Law Mock Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

what are the 4 advantages of juries?

A
  1. random selection
  2. public confidence
  3. jury equity
  4. jury secrecy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

advantage of random selection of juries?

A

equal treatment can be shown with the use of juries as they do not have any connections with the relevant cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

advantage of public confidence in juries?

A

ordinary members of the public judge defendants, 80% of those asked in a study trust juries more than a judge or magistrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

advantage of jury equity in juries?

A

jurors can decide a verdict according to what they think is right and wrong; they don’t have to follow the law if they feel it is unfair(R v Owen), as opposed to a judge who has to follow statute and precedent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

advantage of secrecy in juries?

A

it is an offence to share reasons for decisions or discussions that take place in a jury room. if decisions were public, jurors may not be as open and honest with their thoughts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what act makes it an offence to snitch about discussions in the court room?

A

criminal justice and courts act 2015

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the 4 disadvantages of juries?

A
  1. perverse decisions
  2. secrecy
  3. research
  4. bias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

disadvantage of perverse decisions in juries?

A

juries can ignore law/evidence and base decisions based on conscious, which can cause unfair decisions (R v Owen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

disadvantage of secrecy in juries?

A

courts can’t tell if jury are using actual evidence to make decisions or just random information or prejudice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

disadvantage of using research in juries?

A

information about cases is widely available online, which can cause prejudice. in 2010, 12% of jurors admitted to using the internet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

disadvantage of bias in juries?

A

all jurors have prejudice, which could affect the verdict, but due to secrecy, it is impossible to know (Sander vs UK) but research shows race doesn’t affect jurors decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

4 advantages of using negotiation, mediation, or conciliation as a form of ADR?

A
  1. cost-effective
  2. faster resolution
  3. preserved relationship
  4. parties retain control over the resolution process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

4 advantages of using arbitration in ADR?

A
  1. binding decision
  2. saves more time than court
  3. expert arbitrators
  4. confidentiality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

advantage of cost-effective in ADR?

A

ADR methods are cheaper than court cases because there are no court costs or other costs associated with trials. this makes ADR an especially appealing option for individuals or businesses with budget constraints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

advantage of reaching a faster resolution in ADR?

A

litigation could take months or even years to resolve in court, while ADR can be solved in a couple of weeks or even days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

advantage of preserved relationships in ADR?

A

ADR encourages communication and cooperation instead of confrontation, which is best in disputes where the parties have ongoing interactions, such as in business partnerships, family matters, or workplace conflicts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

advantage of parties retaining control over the resolution process in ADR?

A

the parties have more control over the process and outcome than litigation, where a judge or jury makes the final decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

advantage of having a binding decision in arbitration?

A

provides certainty for parties involved, as the dispute is resolved without the potential for prolonged litigation or appeals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

advantage of having an expert arbitrator?

A

the parties can often choose an arbitrator with expertise in the subject matter of the dispute. beneficial in complex cases, such as those involving specialised areas of law where the parties want a decision-maker who understands the technical or industry-specific issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

advantage of confidentiality in ADR?

A

unlike court proceedings, which are typically public, ADR processes are private, privacy can be important when discussing sensitive matters, e.g personal, financial, or trade secrets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

4 disadvantages of using negotiation, mediation, or conciliation as a form of ADR?

A
  1. not legally binding
  2. power imbalances
  3. dependence on cooperation
  4. lack of formal procedure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

4 disadvantages of using arbitration in ADR?

A
  1. limited right to appeal
  2. expensive
  3. lack of precedent
  4. potential for bias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

disadvantage of not being legally binding in ADR?

A

parties may be left without a legal remedy, unlike in arbitration or litigation, where the outcome is enforceable by law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

disadvantage of power imbalances in ADR?

A

if one party has more negotiating power, better legal representation, or superior resources, the other side cannot force a fair result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

disadvantage of dependence on cooperation in ADR?

A

might agree to unfavourable terms just to end the process, leading to dissatisfaction and a sense of injustice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

disadvantage of lack of formal procedure in ADR?

A

ADR results in inconsistent outcomes, as decisions are often based on the subjective judgment of the mediator or the goodwill of the parties involved. unlike formal litigation, where legal principles and precedents guide outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

disadvantage of a limited right to appeal in arbitration?

A

parties may be forced to accept an unfavourable or incorrect decision, even if it involves legal or factual errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

disadvantage of the expensiveness of arbitration?

A

more expensive than other forms of ADR due to high arbitration fees, costs for expert witnesses, and legal representation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

disadvantage of lack of precedent in arbitration?

A

can lead to inconsistent outcomes, resulting in a lack of predictability for future cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

disadvantage of potential for bias in arbitration?

A

undermines the fairness of the process and can lead to distrust in the arbitration system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what act covers sentencing?

A

sentencing act 2020

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

where are the purposes of sentencing set?

A

chapter 1 s.57 of the sentencing act 2020

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

5 aims of sentencing?

A
  1. punishment
  2. rehabilitation
  3. reparation
  4. deterrence
  5. protection of the public
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

is any punishment allowed in sentencing?

A

no, sentence must be proportionate to the offence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

aim of rehabilitation?

A

to reform the offender into society

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is reparation?

A

repayment to the victim or community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

aim is deterrence?

A

not wanting to commit the offence through fear of further punishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how does sentencing protect the public?

A

the offender is made incapable of committing further crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is an absolute discharge?

A

when the offender is technically guilty but morally blameless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are fines in sentencing?

A

sum of money exacted by penalty by the courts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is a conditional discharge?

A

court discharges an offender on the condition that no further offence is committed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are community orders?

A

community service (mix and matchable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is a suspended sentence?

A

offender has a fixed time (max 2 years) during which if no further offence is committed during this time, then the prison sentence will not be served

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is a fixed-term sentence?

A

imprisonment for a set number of time, automatically released after half their sentence is served

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is a discretionary life sentence?

A

when the maximum sentence is life imprisonment, but the judge doesn’t impose it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is a mandatory life sentence?

A

the only sentence a judge can impose for murder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the minimum term for committing murder?

A

12 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are the 8 types of sentencing for an adult?

A
  1. absolute discharge
  2. conditional discharge
  3. fines
  4. community order
  5. suspended sentence
  6. fixed-term sentence
  7. discretionary life sentence
  8. mandatory life sentence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

definition of aggravating factors in sentencing?

A

factors that increase a sentence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

definition of mitigating factors in sentencing?

A

factors that decrease a sentence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

4 aggravating factors in sentencing?

A
  1. previous convictions
  2. racial or religious hostility involved
  3. homophobic or ableist hostility
  4. D was on bail while committing the offence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

4 mitigating factors in sentencing?

A
  1. D has a medical and/or physical illness
  2. no previous convictions
  3. showing signs of remorse
  4. cooperative with police
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

3 aggravating factors for a mandatory life sentence?

A
  1. significant degree of planning
  2. vulnerable victim
  3. tortured victim before killing em
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

3 mitigating factors for a mandatory life sentence?

A
  1. intention to case gbh instead of murder
  2. lack of planning
  3. offender believed it was an act. of mercy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

reduction of sentence if D pleads guilty at the earliest opportunity?

A

1/3rd off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

reduction of sentence if D pleads guilty after the trial is set?

A

1/4th off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

reduction of sentence if D pleads guilty at the door of the court?

A

1/10th off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

3 additional powers of the court?

A
  1. disqualifying the D from driving
  2. compensation order to pay the victim
  3. forfeiture order, taking away offender’s property
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

elements of negligence?

A

duty of care, breach, damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what case to check duty of care?

A

Robinson (2018)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

how to check DoC through Robinson? + case?

A

look to see whether there is existing precedent (Bolam)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

if no existing precedent through Robinson the next step is?

A

try analogy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what must C prove for breach?

A

that the duty of care has been breached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what must D fall below in order to breach DoC? + case?

A

standard of the ‘reasonable person’ (Blyth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

definition of reasonable person?

A

someone who completes a task competently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

4 characteristics of D that affect standard of care?

A
  1. professional
  2. learner
  3. children
  4. unskilled
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

who are professionals put against in SoC? + case?

A

other professionals (Bolam)

68
Q

who are learners put against in SoC? + case?

A

a reasonably competent person with that skill (Nettleship)

69
Q

who are children put against in SoC? + case?

A

ordinary young person of the same age (Mullins v Richards)

70
Q

who are unskilled defendants put against in SoC? + case?

A

a reasonably competent amateur (Wells v Cooper)

71
Q

5 factors affecting standard of care?

A
  1. special characteristics of C
  2. size of risk
  3. adequate precautions taken
  4. unknown risks
  5. social utility
72
Q

what is ‘but for’ test in negligence? + case?

A

but for D’s acts/omissions, would the injury or loss have occurred? (Barnett)

73
Q

test for damage?

A

factual causation -> ‘but for’ test
legal causation -> remoteness of damage

74
Q

what is the test for remoteness of damage?

A

reasonable foreseeability, the harm or injury suffered must not be too remote, which would make it unforeseeable

75
Q

case for remoteness of damage in negligence?

A

The Wagon Mound 1961

76
Q

3 intervening acts in negligence? + case?

A
  1. act by claimant
  2. act of nature
  3. act of third party (Knightly v Jones)
77
Q

is it foreseeable if the accident occurred from an unknown event? + case?

A

no (Doughty v Turner Ltd 1964)

78
Q

does damage have to be extreme in negligence? + case?

A

no, only foreseeable (Bradford)

79
Q

private nuisance definition?

A

intentional unlawful indirect interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land coming from neighbouring land

80
Q

what is the egg shell skull rule in negligence? + case?

A

you must take your victim as you find them (Smith v Leech Brain 1962)

81
Q

meaning of intentional in private nuisance? + case?

A

action or danger (Sedleigh Denfield)

82
Q

private nuisance elements?

A
  1. intentional
  2. indirect
  3. interference
  4. enjoyment/use of land
  5. unlawful
83
Q

meaning of indirect in private nuisance? + case?

A

can be noise, smell, vibrations (Sturges v Bridgman)

84
Q

what doesn’t count as indirect interference in private nuisance? + case?

A

TV signal (Hunter v Canary Wharf Ltd)

85
Q

meaning of interference in private nuisance? + case?

A

physical damage or loss of amenity (Robinson v Kilvert)

86
Q

how to define the person who enjoys/uses the land in private nuisance? + case?

A

someone with a proprietary interest in it (Christie v Davey)

87
Q

what does unlawful mean in private nuisance?

A

unlawful means unreasonable, not illegal

88
Q

7 factors of reasonableness in private nuisance?

A

locality
duration
sensitivity of C
malice
social benefit
damage
effect of C’s human rights

89
Q

case for duration in private nuisance?

A

Crown River Cruises Ltd

90
Q

case for sensitivity of C in private nuisance?

A

Network Rail v Morris

91
Q

case for malice in private nuisance?

A

Hollywood Silver Fox Farm

92
Q

case for social benefit in private nuisance?

A

Miller v Jackson

93
Q

defences for private nuisance? + cases

A
  1. prescription - going on for at least 20 years without complaint (Sturges v Bridgman)
  2. statutory authority (Watson)
94
Q

remedies for private nuisance? + case?

A

1.injunctions
2. compensation (Coventry v Lawrence)
3. abatement

95
Q

where is attempts statued in?

A

s1(1) criminal attempts act 1981

96
Q

actus reus of attempts?

A

an act which is more than merely preparatory

97
Q

mens rea of attempts?

A

intention to commit an act, which if completed is an offence

98
Q

case for more than merely preparatory?

A

Jones

99
Q

what 2 things don’t count as more than merely preparatory?

A
  1. just equipping yourself
  2. just being in position
100
Q

what must D do in order to count as more than merely preparatory? + case?

A

embark upon the actual commission of the offence (Gullefer)

101
Q

case for just equipping yourself in attempts?

A

R v Geddes

102
Q

case for just being in position in attempts?

A

Campbell

103
Q

does conditional attempt count? + case?

A

yes, (Easom)

104
Q

what does the case of Shivpuri in attempts state?

A

attempts include ‘impossible’ crimes

105
Q

what does the case of Pearman in attempts state?

A

oblique intent will suffice

106
Q

what does s3 of the Crime Act 1967 state?

A

person can use self defence to protect themselves and others from harm using force they believe is reasonable in the moment

107
Q

what statute states that a person can use self defence to protect themselves and others from harm using force they believe is reasonable in the moment?

A

s3 Crime Act 1967

108
Q

what does s76 of the CJIA 2008 state?

A

d may not be able to fully weigh up the necessary level of force but nevertheless must use what is reasonable in the circumstances they believe themselves to be in

109
Q

what statute states that the d may not be able to fully weigh up the necessary level of force but nevertheless must use what is reasonable in the circumstances they believe themselves to be in

A

s76 CJIA 2008

110
Q

what are the 2 tests for self defence?

A
  1. subjective test, was the force necessary?
  2. objective test, whether the amount of force justified in the situation D was in
111
Q

will self defence be successful if force was too extreme or the danger had passed? + case?

A

no, (R v Clegg)

112
Q

what case and statute made it so that self defence in a household has a wider use of force?

A

R v Martin, s43 Crime and Courts Act 2013

113
Q

what 3 things must be sufficed so the D can use force that is not grossly disproportionate?

A
  1. D must not be a trespasser
  2. D is in/partly in a dwelling
  3. D believes V is a trespasser
114
Q

how much force can be used in household cases?

A

as long as its not grossly disproportionate

115
Q

can self defence be used for mistaken force? + case?

A

yes, (R v Gladstone Willis)

116
Q

can you use preemptive force such as making preparations to defend yourself against crime even if it hasn’t been committed yet? + case?

A

yes, (A G Ref No. 2)

117
Q

do you need a reluctance to use force to protect yourself? + case?

A

no, (R v Bird)

118
Q

what 2 things to look at for consent?

A
  1. is the consent genuine?
  2. what can a person consent to?
119
Q

4 factors that affect genuineness of consent? + cases?

A
  1. lying about your ability (Melin)
  2. consenting through fear
  3. v is unable to give consent
  4. non disclosure of a disease (Dica)
120
Q

name a situation where there could be implied consent?

A

a concert

121
Q

name the case for implied consent

A

R v Wilson and Pringle

122
Q

can a person consent to murder? + case?

A

no, (Pretty v UK)

123
Q

where are the exceptions of consenting to NFO laid out?

A

A G (Ref No. 2 1980)

124
Q

what are the exceptions of consenting to NFO?

A
  1. dangerous exhibits
  2. chastisement children
  3. properly conducted sports games
  4. vital medical interference
125
Q

what does R v Barnes state about consent in ball games?

A

reckless sport injuries and off the ball injuries aren’t covered by implied consent

126
Q

what case states reckless sport injuries and off the ball injuries aren’t covered by implied consent?

A

R v Barnes

127
Q

what statute + case states that you can consent to tattoos and piercings?

A

Tattooing of Minors Act 1969 and R v Wilson

128
Q

what does the Tattooing of Minors Act 1969 and R v Wilson state?

A

you can consent to tattoos and piercings

129
Q

what case states that there are body modifications you can’t consent to?

A

R v B M

130
Q

what does R v B M state about consent?

A

there are body modifications you can’t consent to

131
Q

who are there special considerations for consenting to life saving or improving medical procedures + case?

A

people under 16, (Gillik)

132
Q

when will the law accept mistaken consent?

A

as long as its genuine (R v Jones)

133
Q

what case states chastisement is legal?

A

A v UK

134
Q

can sadomasochism be consented to? + case?

A

no, (Brown)

135
Q

what statute sets out both assault and batter?

A

s.39 CJA 1988

136
Q

AR and MR of assault?

A

a person intentionally or recklessly causes another to apprehend the use of immediate unlawful violence

137
Q

case for “causing another to apprehend” in assault?

A

R v Logdon

138
Q

case for “an act, not omission” in assault?

A

R v Constanza

139
Q

case for “immediate” in assault?

A

R v Ireland

140
Q

mens rea of assault?

A
  • intention to cause the V to apprehend unlawful and immediate violence

*recklessness as to whether this apprehension would occur

141
Q

AR of battery?

A

application of unlawful physical force to another

142
Q

MR of battery?

A

intentionally or recklessly applied force to a person

143
Q

case for “force can be indirect” in battery?

A

R v Haystead

144
Q

case that states touching clothes counts as touching the person?

A

R v Thomas

145
Q

do omissions count in battery? + case?

A

yes, DPP v Santa Bermudez

146
Q

what case shows that battery can be through a continuing act?

A

Fagan v MPC

147
Q

case for MR of battery?

A

R v Venna

148
Q

what statute is ABH set in?

A

s.47 OAPA 1861

149
Q

AR of ABH?

A

assault occasioning actual bodily harm

150
Q

MR of ABH?

A

same as that for assault or battery
*intention or recklessness to cause V to apprehend immediate unlawful force
* intention or recklessness to apply unlawful physical force

151
Q

case for MR of ABH?

A

R v Savage

152
Q

“assault” meaning in ABH?

A

assault or battery

153
Q

“actual bodily harm” meaning + case?

A

any hurt or injury that interferes with the health or comfort of the victim, (R v Miller)

154
Q

what must the injury be in ABH?

A

more than trivial

155
Q

what case includes a person’s hair in ABH?

A

R v Smith

156
Q

AR of s.20 GBH?

A

unlawfully maliciously wounding to inflict any grievous bodily harm

157
Q

“wound” meaning in s.20 GBH?

A

breaking of the continuity of the whole of the outer skin

158
Q

definition of “grievous bodily harm”

A

really serious bodily harm

159
Q

MR of s.20 GBH?

A

maliciously, meaning intentionally or recklessly:
*needed only to intend some harm to occur
or
*be reckless as to some harm would occur

160
Q

what case sets out the MR for s.20 GBH?

A

R v Savage

161
Q

which case state there must be breaking of the skin to have a wound?

A

JCC v Eissenhower

162
Q

what case shows that if combined injuries are serious enough, it can count as GBH?

A

Brown and Stratton

163
Q

difference between s.20 and s.18 GBH?

A

the mens rea

164
Q

AR of s.18 GBH or Wounding?

A

exact same as s.20, unlawfully maliciously wounding to inflict any grievous bodily harm

165
Q

MR of s.18 GBH or Wounding?

A

requires a specific intent, it must have been D’s intention to do some previous bodily harm

166
Q

what case held that it was essential to prove specific intent for s.18 GBH?

A

R v Belfon