another person’s damages

69
Q

What are the two tests to prove causation

A

“But for” test
Material contribution of risk test

70
Q

What must the court determine in order to determine the causation in law

A

Reasonable foreseeability and if it is too remote and not recoverable

71
Q

What does the “crumbling skull” doctrine do

A

Intended to avoid putting the plaintiff in a better position than they were prior to the incident

72
Q

Limitation periods - defenses to negligence

A

Claims filed after the limitation period are “statute-barred” (not actually a “defence”)

73
Q

Voluntary Assumption of Risk - defenses to negligence

A

True defence that negates defendants liability based on the plaintiff’s understanding and acceptance of the risks

74
Q

What must the defendant prove for the voluntary assumption of risk

A
  • plaintiff understood and accepted the risk
  • plaintiff understood that the defendant assumed no responsibility for the risk
  • plaintiff must have communicate that he was giving up the right to sue in negligence
75
Q

Illegality - defenses to negligence

A

True defence, plaintiff cannot profit from an illegal act

76
Q

Contributory negligence - defenses to negligence

A

Partial defence, reduces the defendants liability on the basis of the plaintiff’s own negligence. If successful damages are apportioned among all negligent parties. Defendants who cause harm to a plaintiff are jointly and severally liable.

77
Q

What are the goals of remedies in negligence law (4)

A

Compensation, deunciation, deterrence, punishment.

78
Q

What are damages

A

The usual compensatory remedy

79
Q

What are special damages

A

Damages that are known and described at the time of trial (eg. medical bills for treatment received)

80
Q

What are general damages

A

Estimate damages unsupported by evidence of value (eg. future cost of medical care)

81
Q

What are punitive damages

A

Awarded for denunciation and deterrence

82
Q

What are aggravated damages

A

Awarded where the defendant’s flagrant actions caused severe harm

83
Q

Major personal injury claims - damages

A
  • assessment of damages can be complex
  • damages may be required for future losses
  • award must be adjusted for interest
84
Q

How are remedies handled in fatal accidents

A

When a plaintiff dies as a result of a tort, his or her estate becomes the plaintiff in the lawsuit against the defendant

85
Q

What are preventative remedies

A

Where the plaintiff seeks remedies for the prevention of future harm. Can include injunctions, declaratory orders, and ex parte orders.

86
Q

What are injunctions

A

Court order that prohibits someone from doing some act or compels someone to do an act in order to prevent future harm.

87
Q

What are declaratory orders

A

Declaring with the force of law a certain fact (ex a certain person has a certain legal right)

88
Q

What are Ex Parte Orders

A

Defendant not before the Court often because of urgency

89
Q

What are the subcategories of negligence (3)

A
  • occupiers liability
  • product liability
  • liability attributed to commercial and social hosts
90
Q

What is occupiers liability

A

The duty of care that those who occupy real property owe to those that enter the premisies

91
Q

What is a occupier - occupiers liability act

A
  • a person who is in physical possession of premises
  • a person who has responsibility for and control over the condition of premises or the activities there carried on, or control over persons allowed to enter the premises, despite the fact that there is more than one occupier of the same premises
92
Q

What are occupiers duty of care under the OLA

A
  • general duty of care
  • duty does not make occupiers liable for any and all injuries that occur on their premises
  • occupiers may “ restrict, modify, or exclude” their duty by taking reasonable steps to bring the restriction, modification, or exclusion to the attention of entrants.
93
Q

What is the duty to wrongdoers and those who assume risks?

A

Where a person enters the occupier’s property with the intention of committing a crime (eg. trespassing at night) the occupier does not have to take reasonable care but only had to avoid creating a danger with the deliberate intent of causing harm (ex: setting up a trap to injure a burglar)

94
Q

Commercial host liability

A
  • duty to take reasonable care to ensure guests get home safely and to protect people who may encounter intoxicated guests
  • also applies to office hosts and their employees
95
Q

Social host liability

A

Currently no recognized duty to protect guests or third parties

96
Q

Categories of product liability (3)

A
  • negligent design
  • negligent manufacture
  • failure to warn
97
Q

Negligent design - product liability

A
  • defendant must have acted reasonably in the circumstances
  • use a “risk-utility” analysis to weigh the benefits and risks of a design
98
Q

Negligent manufacture - product liability

A
  • a product that was properly designed is defective because something went wrong in manufacturing
  • tends to only affect specific batches of a product rather than the entire inventory
99
Q

Failure to warn - product liability

A

Manufacturer has a duty to warn consumers of danger inherent in use of the product

100
Q

What is strict liability

A

Liability imposed in limited circumstances even though no negligence or intentional tort occurred.

101
Q

What must be established to succeed in a strict liability case

A
  • defendant used property in a “non-natural” manner
  • defendant brought something onto property that would likely have caused mischief if it has escaped
  • the thing brought onto the land escaped
  • foreseeable damage was caused as a result of escape
102
Q

What are defences to strict liability (3)

A
  • consent
  • “default of the plaintiff” (based on plaintiff’s own actions)
  • “act of god” (beyond human foresight)
103
Q

What is vicarious liability

A
  • a person may be held liable for the actions of another due to their relationship (often employer/employee relationships)
  • required no proof of wrongdoing on the part of the person held vicariously liable
104
Q

What questions identify vicarious liability (2)

A
  • was the worker and employee?
  • was the wrongful act done in the course of employment?
105
Q

What is a limitation period

A

A period of time, defined by statute, within which a plaintiff must commence their claim

106
Q

What is the relevant limitation act + period for tort actions

A

Ontario’s limitations Act, 2002 provides a basic limitation period of two years from discovery of the claim.

107
Q

Insurance compensation schemes - impediments to tort actions

A

Legislation restricting the right to sue in certain circumstances in exchange for compensation through an insurance scheme (eg. ontarios no-fault automobile insurance system, civil actions arising from a vehicle collision are limited under the insurance act)

108
Q

What is the purpose of tort remedies

A

To obtain compensation for the damages suffered

109
Q

What are the types of monetary damages

A

Compensatory damages 9pecuniary, non-pecuniary, aggravated damages) and Punitive damages

110
Q

What non-monetary remedies can be received as compensation for a tort

A

Injunctions, declaratory orders, ex parte orders.