Law for Fleet Professionals Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three types of contracts classified by formation?

A

Express contracts – formed by language, oral or written
Implied contracts – formed by conduct
Quasi Contracts – not actual contracts. Intent to avoid unjust enrichment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two types of contracts classified by acceptance?

A

Bilateral contracts – traditional form of contract and involve an exchange of mutual promises
Unilateral contracts – involves a promise/offer by one party and a performance by the other party. Completion of the performance concludes the contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a unilateral contract?

A

Unilateral contracts – involves a promise/offer by one party and a performance by the other party. Completion of the performance concludes the contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are void, voidable, and unenforceable contracts?

A

Void contracts – totally without legal effect from the outset
Voidable contracts – one or both parties may elect to avoid the contract (contract for minors etc.)
Unenforceable contracts – otherwise valid contract that is not enforceable due to various defenses (statute of limitations, statute of frauds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is mutual assent?

A

Negotiation between two parties with one party making a proposal (offer) and the second party agreeing to it (acceptance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Contract formation requires three elements, explain these elements.

A

Offer – creates power of acceptance in the offeree and corresponding liability on the part of the offeror
Acceptance – agreement by the offeree to the offer terms. Acceptance must be communicated to the offeror
Consideration – what separates a contract from being a gift or other unenforceable agreement. There must be a bargained for exchange between the parties. There must be legal value to what is bargained for.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What three questions will a Court use to judge whether an offer was made?

A
  • Was there a promise or commitment to enter into a contract?
  • Was there certainty and definiteness to the essential terms? Offer must be definite and include enough essential terms that allow the contract to be enforced.
  • Was there communication to the offeree? Offeree must have the ability to accept the offer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How can an offer be terminated?

A

Offeror may terminate the offer by communicating renovation of the offer prior to its acceptance. Offeror cannot terminate the offer if the offeree has detrimentally relied on the offer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How can an offeree accept a contract?

A

Acceptance must be communicated to the offeror

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two elements of consideration?

A

There must be a bargained for exchange between the parties. There must be legal value to what is bargained for.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is promissory estoppel?

A

Acts as a substitute for the requirement to have legal consideration. It holds that a promise is enforceable to the extent necessary to prevent injustice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are 4 categories of reasons that prevent contracts from being formed?

A
  • Absence of mutual assent – parties are mistaken about facts relating to the agreement
  • Absence of consideration
  • Public policy considerations
  • Lack of capacity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the statute of frauds?

A

Certain agreements by statute must be in writing. Non compliance with the statute of frauds renders the contract unenforceable at the option of the party to be charged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is unconscionability?

A

Refers to contracts that contain terms that are especially onerous for one party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is misrepresentation?

A

A false statement of fact made by one party to another with the intent to induce the other party to enter into a contract. Can be expressed in words or by conduct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is fraud in fact and fraud in the inducement?

A

Fraud in fact - A legal defense to contract formation where the misrepresentation causes one to enter into a transaction without realizing the risks.
Fraud in the inducement – equitable defense where both parties know they are entering into a contract but one party materially misrepresents a material fact that the other party is fraudulently led to believe is true in order to induce that party to enter a contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Can a contract be put aside due to mistake by one party?

A

No, certain specific cases where mistake is a justification to alter or void a contract. If one or more parties to a contract are mistaken about a material term or condition, the contract may be invalidated by the courts as there was not a meeting of the minds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What three questions do courts ask in order to determine if a party is a third party beneficiary?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What contracts cannot be assigned?

A
  • Personal services contracts where the service being contracted is unique
  • Requirements and output contracts
  • The promisors risk would be substantially altered by the assignment
  • Assignments prohibited by law
  • When the contract contains an express provision barring assignment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe when contractual duties cannot be assigned to a third party?

A
  • Duties involving personal judgement and skill
  • Special trust in delegator
  • If delegation would materially change the obligee’s expectations
  • If the contract expressly restricts delegation. Delegations may be oral or written
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the common rules of contract construction?

A
  • The contract is construed as a whole
  • Courts will construe words according to their ordinary meaning
  • Custom and usage in particular business will be applied
  • Ambiguities will be construed against preparer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the Parole evidence rule?

A
  • No other prior or contemporaneous agreements or expressions will be permitted to modify the language of the written contract
  • Vendor verbally offers to include an extra product but the product is faulty and affects the other services. Offeree is unable to remedy because the product isn’t in the contract.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the difference between a condition and a promise?

A

Condition: an event that will create, limit or extinguish the duty of a contracting party to perform. Classified according to the time occurrence – conditions precedent, conditions concurrent and conditions subsequent
Promise: a commitment to do or refrain from doing something

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Differentiate between conditions precedent, concurrent and subsequent.

A

Conditions precedent – must occur before an absolute duty of immediate performance arises
Conditions concurrent – those that occur at the same time and if both do not occur, there is no contract and no breach of contract.
Conditions subsequent – one that occurs after an existing duty of performance becomes absolute which then terminates that duty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How can a contract be discharged?

A

The most common method of discharge is performance. Can also occur by condition subsequent. May also be discharged by rescission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a minor contract breach?

A

The breach does not substantially affect the promisee’s benefit of the bargain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a material contract breach?

A

The promisee does not receive the substantial benefit of the bargain as a result of the failure of the promisor to perform the terms of the contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a force majeure clause?

A

Contract cannot be completed due to an act of god.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a tort?

A

A Tort is a civil wrong. Tort law includes negligence, intentional torts, defamation, strict liability, products liability and nuisance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is negligence?

A

Most common tort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What four elements must a plaintiff prove to prove negligence?

A
  • Existence of a duty on the defendant to conform to a standard of conduct. For the protection of the plaintiff against an unreasonable risk.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a duty of care?

A

When a person engages in an activity, that person is under a legal duty to act as an ordinary, prudent, reasonable person would act.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a breach of duty?

A

To prove breach of duty, two elements are required: (1) it must be shown what in fact happened; and (2) it must be shown from these facts that the defendant acted unreasonably.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the difference between Actual Cause and Proximate Cause?

A

Actual cause – an act or omission is the cause in fact of the injury or several causes join to cause the injury
Proximate Cause – legal cause of the injury. The defendant will be liable for all injury resulting from the normal incidents within the increased risk created by the defendants acts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What must a plaintiff suffer in order for the defendant to be liable?

A

Plaintiff must suffer actual harm or injury – personal injury (medical expenses, lost income, emotional distress etc) and or punitive damages (attorneys fees).

36
Q

What is contributory negligence?

A

The doctrine held by a minority of states. Stops the plaintiff’s lawsuit for damages if their own negligence contributed to the injury.

37
Q

What is comparative negligence?

A

Allows a plaintiff whose negligence contributes to the injury to collect from the negligent defendant based upon a percentage of their comparative negligence.

38
Q

What is an Intentional Tort?

A

The civil equivalent of crimes. Elements are
- An act by defendant
- Intent to harm
- Causation (act that caused harm)

39
Q

What are torts to economic and personal interests?

A

Defamation – libel (in writing), slander (spoken)
Invasion of right to privacy – right to protection against interferences with one’s right to privacy
Misrepresentation (fraud)
Wrongful institution of legal proceedings - malicious criminal prosecution, wrongful civil proceedings, and abuse of process
Interference with business relations – interference with a contract or prospective economic advantage.

40
Q

What is product liability?

A

The liability of a supplier of a product to the party injured by the product. Plaintiff just show product is defective. Common defect issues – Misuse, unknowable risk, allergies.

41
Q

What is nuisance?

A

The invasion of public or private property rights by tortious conduct.
Private nuisance is unreasonable interference with another individual’s use or enjoyment of property actually possessed or right to immediate possession. The interference must be offensive or inconvenient.
Public nuisance is unreasonable interference with health, safety or property rights of the community.

42
Q

Who is immune from Torts?

A

Federal government
State government
Municipalities
Charitable immunity.

43
Q

What is the difference between express and implied agency?

A
44
Q

What are the four types of authority and how can a contract be ratified?

A

Actual authority – an agent acts with actual authority when the agent reasonably believes in accordance with the principal
Apparent authority – power held by an agent when a third party reasonably believes the agent has authority to act behalf on the principal
Implied authority – agent has implied authority when it is necessary to carry out actual or apparent authority
Ratification – the affirmation of a prior act done by another where the act gives effect as if done by someone with actual authority.

45
Q

What is a universal agent?

A

Holds all of the powers of the principal that can be legally delegated to act on the principal’s behalf. Lawyer representing a disabled client.

46
Q

What is a general agent?

A

Holds a more limited authority to perform acts for their principals concerning a specific business. Tend to have powers in only a part of the principal’s affairs. Ex. Fleet management.

47
Q

What is a special agent?

A

Holds powers limited to specific transactions over a specified period of time.

48
Q

What are the six ways an agent can be terminated?

A
  • Death of the agent or principal
  • Loss of the principal’s capacity to act, then the agent’s authority is terminated
  • Mutual agreement by agent and principal
  • Agent would reasonably conclude that the authority has been terminated
  • Agent renounces by manifestation to the principal
  • Principal revokes by manifestation to the agent.
49
Q

When is a principal liable for the actions of an agent?

A

When the agent acts with actual authority of the principal and
- The agent’s conduct is tortious
- The agent’s conduct would subject the principal to tort liability
The principal is negligent in selecting, supervising or controlling the agent
The principal delegates the performance of a duty to use care to protect other people or property to an agent who fails to perform that duty.

50
Q

What is the doctrine of Respondent Superior?

A

Respondent Superior has vicarious liability by being liable for their agent/employee when they are acting within the scope of their employment/contract. No vicarious liability for the employer when the employee has no liability.

51
Q

What is Placard/Logo liability?

A

When the employer’s logo appears on a part of the business so they are still vicariously liable. Ex, fleet car has company logo and is involved in an accident where driver is at fault. Assumption that the vehicle is owned by the company and driver is employed there.

52
Q

What is negligent entrustment?

A

Fleet management example:
- Employer permitted driver to use the car
- Employer was in control of the car
- Employer knew or should’ve known the employee would use the car in a manner that created risk to others.

53
Q

Under what theories of negligence law can an employer be held liable?

A

If the risk or recklessness was known to the employer (poor driving record).

54
Q

What are the three elements of negligent entrustment in the context of fleet management?

A
55
Q

What is negligent hiring?

A

Focused on the employer’s act at the time of hiring. Negligent hiring differs from negligent entrustment because it requires that.

56
Q

What are the three elements of negligent entrustment in the context of fleet management?

A

The three elements are not specified in the provided text.

57
Q

What is negligent hiring?

A

Focused on the employer’s act at the time of hiring. Negligent hiring differs from negligent entrustment because it requires that the negligence of the employer in hiring the person must be the cause of the specific injury suffered by the plaintiff due to the tortious acts of the employee.

58
Q

What are negligent supervision and training?

A

They focus on the period after the date of hire while the employee is being supervised and trained.

59
Q

What is a distracted driving liability that fleet managers should be aware of?

A

Cellphone and texting liability. Fleet professionals should be adopting policies governing cell phone activity while driving.

60
Q

What is the difference between a bailor and a bailee?

A

Bailor is the owner of personal property who has the right to possess it and delivers it to the bailee under the implied agreement to return it.

61
Q

When is bailment created?

A

Bailment involves a transfer of possession not ownership. The bailor must own or have the right to possess personal property, deliver exclusive possession to the bailee, and the bailee must knowingly accept the property.

62
Q

What are the four types of bailment?

A

1) Bailments for the sole benefit of the bailor. 2) Bailments for the sole benefit of the bailee. 3) Bailments for mutual benefits. 4) Involuntary bailments.

63
Q

What is the Duty of Care?

A

Bailee is responsible for taking reasonable steps to protect the personal property during possession. If they don’t exercise proper care, the bailee is liable for negligence.

64
Q

What is the Duty of Return?

A

Bailee must return the identical property received in undamaged condition. Bailee is negligent if personal property has been damaged.

65
Q

What is Bailee liability and what are the limitations of it?

A

Any attempt to limit a bailee’s liability for intentional wrongful acts will not be enforced. The bailee’s attempt to limit liability for negligence is also limited.

66
Q

What are the duties of the Bailor?

A

When bailor delivers the personal property to the bailee, it is implied that it has no hidden defects. If the bailment benefits the bailee, bailor is liable for any harm from defects.

67
Q

In the United States what is Employee at Will?

A

Unless there is a contractual agreement or a labor union, employment is at will. Employee can terminate their employment for any reason at any time.

68
Q

What is the difference between an employee and an independent contractor?

A

Employers are liable for their employees but not independent contractors.

69
Q

How is the relationship between employer and employee defined in Canada?

A

The relationship is established by a contract that gives the employer the authority to direct the work of the employee.

70
Q

What is an appropriate time period for a notice of termination in Canada?

A

Depends on the employee level or can be measured by the pay period.

71
Q

What are the causes that would empower an employer to terminate an employee?

A

Termination with cause occurs when the employee’s actions amount to a breach of the employment contract.

72
Q

What must an employee prove in order to receive workers compensation?

A

The employee must prove they were an employee, were injured, and that the injury occurred on the job.

73
Q

What are the two types of federal administrative agencies?

A

1) Executive agencies, which are part of the executive branch. 2) Independent agencies created by Congress.

74
Q

What are the three types of rules that administrative agencies create?

A

Procedural rules, interpretive rules, and legislative rules.

75
Q

What is the mission of the department of transportation?

A

To serve the US by ensuring a fast, safe, and efficient transportation system.

76
Q

What agencies affect fleet operations the most?

A

Federal motor carrier safety administration, national highway traffic safety administration, federal highway administration, federal transit administration.

77
Q

What is Transport Canada responsible for?

A

For transportation policies and programs ensuring safe, secure, efficient, and environmentally responsible transportation.

78
Q

What is the federal motor carrier safety administration responsible for?

A

Registering and licensing CMVs, licensing and regulating commercial drivers, and regulating commercial transportation of hazardous materials.

79
Q

What is the goal of the Canadian National Safety Code?

A

To improve motor carrier safety in Canada through consistent implementation of safety standards.

80
Q

What is the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration responsible for?

A

Writes safety, theft resistant, and fuel economy standards for motor vehicles.

81
Q

What are the two programs under the Federal Highway Administration?

A

1) Federal aid highway program. 2) Federal Lands highway program.

82
Q

What is the mission of the Department of Energy?

A

To advance the national, economic and energy security of the USA.

83
Q

What are 5 fleet related initiatives that the DOE is involved with?

A

1) Vehicle technologies program. 2) AFDC. 3) Clean cities. 4) EPAct and Transportation Regulatory Activities. 5) EIA.

84
Q

What is the Environmental Protection Agency responsible for?

A

For protecting human health and safeguarding the natural environment.

85
Q

What are two fleet related initiatives that the EPA is responsible for?

A

Regulatory information for the automotive sector and the Clean Air Act.