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Law Final Flashcards

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1
Q

The time when internship hours shall be reported to the board

A

Upon request

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2
Q

The number of days a pharmacy technician has to notify the department of a change in home address or name/address of work

A

10 days

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3
Q

What three documents could designate the managing pharmacist of a pharmacist

A

1) Pharmacy license application
2) Most recent amended schedule of operations
3) Most recent license renewal application

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4
Q

Number of pharmacies for which a pharmacist may be the managing pharmacist for at any time

A

2

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5
Q

Type of pharmacy a pharmacist may be managing pharmacist at any time

A

One community and one institution

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6
Q

Activity that the managing pharmacist shall be engaged in at each location he or she supervises

A

Pharmacy practices

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7
Q

The period of time of anticipated continuous absence that requires a managing pharmacist to delegate supervision of the pharmacy to another pharmacist

A

more than 30 days

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8
Q

The provision of pharmaceutical services at a clinic of a practitioner, a county jail, or a juvenile correctional facility could be examples of what pharmacy type

A

Remote dispensing site

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9
Q

The person responsible for reporting to the board any changes in the managing pharmacist within 5 days of the change

A

The pharmacy owner

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10
Q

The activity common to institutional and community delegate-check-delegate eligible products that cannot be delegates

A

DUR

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11
Q

The frequency that the accuracy rate of each delegate must be checked using the records in the quality assurance log

A

Quarterly (every 3 months)

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12
Q

When delegate-check-delegate records need to be provided to the board

A

Upon request

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13
Q

Record of internship hours shall be maintained by who

A

Either the supervising pharmacist or the pharmacy school

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14
Q

An adult is disposing of a prescription drug at the drug disposal program, they are required to have this from the patient or guardian for each drug being disposed

A

Written authorization

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14
Q

The length of time written authorization to dispose of a prescription drug by another lay per is valid

A

24 hours

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14
Q

The persons in a family who may be granted written permission to dispose of a prescription drug from another member in the household

A

Domestic partner and another related adult

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15
Q

The portion of the definition of Schedule 1 and Schedule 2 substances that is the same

A

High potential for abuse

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16
Q

Pharmacies, online pharmacies, and these systems often found in long-term care facilities all require certificates of registration to engage in controlled substance activity

A

Automated dispensing system

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17
Q

Schedule 1 definition

A

High potential for abuse
No current accepted medical use in treatment in the United States
Lacks accepted safety for use in treatment under medical supervision

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18
Q

Schedule 2 definition

A

High potential for abuse
Currently accepted medical use in the United States, or currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions
Abuse of the substance may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence

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19
Q

Schedule 3 definition

A

Potential for abuse less than substances included in schedules 1 and 2
Currently accepted medical use in the treatment in the United States
Abuse of the substance may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence

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20
Q

Schedule 4 definition

A

Low potential for abuse relative to substances included in schedule 3
Currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States
Abuse of the substance may lead to limited physical dependence or psychological dependence relative to the substances included in schedule 3

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21
Q

Schedule 5 definition

A

Low potential for abuse relative to the controlled substances included in schedule IV
Currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States
Limited physical dependence or psychological dependence liability relative to the controlled substances included in schedule IV

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22
Q

The percent of distribution to another practitioner by a pharmacy allowable without a distributor license

A

5%

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23
Q

An online pharmacy can perform the activities of this type of pharmacy without requiring a second DEA registration

A

Retail pharmacy

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24
Q

The part of the DEA form 222 that includes the name and address of the supplier

A

Part 2

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25
Q

The manner by which schedules that may be ordered are filled in on the DEA form 222

A

Pre-printed from the DEA

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26
Q

The three drugs require their own DEA form 222 when ordering

A

Etorphine
diprenorphine
carfentanil

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27
Q

Of the information in Part 2 of DEA form 222, the information that the registrant can leave to the supplier to complete

A

The DEA number of the supplier

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28
Q

The document that must be included by the supplier with a returned unaccepted DEA form 222

A

Statement describing why the form was returned

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29
Q

The form used to order Schedule 1 and 2 controlled substances

A

DEA form 222

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30
Q

Acceptable method for filling in the DEA form 222

A

Typewriter
Pen
Indelible pencil
Printer

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31
Q

The person/entity responsible for completing the NDC numbers on an order using the DEA form 222

A

Supplier

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32
Q

The location where a purchaser must write CANCELED when a supplier partially or fully cancels a DEA form 222

A

The number of packages supplied field

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33
Q

A supplier may transfer a DEA form 222 to an alternative supplier by doing this to the DEA form 222

A

Endorse the form to another supplier

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34
Q

Number of days a supplier has to fill the remainder of partially filled DEA form 222 order

A

60 days

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35
Q

The words that must be written on the face of a DEA form 222 if a lost form is subsequently found by the supplier

A

Not Accepted

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36
Q

The location where paper copies of executed DEA form 222 must be retained

A

The pre-printed address of the purchaser (registrant) on the DEA form 222

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37
Q

The action required of a purchaser with unused DEA forms 222 if the DEA registrant of the purchaser terminates

A

Return the unused forms to the DEA

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38
Q

The format of the unique tracking number required on an electronic order for schedule 1 or schedule 2 substances

A

Last two digits of the year, X, six characters selected by the purchaser-9 digits total

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39
Q

Schedule of testosterone

A

C3

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40
Q

Schedule of tramadol

A

C4

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41
Q

Schedule of a product that contains not more than 200mg/100ml of codeine

A

C5

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42
Q

The schedule of a product that contains not more than 90 mg of codeine per dosage unit

A

C3

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43
Q

Schedule of LSD

A

C1

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44
Q

Schedule of most benzodiazepines

A

C4

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45
Q

Schedule of a product with not more than 1.6grams/100ml codeine

A

C3

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46
Q

By federal law, samples cannot be

A

Sold, purchased or traded

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47
Q

FDCA

A

Food Drug and Cosmetic Act

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48
Q

USP

A

United States Pharmacopeia

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49
Q

FDA

A

Food and Drug Administration

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50
Q

Document filed with the FDA to get a drug approved in the United States

A

New Drug Application (NDA)

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51
Q

Three methods to start the process of moving a prescription drug to non-prescription

A

New Drug Application (NDA)
New monograph created by the FDA
Citizen petition

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52
Q

Important changes from the Durham-Humphrey Amendment

A

Authorized refills and verbal prescription orders
Distinguished between prescription and non-prescription orders

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52
Q

FDCA definition of a drug

A

To diagnose, cure, mitigate, treat, or prevent a disease

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52
Q

As both have the potential to impact the structure and function of the body, this is specifically noted in the FDCA to not be a drug

A

Food

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53
Q

An article is a drug when this entity makes a health claim of the intent of the drug to diagnose, cure, mitigate, treat, or prevent disease

A

The manufacturer

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54
Q

The numeric information that needs to be disclosed when making a health care claim of the benefit of a dietary supplement in preventing a nutrient deficiency disease

A

Prevalence of the disease

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55
Q

FDCA definition of a drug device

A

An instrument, apparatus, or implant that is intended to diagnose, cure, mitigate, treat, or prevent disease

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56
Q

The act that requires the statement, when applicable: “This statement has not been evaluated by the Food and Drug Administration. This product is not intended to diagnose, treat, cure, or prevent any disease.”

A

Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (1994)

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57
Q

The category of food that is administered orally or by tube under the supervision of a physician intended for specific dietary management of a condition with distinctive nutritional requirements

A

Medical food

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58
Q

The person or entity who determines how often a periodic review of the prescription orders of the physician assistant should be reviewed

A

The supervising physician

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59
Q

The therapeutic class of drugs a nurse practitioner cannot prescribe to enhance athletic performance

A

Anabolic Steroids

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60
Q

The indication of which a nurse practitioner may prescribe schedule 2 controlled substances for pain

A

Cancer

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61
Q

The title of an eye doctor who can prescribe but is not also a medical physician

A

Optometrist

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62
Q

The limitation on prescribing imposed on dentists

A

Within the scope of their practice

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63
Q

In addition to topical agents, the broad class of medication the optometrists can also prescribe

A

Oral analgesics

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64
Q

The name and amount of the only C2 that an optometrist can prescribe

A

Hydrocode 15mg per dosage unit

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65
Q

The otherwise legal prescription that a physician in prohibited from writing in Wisconsin

A

Self-prescribed controlled substances (C2-4)

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66
Q

Providers who can supervise a pharmacy intern administer a drug or device as defined in Wisconsin law

A

Pharmacist who are also eligible to administer the drug or device

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67
Q

The category of drugs specifically excluded from the laws pertaining to the administration of drugs and devices by pharmacists in Wisconsin

A

Vaccines

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68
Q

Minimum length of time required of courses of study on administration of drugs and devices in Wisconsin

A

No specified

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69
Q

Two alternatives when communicating administration of a drug or device to a patient under Wisconsin law

A

Notifying the prescriber
Entering the information in a common patient record system

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70
Q

Activities that can be delegated from a physician to a pharmacist

A

Any patient care services

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71
Q

The length of time and from when documentation of delegated patient care services from a physician to a pharmacist must be maintained

A

5 years from the time of the last delegated patient care act

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72
Q

Providers who may delegate any patient care service to a pharmacist

A

Physicians

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73
Q

The two entities who must approve written guidelines or procedures for a pharmacist to make therapeutic alternative drug selections in a hospital

A

The Pharmacy and Therapeutics committee
The medical staff of the hospital

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74
Q

Locations specified where pharmacists perform therapeutic alternative drug selection as part of pharmacy practice

A

Corrections system
nursing homes
nursing facilities
hospitals

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75
Q

Pharmacy practice definition

A

Drug product substitution, participating in drug utilization reviews, therapeutic alternative selection and drug regimen screening

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76
Q

Minimum age a pharmacist can administer COVID or Flu vaccines without a prescription allowed by the PREP Act

A

3

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77
Q

The length of time a prescription for a non-CDC-scheduled vaccine is valid

A

29 days

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78
Q

The providers who can supervise a pharmacy intern vaccinating

A

Any medical professional who can also vaccinate

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79
Q

The age limit for pharmacists providing vaccinations based soley on the CDC vaccine schedule (ignoring the PREP act)

A

6

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80
Q

Category of vaccination an intern may administer to those 6 years and older

A

Vaccines with a prescription order
Any vaccine that is indicated on the CDC schedule

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81
Q

Credentials required of a pharmacy technician in order to be eligible to vaccinate

A

Completing the course of study
Being a certified technician

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82
Q

Minimum required length of time of a course of study on vaccine administration for pharmacists

A

12 hours

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83
Q

Length of time a pharmacist has to update the WIR after administrating a vaccine

A

7 days

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84
Q

The institution that published the current schedule for vaccines that allow pharmacists to vaccinate without a prescription

A

CDC

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85
Q

The providers who can supervise a pharmacy technician vaccinating

A

Pharmacist who are also eligible to vaccinate

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86
Q

The item specified to the drug that N8.07(1) [federal] does not specify as required on a prescription order that Phar7.02(1) [Wisconsin] does

A

The strength of the drug

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87
Q

The person who is required to sign a prescription order from a PA

A

The prescribing PA

88
Q

The delegating practitioner information required on a non-controlled substance order based on M17.06 [federal] that is not an expectation of Phar7.02(1) [wisconsin]

A

The phone number of the delegating practitioner

89
Q

The person who must approve the pharmacy designated to receive an electronic order

A

The patient

90
Q

The patient needs to tell the practitioner in writing in order to have this information required on the label of a prescription

A

The indication/symptom/purpose

91
Q

For non-controlled substance, a common drug element that is not specifically required by law on a prescription order

A

The dosage form

92
Q

The person to whom a naloxone prescription order can be written

A

Anyone

93
Q

Required elements on a prescription order for a non-controlled substance related to the practitioner

A

First and Last name
Signature
Address

94
Q

The drug and dosage form that can be prescribed to a school with a school named on the prescription order instead of the patient

A

Epinephrine auto-injectors and prefilled syringes

95
Q

Acceptable patient identifiers on a chart order

A

First and Last name
Date of birth
MRN

96
Q

Items a delegate must include specific to him or herself on a prescription order

A

First and last name

97
Q

The two requirements on a prescription order for an individual patient to identify the patient

A

Name and address

98
Q

The type of prescription order that the law considers a faxed C3-5 prescription order

A

Written order

99
Q

The controlled substance schedules that allow for electronic prescription

A

C2-5

100
Q

The person for which a fax can serve as the original signed C2 prescription order but only for C2 narcotic substances of any dosage form

A

Hospice

101
Q

The time when a controlled substance prescription order expires

A

It does not

102
Q

What must be determined by both the provider and the pharmacist in order to prescribe and fill, respectively, a controlled substance

A

A legitimate medical purpose

103
Q

Maximum day supply that multiple C2 orders issued at the same time can provide a patient

A

90 day supply

104
Q

The prescription requirement specified by the federal Controlled Substance Act for GHB

A

The medical need of the patient on the face of the prescription

105
Q

The person resposible for the legitimate medical purpose of prescribed controlled substance

A

The dispensing pharmacist and the prescribing practitioner

106
Q

The additional requirement on a C2 prescription order when multiple prescription orders are issued at the same time for a patient

A

Earliest date to fill

107
Q

The practitioner category for a person with a DEA registration number that starts with an M

A

Mid-level practitioner

108
Q

The task that a prescriber may authorize an agent to do related to controlled substance prescription orders

A

Orally communicate or faxing the order to the pharmacy

109
Q

The prescription order that must be used when the same controlled substance prescription order is sent both electronically and as a paper to one pharmacy

A

What ever is older

110
Q

The provider who is required by law to include on the prescription order the indicated use of the prescribed controlled substance

A

Optometrist

111
Q

The person who shares liability with the prescriber if a prescription is dispensed when an order does not meet DEA regulations

A

Dispensing pharmacists

112
Q

The requirement on a controlled substance prescription order for a patient that is not a requirement of non-controlled substances

A

Drug dosage form
Prescribers DEA number

113
Q

The person responsible to sign a prescription order completed by an agent of the prescribing practitioner

A

The prescribing practitioner

114
Q

With some exceptions, the persons allowed to prescribe controlled substances

A

DEA registered practitioners

115
Q

The method expected in the law to keep unauthorized persons from altering electronic prescription orders for controlled substances

A

Limit electronic access to only authorized persons

116
Q

The limits on refills for C3 and C4 controlled substances

A

up to 5 refills within 6 months of the date of issue on the prescription

117
Q

The number of days an extension can be provided for controlled substances that are out of refills

A

0

118
Q

The maximum day supply that a pharmacist may increase a quantity to if otherwise allowable by law

A

90 days

119
Q

Outside of specified exception, the type of filling that a pharmacist may not increase the quantity for non-controlled substance with refills

A

Initial filling

120
Q

The persons responsible for determining the legitimate medical purpose of controlled substance prescriptions

A

The prescriber and the pharmacists

121
Q

According to the federal CSA, the persons who shall provide effective controls and procedures to guard against theft and diversion of controlled substances

A

Who are all applicants and registrants

122
Q

Criteria a controlled substance order is legally obligated to meet based on the CSA

A

Issued for a legitimate medical purpose
Prescribed within the scope of practice

123
Q

The action that would lead to a person being subject to the penalties provided for violations of the provisions of law relating to dispensing controlled substances

A

Knowingly filling an invalid prescription

124
Q

The specific quantity of loss of controlled substances that qualifies as a significant loss as defined by the CSA

A

Not specified

125
Q

The phrase that the CSA expects to have been ensured when a controlled substance is both prescribed and dispensed

A

A legitimate medical purpose

126
Q

The timeframe required for notification of the DEA if a pharmacy discovers significant loss/left of a controlled substance

A

1 day

127
Q

The form required to be completed in the event of a loss or theft of controlled substances

A

DEA form 106

128
Q

The timeframe for notification of the board of a theft or loss of controlled substances

A

1 day

129
Q

Criteria that would cause a person to not be employable within a pharmacy that would otherwise provide them access to controlled substances

A

Denied DEA registration
Had to surrender their DEA registration for cause
Convicted of a felony related to controlled substances

130
Q

Two-word term that is defined as “a consequence of any federal or state administrative, civil, or criminal action resulting from the investigation of the individual handling of controlled substances.”

A

For cause

131
Q

The word that must be added to the face of a non-controlled substance paper-based prescription when it is transferred to a different pharmacy

A

Void

132
Q

In addition to any remaining refills, the law allows this to be transferred for non-controlled substance prescriptions

A

The original prescription order

133
Q

The law allows transferring this between pharmacies for any prescriptions for controlled substances

A

Any remaining valid refills

134
Q

The person who can request a transfer of a prescription

A

the patient

135
Q

The methods of communication allowed for transfer of a non-controlled substance prescription

A

verbally, electronically, and by fax

136
Q

The state to which the law allows transfer of a non-controlled prescription when the pharmacy is in Wisconsin.

A

Any state

137
Q

The word that must appear on a prescription order that is transferred from another pharmacy

A

Transfer

138
Q

The person(s) who can provide or take a transfer prescription

A

pharmacist and pharmacy interns

139
Q

They type of system that allows for refills of orders, whether for non-controlled or controlled substances, to be transferred as long as valid refills remain

A

Shared computer system

140
Q

Unlike non-controlled substance order transfers, this cannot be transferred for a C-III, C-IV, and C-V order (wisconsin law)

A

Original prescription order

141
Q

Transfers of controlled substance orders, when a shared computer system is not being used, uniquely stipulate the need for this type of communication to always be part of the process

A

Direct communication between two pharmacists

142
Q

The entity whose DEA number must be recorded when transferring a controlled substance prescription order from your pharmacy

A

The DEA number of the pharmacy accepting/receiving the transfer

143
Q

While the dates and locations of all previous refills must be documented when receiving a transfer order for a controlled substance, this element, while good practice, is not technically listed as a requirement to be documented

A

Quantity of each previous refill

144
Q

In addition to the DEA number of the prescriber and the DEA number of the pharmacy originally filling an order being transferred for a controlled substance, the other required DEA number

A

DEA number of the pharmacy providing the transfer

145
Q

Along with errors, inadequate instructions, and contraindications/incompatibilities, the reason a contraceptive prescription could be refused to be dispensed

A

Potentially fraudulent

146
Q

The term used to refer to a right of a provider to not provide care that conflicts with his or her beliefs

A

Conscientious objection

147
Q

With legal term for the time frame expected for dispensing a contraceptive prescription

A

Without delay

148
Q

The phrase that must be included on a written or electronic order that is sent subsequent to a C-II substance oral order

A

Authorized for emergency dispensing

149
Q

The entity who must be notified if a prescriber fails to provide a written or electronic order subsequent to an oral authorization for a C-II substance

A

Nearest DEA office

150
Q

The controlled substance schedules that allow for partial dispensing

A

C2-5

151
Q

Along with the pharmacist being unable to supply a full quantity, the reasons why a C-II prescription may be partially filled for a patient who is not terminally ill or in a LTCF

A

Patient or prescriber asks for a partial fill

152
Q

Along with the C-II substance is immediately necessary for proper treatment and the prescriber cannot reasonably provide a written order, the criteria that must be met to allow oral authorization of a C-II substance

A

What is no appropriate alternative treatment is available

153
Q

The schedules that may require identification be provided when dispensing the medication to someone other than the patient

A

C2 and C3

154
Q

The two categories of patients who are eligible for multiple partial fills on the same C-II prescription order

A

Terminally ill and LTCF

155
Q

The number of dosage forms that all partial fills combined of a single C-II prescription order cannot exceed

A

The original quantity of the prescription order

156
Q

The instance(s) that allow for legal use of marijuana in Wisconsin

A

none

157
Q

The number of hours before the remainder of a partially filled C-II prescription order cannot be dispensed

A

72

158
Q

The location where prescription drugs are prohibited from being placed for delivery in all circumstances

A

Public place

159
Q

The class of drugs that cannot be extended by a pharmacist when there are no more refills on the prescription order

A

Controlled substances

160
Q

The number of days that a non-controlled drug can be extended when it is out of refills before a new order is required

A

7 days

161
Q

The number of days that a controlled substance that is out of refills can be extended

A

0 days

162
Q

The action required of the pharmacist before providing an extension to a patient who is out of refills

A

Attempt to contact the provider to get a new prescription

163
Q

The number of times a non-controlled substance that is out of refills can be extended within this timeframe

A

1 time in a 1 year period

164
Q

Along with your own pharmacy, the location(s) where a medication may have been refilled that would still allow you to provide an extension when out of refills

A

Pharmacy in the same chain

165
Q

The class of drug that is specifically noted in requirements for reporting potential causes of a public health emergency

A

Antibiotics

166
Q

The patient personal identifying information that is never appropriate to share when reporting potential causes of a public health emergency

A

Social Security Number

167
Q

The length of time a pharmacy has to report a potential cause of a public health emergency to DHS

A

24 hours

168
Q

The two INCORRECT drug therapy problems specifically noted to be part of the OBRA 90 mandated profile screening

A

Incorrect dose or duration of treatment

169
Q

Along with educational programs and retrospective review, the required element of drug utilization reviews in OBRA 90

A

Prospective review

170
Q

The part of the required prospective DUR that is included in the final check of the prescription before dispensing

A

Screening of the profile for drug therapy problems

171
Q

The type of interaction required in prospective DUR as part of WI law that is not required as part of OBRA 90

A

Drug-food interactions

172
Q

Along with drug-disease contraindications and drug-drug interactions, the other type of interaction that must be screened for as a part of the prospective DUR requirement of OBRA 90

A

Drug-allergy interactions

173
Q

The number of verifications that are required for automated technology product verification validation

A

2500

174
Q

In addition to the prospective DUR and the label requirements and accuracy, the other required component of final check

A

Verification of the drug or device

175
Q

The acceptable quality assay for narrow therapeutic ratio drugs as specified by the FDA

A

95-105%

176
Q

Uniquely for extended release products compared to other oral dosage forms, an attribute that does not need to be identical for the products to be therapeutic equivalents

A

The extended release mechanism

177
Q

The pharmaceutical term for drug products that are identical in dosage form, route of administration, drug amount, and active drug ingredient

A

Pharmaceutical equivalents

178
Q

The term for a drug having less than a 2-fold difference between the median lethal dose (LD50) and the median effective dose (ED50)

A

Narrow therapeutic index

179
Q

The required color of a therapeutic equivalent when the reference drug product is pink

A

None

180
Q

The pharmaceutical term for drug products that are identical therapeutic moieties but can be different salt/ester forms

A

Pharmaceutical alternatives

181
Q

The term for a biological product that can be substituted for a reference product with permission from the prescriber and the patient

A

biosimilar

182
Q

The persons who must agree that a prescription can be dispensed with a B rated, lower-cost generic drug product when a prescription is written for the brand product

A

The patient and the prescriber

183
Q

A method of indicating no substitutions on the face of the prescription that is specifically forbidden in the law

A

Pre-printed on the prescription

184
Q

The specific portion of the definition of pharmacy practice that serves as an alternative to a hospital having to adhere to generic substitution laws

A

Therapeutic alternative drug selection

185
Q

An acceptable short-hand notation under the law that would indicate that a prescriber is not allowing an otherwise acceptable generic substitution

A

NS

186
Q

The term for a biological product that can be substituted for a reference product without an intervention from the prescriber

A

Interchangeable

187
Q

The person who has the final decision on whether to use a B-rated, lower-cost biological product when a prescription is written for the brand product

A

The prescriber and the patient

188
Q

The Orange Book rating of a drug product that is therapeutically equivalent to a different drug product rated AB3

A

AB3

189
Q

The Orange Book rating of a drug product that is therapeutically equivalent to a different drug product rated BD

A

None

190
Q

The rating required to use a different biological product for a prescribed biological product without a prescriber approval, assuming the patient is agreeable

A

I rated

191
Q

The letter and position of the letter that designates bioequivalence in The Orange Book

A

A in the first position

192
Q

The person who has the final decision on whether to use a I-rated, lower-cost biological product when a prescription is written for the brand product

A

Patient

193
Q

The rating required to use a different drug product for a prescribed brand product that is AB3 rated without a prescriber approval, assuming the patient is agreeable

A

AB3

194
Q

The law that established the abbreviated new drug application with the goal of lowering medication costs by increasing generic drug options

A

Hatch-Waxman Amendment
Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act

195
Q

The person who has the final decision on whether to use an A rated, lower-cost generic drug product when a prescription is written for the brand product

A

The patient

196
Q

The person who shall select the drug products purchased for subsequent sale and dispensing at a pharmacy

A

Any pharmacist employed at the pharmacy

197
Q

The item that a patient may request be added to a prescription label for dispensing

A

Symptom/purpose/indication

198
Q

Along with special storage conditions if required and the drug name, strength, and dosage form, the required element on a label for a prescribed drug product in an institutional facility that will be administered by a health care provider

A

The BUD

199
Q

The exception to when the label for dispensing of a compounded drug product must include an indication that the preparation is compounded

A

When it is administered by healthcare personnel

200
Q

The information about the pharmacy that is required on a dispensed prescription label in Wisconsin that is not a federal requirement

A

Phone number

201
Q

The proper method of listing the name of a pet on a prescription label for dispensing

A

First name, species of animal, last name

202
Q

The symbol, as defined by federal law, that must not appear on all labeling of an over-the-counter drug at all times prior to dispensing

A

RX

203
Q

The law that changed label requirements for dispensed prescriptions relative to the label requirements of manufacturers and distributors for prescription drugs

A

Durham-Humphrey Amendment

204
Q

The symbol, as defined by federal law, that must appear on all labeling of drug that requires a prescription at all times prior to dispensing

A

RX

205
Q

The setting where the label requirements from Phar 7.05 typically do not apply

A

The hospital (institutional) setting

206
Q

The words or initials that may be substituted for a patient name when an antimicrobial drug is dispensed to treat the partner of a patient with a sexually transmitted infection

A

EPT (Expedited partner therapy)

207
Q

The drug products whose dispensing labels must include the statement: Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed

A

C2-4

208
Q

The situation that allows the statement “Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed” to be omitted from a label for dispensing when it would be otherwise required

A

The product is dispensed as part of a blinded clincial investigation

209
Q

For C-III, IV, and V prescriptions administered in an inpatient setting by a healthcare provider, the limitations on dispensing before the label would be required to adhere to the standard labeling for dispensing requirements for C-III, IV, and V controlled substances

A

34 day supply or 100 dosage units, whichever is less

210
Q

For a C-II prescription administered in an inpatient setting by a healthcare provider, the number of days supply that can be dispensed before the label would be required to adhere to the standard labeling for dispensing requirements for C-IIs

A

7 days and cannot be in patient possesion

211
Q

The specific legal name of packaging that is expected by the PPPA to be child-resistant

A

Special packaging or complying package

212
Q

The amount of elemental iron that requires complying packaging based on the PPPA

A

250mg in the entire package

213
Q

The persons who may request the use of noncomplying packaging for a drug dispensed pursuant to a prescription order

A

The patient and prescriber

214
Q

The law enforced by the Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC) that impacts almost all prescription drug packaging

A

Poison Prevention Act

215
Q

In addition to labeling with the statement THIS PACKAGE FOR HOUSEHOLDS WITHOUT YOUNG CHILDREN or PACKAGE NOT CHILD-RESISTANT, the conditions by which a manufacturer may sell a household substance in noncomplying packaging

A

When there is only one size in noncomplying packaging and that same size is also available in complying packaging

216
Q

The specific age range of children tested in the PPPA complying special packaging tests

A

42-51 months old

217
Q

The lengths of time that adults have to pass the PPPA test for opening and closing complying special packaging

A

5 and 1 minute

218
Q

Along with dermatological and dentifrice, these products that are exempt from tamper-evident packaging requirements

A

Insulin and lozenges

219
Q

The legal requirement of the documentation of a patient requesting noncomplying packaging

A

None

220
Q

For the PPA, the passing percents of children subjects who could not access drugs from complying special packaging in 10 minutes without and with demonstration

A

85% with demonstration and 80% without

221
Q

The number of times that special packaging may be reused as specified in the PPPA (21 CFR 1700.15)

A

none

222
Q

The legal term for a drug product that was not made following expected good manufacturing practices?

A

Pharmacy Law (1 decks)

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