law Flashcards
You attend the scene of a major traffic crash involving a heavy vehicle. The heavy vehicle has sustained damage in the crash which you reasonably believe is not an imminent and serious safety risk. You may:
A. issue a minor defect notice to the driver of the heavy vehicle.
B. issue a major defect notice to the driver of the heavy vehicle.
C. issue a minor repair notice to the driver of the heavy vehicle.
D. issue a major repair notice to the driver of the heavy vehicle.
A. issue a minor defect notice to the driver of the heavy vehicle
You attend the scene of an apparent death at which the ambulance is also present. Unless special circumstances exist, ambulance officers will NOT transport bodies if:
A. they believe resuscitation procedures should continue.
B. they become aware the deceased has agreed to donate organs or other body tissues.
C. sudden death has occurred and the body is in public view.
D. death occurred more than 24 hours prior.
D. death occurred more than 24 hours prior
You are the OIC of a ‘Found property’ matter and have made all reasonable enquiries to locate the owner without success. The finder wanted to claim the property if this was the case. To facilitate the finder’s claim, you must:
A. complete a note in the relevant EFIMS record authorizing the release of the property to the finder.
B. print a copy of the relevant EFIMS receipt and send it to the finder to enable a claim to be made.
C. print a P91E form and send it through your commander to the finder who must present the form to collect the property.
D. inform the finder to submit a written claim to your commander.
C. print a P91E form and send it through your commander to the finder who must present the form to collect the property.
When a person executing a search warrant issued under LEPRA seizes a thing, the person shall, if the occupier of the premises is then present in or on the premises and it is reasonably practical to do so, provide the occupier with a:
A. copy of the NSWPF Search Warrant SOPs.
B. copy of the search warrant application.
C. signed receipt for anything seized.
D. copy of the search warrant.
C. signed receipt for anything seized
During the first two or three hours of detention, a person affected by alcohol or drugs should be woken and spoken to. This is to assess their sobriety and review the level of risk. This should be done at least every.
every 30 minutes.
every 30 minutes
It is NOT an offence for a young person who is in the company of a responsible adult to:
A. drink alcohol in a bar area of an hotel.
B. drink alcohol in an area of the hotel authorised for minors.
C. be present in an area of the hotel authorised for minors.
D. use an amusement device in a bar area of an hotel.
C. be present in an area of the hotel authorised for minors
You attempt to investigate a complaint of offensive noise emitted from premises within the previous 7 days but are denied entry. After obtaining a warrant and entering the premises, you have the power to require the occupier or a person causing/contributing to the making of the noise to furnish:
A. their name only.
B. their name and address.
C. their name and telephone number.
D. any information necessary to investigate the complaint.
B. their name and address
Unless otherwise ordered by the Court, a warrant to arrest a person issued under the Family Law Act cannot be executed after a certain period of time unless the Court orders otherwise. The period of time is
6 months
6 months
A coroner does not have jurisdiction to hold an inquest concerning a death or suspected death unless it appears to the coroner that the circumstances meet one or more of the criteria set out in s 18 of the Coroners Act 2009. Of the following, which is NOT one of that criteria?
A. The remains of the person are in NSW.
B. The death or suspected death or the cause of the death or suspected death occurred in NSW.
C. The death or suspected death occurred outside NSW and, although the person did not reside in NSW, was born in NSW.
D. The death or suspected death occurred outside NSW but the person had sufficient connection with NSW.
C. The death or suspected death occurred outside NSW and, although the person did not reside in NSW, was born in NSW.
Unless it is withdrawn sooner by the issuing magistrate or extended or it has been executed, if no time of expiry is specified in a search warrant issued under LEPRA (other than a telephone warrant, a covert search warrant or a criminal organisation search warrant), the warrant expires
A. 12 hours after its issue.
B. 24 hours after its issue.
C. 48 hours after its issue.
D. 72 hours after its issue.
D. 72 hours after its issue.
An application to vary or revoke a final apprehended violence order can only be made by certain people. Of the following, who is NOT permitted to make such an application?
A. A police officer.
B. The protected person.
C. A friend of the protected person.
D. The defendant.
C. A friend of the protected person.
The power to take particulars (photograph, fingerprints and palm prints) necessary to identify a person over the age of 14 years who is in lawful custody for any offence is found in:
(a) the NSW Police Force Handbook - Fingerprints.
(b) the Common law.
(c) s 133 of LEPRA.
(d) s 76 of the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000.
s 133 of LEPRA
Police have lawfully gained entry into a dwelling to investigate a domestic violence complaint. By virtue of s 85 of LEPRA they:
A. may search for firearms or other weapons.
B. must inquire as to the presence of firearms in the dwelling.
C. may search the house for any prohibited weapon/s.
D. may not search for any firearm/s.
B. must inquire as to the presence of firearms in the dwelling
When a drug, which is not less than the trafficable quantity, is in police possession it is to be taken to an analyst for analysis as soon as practicable after coming into police possession no later than:
A. 7 days.
B. 14 days.
C. 21 days.
D. 28 days
B. 14 days
A police officer who obtains a search warrant is to furnish a report in writing to the issuing magistrate setting out certain information. The report is to be submitted within a certain time period of the warrant being executed, or its expiration. The specified time period is:
A. 5 days.
B. 7 days.
C. 10 days.
D. 14 days.
C. 10 days
Under the Protection of the Environment Operations Act 1997 a noise abatement direction remains in force for:
A. 7 days unless otherwise stated.
B. 5 days unless otherwise stated.
C. 14 days unless otherwise stated.
D. 28 days unless otherwise stated.
D. 28 days unless otherwise stated
For the purposes of issuing a Child Alert, a child is classified as being: A. under 18 years old. B. 16 years old or younger. C. 14 years old or younger. D. 10 years old or younger.
B. 16 years old or younger.
An Hotel License applies to licensed premises where liquor is sold and supplied for consumption:
(a) off the premises only.
(b) on the premises only.
(c) on or away from the premises.
(d) on the premises of a registered club.
on or away from the premises
Which of the following is not a prohibited weapon under the Weapons Prohibition Act 1998?
(a) A butterfly knife.
(b) A samurai sword.
(c) A walking stick containing a sword.
(d) A studded glove.
A samurai sword
The length of a motor vehicle (other than an articulated vehicle, a bus or a trailer) must not exceed:
(a) 10 metres.
(b) 11.5 metres.
(c) 12.5 metres.
(d) 14 metres.
12.5 metres
When a certificate as to cause of death has been issued and the body is not otherwise required to be conveyed to the morgue, transportation of the body should be arranged by:
(a) the attending police officers.
(b) the relatives or friends of the deceased.
(c) the Coroner.
(d) the Government Medical Officer.
the relatives or friends of the deceased
When serving a Court Attendance Notice on an accused who is an inmate of a correctional centre, the notice should be served on:
(a) the inmate.
(b) any corrective services officer of or above the rank of Assistant Superintendent.
(c) any corrective services officer who at that time is in
charge of the unit or wing where the inmate is held.
(d) the general manager of the correctional centre.
(d) all of the above.
the general manager of the correctional centre
If you are unable to serve the respondent copy of an application notice after taking all reasonable steps to do so, what action could be taken?
(a) Assign a new court date.
(b) Apply for substituted service.
(c) Apply to file the Application notice unserved in the court registry.
(d) All the above.
All the above
Your LAC intelligence officer tells you that, based on a number of intelligence reports, a person is suspected of selling stolen property from a house in your LAC. You attend the house in order to make inquiries. You would be lawfully entitled to enter the house:
(a) pursuant to your common law powers.
(b) by virtue of a search warrant.
(c) after announcing your office and reason for seeking entry.
(d) with the informed consent of an authorised justice.
by virtue of a search warrant
Except for a telephone search warrant, an application for a search warrant under LEPRA must be made:
(a) orally to an eligible issuing officer.
(b) in writing and in person to an eligible issuing officer.
(c) orally to any Justice of the Peace.
(d) in writing and in person to any Justice of the Peace.
in writing and in person to an eligible issuing officer
Offences under the Firearms Act 1996 may be dealt with in a summary manner before the Local Court if the court attendance notice was issued within:
(a) 6 months of the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed.
(b) 12 months of the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed.
(c) 2 years of the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed.
(d) 18 months of the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed.
2 years of the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed
Police are called to a shopping centre in relation to a domestic violence assault involving a woman and her adult daughter. During the course of enquiries, police are told that the woman has a firearm at the family home. In relation to the woman’s firearm, police:
(a) can search the woman’s home for the firearm without a search warrant or the woman’s consent.
(b) cannot search the woman’s home as the assault did not occur there.
(c) must apply for a search warrant.
(d) can search the woman’s home without a search warrant ONLY if she is the holder of a current NSW Firearms Licence.
must apply for a search warrant
At the conclusion of your investigations into a domestic violence offence you apply for an interim AVO against the holder of a licence authorising them to possess a firearm. In accordance with Section 23 of the Firearms Act 1996, this licence must be suspended and confiscated. The licence is suspended until:
(a) the order is served upon the person.
(b) the order is confirmed or revoked.
(c) the appeal period of 21 days has expired.
(d) the expiration of a 72 hour ‘cooling off’ period.
the order is confirmed or revoked
The Protection of the Environment Operations regulations sets out times during which certain articles may generally be used. The times during which musical instruments or electrically amplified sound equipment may be used on a Friday or Saturday is:
(a) 8am-Midnight.
(b) 6am-Midnight.
(c) 9am-11pm.
(d) 7am-11pm.
8am-Midnight
The Cannabis Cautioning Scheme covers offences involving:
(a) all forms of cannabis and it’s derivatives.
(b) all synthetic forms of cannabis only.
(c) equipment for administering cannabis only.
(d) dried cannabis leaf, stalks, heads, and equipment for administration.
dried cannabis leaf, stalks, heads, and equipment for administration
While on patrol you stop a motor vehicle fitted with diplomatic plates that is being driven erratically. The driver produces identification confirming he is a diplomatic agent. You suspect he is intoxicated but he refuses to submit to a breath test. You would:
(a) inform the driver it is an offence to refuse the test and repeat your request until he complies.
(b) make whatever arrangements are necessary and appropriate in the interest of road safety.
(c) inform the driver he will be arrested for refusing the breath test if he does not comply.
(d) arrest the driver and take him to the police station for the purpose of a breath analysis
make whatever arrangements are necessary and appropriate in the interest of road safety.
When commencing a search of a room in response to a bomb threat, you should search first:
(a) from floor level to waist height.
(b) from floor level to head height.
(c) from floor to ceiling.
(d) from ceiling to floor.
from floor level to waist height
What priority level would you classify a suspicious substance incident involving an actual threat or risk to the health and safety of a high-profile person?
(a) Green.
(b) Blue.
(c) Red.
(d) White.
Red
You have witnessed an adult consuming alcohol in a current alcohol free zone. As a police officer you may:
(a) Seize any alcohol and dispose of it immediately.
(b) Issue a penalty notice.
(c) Issue a caution and seize the alcohol.
(d) Warn the person that drinking in an alcohol free zone is not an offence.
Seize any alcohol and dispose of it immediately
A bar area of a hotel is?
(a) Any part of the inside of a hotel.
(b) A part of the premises where liquor is sold and supplied for consumption on the premises with exceptions.
(c) A part of the premises where liquor is supplied to lodgers or inmates only.
(d) A part of the premises where liquor is sold in a dining room where meals are served.
Any part of the inside of a hotel
Under s 86 of the Liquor Act 2007, a Local Court may order a licensee to close a licensed premises if they are satisfied that there is, or likely to be, a breach of peace in the neighbourhood or the premises. Who can apply to the Local Court for the order?
(a) a police officer of or above the rank of sergeant.
(b) an authorised inspector under the Act.
(c) any police officer.
(d) any person.
any person
Within how many days after the seizure of a dangerous article does the person from whom it was seized or its owner have to apply for its return?
(a) 7 days. (b) 14 days. (c) 28 days. (d) 60 days
28 days
The safeguards set out in Part 15 of LEPRA must be applied:
(a) at your discretion.
(b) any time you exercise a power referred to in s.201 of LEPRA.
(c) ONLY when exercising a power in a private place.
(d) ONLY when exercising a power in a public place.
any time you exercise a power referred to in s.201 of LEPRA
You attend a domestic violence incident where the victim informs you her partner is growing cannabis in the backyard. Her partner is present and hears this. You walk outside and locate three cannabis plants. Does the victim meet the definition of a Human Source?
(a) Yes, the victim has provided credible information about a crime.
(b) No, as there is no need to protect this person’s identity.
(c) Yes, as the victim might be a source of other criminal intelligence.
(d) No, as the victim is obviously complicit in the crime.
No, as there is no need to protect this person’s identity
Section 93Y of the Crimes Act 1900 sets out certain circumstances that may be a statutory defence for the offence of Consorting. Which of the following is NOT a statutory defence to consorting?
Socialising with close associates
Socialising with close associates
A police officer who requires a person to remove any face covering worn by the person pursuant to s 19A of LEPRA must, as far as reasonably practicable, ensure certain procedures are followed. Of the following, which is NOT one of those procedures?
(a) Ask for the person’s co-operation.
(b) Conduct the viewing in a way that provides reasonable privacy for the person if the person requests privacy.
(c) Conduct the viewing in the presence of a support person if the person requests a support person to be present.
(d) Conduct the viewing as quickly as is reasonably practicable.
Conduct the viewing in the presence of a support person if the person requests a support person to be present.
There are three tiers of consultation that underpin the Aboriginal Strategic Direction 2012 - 2017. Of the following, which is NOT one of those tiers?
(a) Police Aboriginal Consultative Committee (PACC).
(b) Aboriginal Strategic Direction Steering Committee (ASDSC).
(c) Police Aboriginal Strategic Advisory Council (PASAC).
(d) Aboriginal Issues Forum (AIF).
Aboriginal Issues Forum (AIF).
A person walking along a footpath is stabbed during a failed robbery attempt. He staggers into the driveway of a residence, collapses and dies. You attend and commence abolishing a crime scene. The owner arrives and tells you to remove the body immediately. Can you remain?
(a) Yes, providing you comply with Part 7 of LEPRA.
(b) Yes, if you comply with Part 3.4 of the Coroners Act 2009.
(c) Yes, if you comply with Part 9 of LEPRA.
(d) Yes, if you comply with s 230 of LEPRA.
Yes, providing you comply with Part 7 of LEPRA
3247 Police may search an aircraft pursuant to s 42 of LEPRA and seize things without warrant if they suspect on reasonable grounds that which of the following exists?
(a) The aircraft contains, or a person in the aircraft has in his or her possession/control anything lawfully obtained.
(b) The aircraft contains, or a person in the aircraft has in his or her possession/control anything not stolen.
(c) The aircraft is being or was used in or in connection with the commission of any offence.
(d) The aircraft is being or was used in or in connection with the commission of a relevant offence.
The aircraft contains, or a person in the aircraft has in his or her possession/control anything lawfully obtained.
You become aware of a registrable person residing in your LAC who is not reporting. You make certain enquiries and learn the sentencing court failed to inform the person of their obligations or issue the required notices. The person is neither a flight risk nor hiding from police. You would:
(a) notify the sentencing court of the error.
(b) prepare and serve an application notice to place the registrable person before the sentencing court
.
(c) prepare and serve an application notice to place the registrable person before the Local Court
.
(d) prepare and serve the required notices on the registrable person
prepare and serve the required notices on the registrable person
The guidelines for assessing whether an unattended item is suspicious uses the acronym ‘HOT ALERTS’. What does ‘RT’ stand for?
(a) Receipt of Threat. (b) Recognition of Threat.
(c) Removal of Threat. (d) Rejection of Threat.
Receipt of Threat
The power of a police officer to issue a move on direction to an intoxicated person in a public place comes from:
(a) s 197 of LEPRA.
(b) s 276 of the Protection of the Environment Operations Act 1997.
(c) s 198 of LEPRA.
(d) s 28F of the Summary Offences Act 1988.
s 198 of LEPRA
You attend a residence in relation to a domestic violence incident where a 14-year-old boy assaulted his mother by slapping her face. He admits the offence and has no prior history of violence. You would:
(a) issue a Court Attendance Notice as the offence is not covered by the Young Offenders Act 1997.
(b) issue a warning for the offence in accordance with Part 3 of the Young Offenders Act 1997
.
(c) recommend to an SYO that the matter be dealt with by way of a caution/conference under the Young Offenders Act 1997.
(d) with the consent of the boy’s mother, you would record the incident such that the Young Offenders Act 1997 would apply.
recommend to an SYO that the matter be dealt with by way of a caution/conference under the Young Offenders Act 1997.
Unless otherwise exempted, the holder of a Class 1 or Class 2 security licence must at all times while carrying on a security activity:
(a) carry a baton, handcuffs and, if licensed to do so, an approved firearm registered to his or her employer.
(b) carry an approved communication device that enables the licence holder to call for assistance at any time.
(c) wear on his or her person their original security licence so that it is clearly visible.
(d) wear an approved tracking device capable of monitoring the whereabouts of the licence holder at any time.
wear on his or her person their original security licence so that it is clearly visible
The guidelines for assessing whether an unattended item is suspicious uses the acronym ‘HOT ALERTS’. What does ‘HOT’ stand for?
(a) Hidden, Obvious, Tampered.
(b) Hidden, Obvious, Typical.
(c) Hidden, Obvious, Ticking.
(d) Hidden, Obvious, Threat
Hidden, Obvious, Typical
The guidelines for assessing whether an unattended item is suspicious uses the acronym ‘HOT ALERTS’. What does ‘ALE’ stand for?
(a) Alert Level Eradicated. (b) Alert Level Escalated.
(c) Alert Level Eliminated. (d) Alert Level Elevated.
Alert Level Elevated
A Police Aboriginal Consultative Committee (PACC) is the first tier of the advisory bodies within the NSWPF Aboriginal Strategic Direction 2012-2017. PACCs are established within a LAC specifically to address aboriginal issues associated with:
(a) crime and crime prevention.
(b) police recruitment.
(c) aboriginal customary law.
(d) culture and sensitivities
crime and crime prevention
You have an arrest warrant in your possession for a person. You attend the person’s residence but he refuses to let you in. You may enter the premises to effect the arrest:
(a) without the person’s consent.
(b) only with the person’s consent.
(c) only with the consent of any other lawful occupier. (d) only if the warrant is endorsed to allow entry.
without the person’s consent
Section 138 of LEPRA authorises a medical practitioner to examine a person in lawful custody who has been charged with an offence, on the request of a police officer of or above the rank of Sergeant. This medical examination is for:
(a) the purpose of obtaining evidence as to the commission of the offence.
(b) the purpose of obtaining a medical background of the offender.
(c) determining the person’s approximate level of sobriety at the time of the offence.
(d) determining whether the person is capable of participating in any investigative procedure
the purpose of obtaining evidence as to the commission of the offence
You attend premises in relation to a noise complaint and, after investigating the matter, issue a noise abatement direction. This direction will remain in force for up to:
(a) 8 hours from the time it is given.
(b) 7 days from the time it is given.
(c) 26 days from the time it is given.
(d) 28 days from the time it is given.
28 days from the time it is given
CAT Q700
Under the provisions of the Liquor Act, a ‘packaged liquor licence’ defines premises where liquor:
(a) sold and supplied for consumption on the premises.
(b) sold to customers away from the licensed premises.
(c) sold and supplied for consumption away from the licensed premises.
(d) sold to customers on the premises but not in the bar area.
sold and supplied for consumption away from the licensed premises
s 11A of the Summary Offences Act 1988 sets out that a certain number of people who are together and who use or threaten unlawful violence commit an offence of violent disorder. The number of people who must be present is:
(a) 2 or more.
(b) 3 or more.
(c) 5 or more.
(d) 12 or more.
3 or more
Which of the following is a non-intimate forensic procedure?
a self-administered buccal swab,
a self-administered buccal swab
Under the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000, the time limit for carrying out a forensic procedure on a suspect not under arrest is?
(a) As quickly as possible but within 4 hours after the suspect presents himself or herself including any time out.
(b) As quickly as possible but within 4 hours after the suspect presents himself or herself excluding any time out.
(c) As quickly as possible but within 2 hours after the suspect presents himself or herself including any time out.
(d) As quickly as possible but within 2 hours after the suspect presents himself or herself excluding any time out.
(d) As quickly as possible but within 2 hours after the suspect presents himself or herself excluding any time out.
What firearm part from the list below needs to be registered?
(a) Firearm frame.
(b) Sights.
(c) Trigger mechanism.
(d) Magazine spring
Firearm frame.
Briefs of evidence for matters prosecuted by the DPP must be checked by:
(a) the Brief Manager (or prosecutor at Practice Management Model LACs).
(b) the instructing solicitor for the DPP.
(c) the case officer for the DPP for the particular matter.
(d) the Crown prosecutor for the DPP.
the Brief Manager (or prosecutor at Practice Management Model LACs).
What MUST the NSW Police Force do when attending all suspicious substance incidents classified as either RED (High Risk) or BLUE (Medium Risk)?
The NSWPF must investigate the incident and initiate Disaster Victim Registration (DVR).
The NSWPF must investigate the incident and initiate Disaster Victim Registration (DVR).
Are you required to comply with the safeguards pursuant to Part 15 of LEPRA when conducting a knife search of a student at the student’s school?
(a) No, Part 15 only applies when exercising powers in a public place
.
(b) No, but ONLY if the search is conducted in the presence of an adult nominated by the student.
(c) Yes, you must always comply with the safeguards.
(d) Yes, but ONLY if you reasonably suspect the student does not comprehend the reason for the search.
Yes, you must always comply with the safeguards
A Critical incident may arise where a person dies or is seriously injured in an incident involving a level of police interaction. Which of the following statements IS NOT correct procedure following a critical incident?
(a) A Region Commander/specialist Commander equivalent is responsible for authorising public statements.
(b) The Police Media Unit should provide the media with basic approved facts.
(c) The Coroner is the only authority that should make comment in regards to a critical incident.
(d) During the investigation phase, the Region Commander or equivalent is responsible for authorising public statements.
(b) The Police Media Unit should provide the media with basic approved facts.
1989 allows police to seize and hold property which may then be forfeited to the Crown upon conviction. There are three types of confiscation orders: Forfeiture Orders, Drug Proceeds Orders and Pecuniary Penalty Orders. What is the relevant period in which these orders can be applied for?
(a) Within 12 months of conviction.
(b) Within 18 months of conviction.
(c) Within six months of conviction.
(d) Within 2 years of conviction.
Within six months of conviction.
CAT Q3363 Before taking an exhibit to a forensic service provider, you should:
(a) Record the details in your official police notebook and have the shift supervisor sign the entry.
(b) Create an ‘OCCURRENCE ONLY’ event in WebCOPS.
(c) Record the movement as a transaction in EFIMS.
(d) Notify your Commander via email.
Record the movement as a transaction in EFIMS
Section 5 of the State Emergency and Rescue Management Act 1989 lists the four stages of an emergency as:
(a) prevention, preparation, response and relief.
(b) prevention, preparation, response and recovery.
(c) prevention, preparation, response and retreat.
(d) prevention, preparation, response and reclamation.
prevention, preparation, response and recovery
There are 6 main functions within the Incident Command and Control System (ICCS) model. These are: Planning, Operations, Administration & Logistics, Investigations, Intelligence and:
(a) Public Interaction
(b) Public Intervention.
(c) Public Interest.
(d) Public Information.
(d) Public Information
A declarable association exists when a NSW Police Force employee is associated with certain persons, groups or organisations who are engaged in activities incompatible with the NSW Police Force. These activities are UNLIKELY to include:
(a) regular use of illicit drugs.
(b) membership of an Outlaw Motorcycle Gang (OMG).
(c) membership of a registered political party.
(d) a close relationship of a police officer who is currently suspended.
(c) membership of a registered political party.
While talking to a man at the front door of his residence, you see a box of ammunition on a shelf in the hallway. You know the man is subject of a Firearms Prohibition Order. You would:
(a) seek the man’s consent to enter the premises to search for firearms, firearm parts, or ammunition.
(b) enter the premises pursuant to s 74A of the Firearms Act 1996 to search for firearms, firearm parts, or ammunition.
(c) declare the premises a crime scene, then enter to search for firearms, firearm parts, or ammunition.
(d) photograph the box of ammunition from where you are and use the photograph to support a search warrant application.
enter the premises pursuant to s 74A of the Firearms Act 1996 to search for firearms, firearm parts, or ammunition.
When carrying out a search of a person authorised under LEPRA, if reasonably practicable in the circumstances, you must ask for the person’s:
(a) in public view.
(b) affected by an intoxicating liquor or drug.
(c) being questioned.
(d) uncooperative
uncooperative
Briefs of Evidence containing sensitive evidence must NOT be served on the accused person. Instead, police must:
(a) supply the material to the court registry.
(b) ensure any sensitive evidence is censored before the brief is served.
(c) serve the brief ONLY on a legal practitioner acting on behalf of the accused person.
(d) serve on the accused person a sensitive evidence notice.
serve on the accused person a sensitive evidence notice
Q1165 You investigate a death and locate a suicide note at the scene. You later receive a request from the next of kin for a copy of the note. You would:
(a) provide the next of kin with a copy of the suicide note.
(b) advise the next of kin to contact the Crime Manager.
(c) advise the next of kin to contact the Coroner.
(d) advise the next of kin to contact the Local Area Commander.
advise the next of kin to contact the Coroner.
Q3219 The investigation period begins when a person is arrested and ends at a time that is reasonable having regard to all the circumstances (not exceeding the maximum investigation period). Of the following, which circumstance would NOT be taken into account when determining a reasonable time?
(a) The number, seriousness and complexity of the offences under investigation.
(b) The time taken for police involved in the investigation to partake in a meal break as per the Award.
(c) Whether the person has indicated a willingness to make a statement or to answer any questions.
(d) The number and availability of other persons who need to be questioned or from whom statements need to be obtained.
(b) The time taken for police involved in the investigation to partake in a meal break as per the Award.
A request for a media ‘blackout’ can only be made in exceptional circumstances, usually where there is a risk to life. Such requests are generally made at Assistant Commissioner level. In the event of a siege, who else may make such a request?
(a) A duty officer.
(b) Any officer of the rank of sergeant or above.
(c) The most senior police officer at the scene.
(d) The operational commander or senior police negotiator.
The operational commander or senior police negotiator
Q.3277 The Code of Conduct and Ethics contains how many points?
(a) 6. (b) 8. (c) 10. (d) 22
(c) 10
Q 3010 A police officer must inform a suspect of a number of matters before a suspect can consent to a forensic procedure. Of the following, which is NOT one of those matters?
(a) The purpose for which the forensic procedure is required.
(b) The offence in relation to which the police officer wants the forensic procedure carried out.
(c) The way in which the forensic procedure is to be carried out.
(d) The time it will take to carry out the procedure
The time it will take to carry out the procedure
To determine if an unattended item is suspicious you apply ‘Get the FACTS’. FACTS is an acronym for the three steps involved. What does ‘F’ stand for?
(a) Find the object.
(b) Find the opening.
(c) Find the owner.
(d) Find the origin.
Find the owner
Q 898 You lawfully search an offender in a public place and locate a detonator. The offender has no reasonable excuse for possessing the detonator. The appropriate offence is:
(a) Goods in custody - s 527C Crimes Act 1900.
(b) Possession of dangerous articles other than firearms - s 93FB Crimes Act 1900.
(c) Larceny - s 117 Crimes Act 1900.
(d) Possess explosive - s 93FA Crimes Act 1900.
Possession of dangerous articles other than firearms - s 93FB Crimes Act 1900
Q1643 Under the Liquor Act, the hotel licence allows that the licensed premises to trade from Monday to Saturday inclusive (not being a restricted trading day), without applying for an extension or being permitted under the Act to have extended trading hours are:
(a) 5am to 12 midnight.
(b) 10am to 10pm.
(c) 10am to 12 midnight.
(d) 5am to 10pm.
5am to 12 midnight
Q3036 You reasonably suspect that a person is the ‘Target’ of an Authorisation under the Terrorism (Police Powers) Act 2002. What type of search can be conducted on this person?
(a) Frisk, Ordinary and Strip search.
(b) Frisk search only.
(c) Ordinary search only.
(d) Strip search only.
Frisk, Ordinary and Strip search
Q 1671 A person is not guilty of failing to produce a firearm’s licence to a police officer if the person has a reasonable excuse for not having the licence when the demand is made and they produced it as soon as practicable after the demand was made, but not more than:
(a) 4 hours after the demand for its production is made.
(b) 6 hours after the demand for its production is made.
(c) 8 hours after the demand for its production is made.
(d) 12 hours after the demand for its production is made.
6 hours after the demand for its production is made
Q3089 What priority level would you classify a suspicious substance incident where there is an obvious reason for the presence of the substance, no credible threat or risk has been identified and there are no health effects for persons at the incident site?
(a) Red. (b) Blue. (c) Green. (d) White.
Green
Q 1928 You investigate a domestic violence incident and arrest a man for assaulting his wife. On the date of the subsequent court hearing the wife tells you that she does not wish to give evidence. In this situation the wife:
(a) is compelled to give evidence unless excused by the court.
(b) need not give evidence if she does not wish to do so.
(c) is exempt from giving evidence against her husband.
(d) could only give evidence after gaining legal advice.
is compelled to give evidence unless excused by the court
The mission of the NSW Police Force is to work with the community to reduce:
a ; violence, crime, fear.
b; crime, and the perception of crime.
c ; violent crime and fear.
d; crime and the promotion of crime.
violence, crime, fear.
Mandatory: You are directed by police radio to an address regarding a domestic complaint. Upon arrival you hear a woman screaming “Help me, he is going to kill me!” from inside the house. You attempt to gain entry but it is denied by a male occupant. You would:
a ; obtain a telephone warrant.
b; set up a command post and establish a perimeter.
c; enter the premises, by force if necessary.
d; seek advice before taking any action.
enter the premises, by force if necessary.
10003298 The guidelines for assessing whether an unattended item is suspicious uses the acronym ‘HOT ALERTS’. What does ‘S’ stand for?
A: Secret location
B: Suspicious location
C; Significant location
D : Sensitive location
Sensitive location
10000153
You have reasonable grounds to suspect that a 12-year-old child, who lives in a nearby house, is in immediate risk of serious harm. You attend the premises but entry is denied. You may enter the premises, search for and remove the child:
A : without warrant, using all reasonable force
B : after first obtaining a warrant to enter the premises
C : only with the permission of the lawful occupier
D ; if invited to enter by the child
without warrant, using all reasonable force
10003503 Mandatory
As the first responder to an active armed offender incident, you are authorised to move beyond the principle of containment and negotiation, and deploy for the purpose of locating the offender(s); restricting access the offender(s) may have to further victims; and:
A ; engaging and neutralising the offender (s) with lethal force
B ; implementing an appropriate resolution option
C ; engaging and neutralising the offender (s) with such force as reasonably necessary
D ; implementing an immediate evacuation plan for the victims once triaged
implementing an appropriate resolution option
You attend the scene of a DV incident where the offender left prior to your arrival. You determine a provisional order is required for the victims protection . As you are driving back to the police station to apply for the order, you locate the offender You may :
A ; direct the offender to accompany you to the police station and remain at the police station
B ; direct the offender to be at a particular place at a particular time for the purposes of serving the order
C ; arrest the offender for the purposes of placing him or her before the court where the application will be made
D ; arrest the offender for Breaching the peace to enable their detention while the application is made
direct the offender to accompany you to the police station and remain at the police station
During the investigation of a Part 8A complaint, the subject officer is entitled to have accorded procedural fairness. One of the key points of procedural fairness is:
A ; giving the subject officer the opportunity to respond to comment on allegations adverse to the officer
B ; disclosing the identity of the complainant to the subject officer
C ; delaying the investigation of a complaint if the subject officer is engaged in the police promotions process
D ; declining an investigation if It will delay or overturn the subject officers’ promotion
giving the subject officer the opportunity to respond to comment on allegations adverse to the officer
By virtue of Section 133 of LEPRA , the power to take fingerprints from a person in lawful custody for an offence is given to:
A ; any police officer
B ; a police officer of or above the rank of Sergeant
C ; a police officer designated as the custody officer
D ; a police officer designated as the custody manger
any police officer
As a general rule, when offered a gift, NSW Police Force employees are expected to:
refuse a gift
The Roads and Maritime Services may suspend the licence of any person, other than a professional driver, who incurs a total of:
13 points
The driver of a heavy vehicle with a GVM over 12 tonnes must carry and produce for inspection when directed to do so by a police officer at least how many portable warning triangles?
Source
3 triangles
A person is arrested for possessing a small quantity of cannabis leaf wrapped in foil. The exhibit should be secured in a:
issue a PAB24 (multi ply paper bag)
Mandatory
Pursuant to s 198 of LEPRA, a police officer may give a direction to an intoxicated person who is in a public place to leave the place and not return for a specified period. What is that period?
A ; 48 hours
B ; 6 hours
C ; 12 hours
D ; 24 hours
6 hours
Mandatory
You attend a dwelling house to investigate a complaint of domestic violence, however, entry is denied. After speaking to neighbours you strongly suspect a domestic violence offence has recently been committed. You would:
A ; enter the premises, by force if necessary
B ; apply for a warrant to continue your investigation
C ; remain at the location but outside the property’s boundary to prevent a breach of the peace
D ; remain at the location but outside the property’s boundary and attempt to negotiate entry via telephone
apply for a warrant to continue your investigation
To be eligible for a caution under the Cannabis Cautioning Scheme, a person must not have any prior conviction for:
A ; drug offences , sexual offences, or offences involving violence unless the conviction is spent
B ; drug offences , sexual offences, or stealing offences unless the conviction is spent
C; drug offences , sexual offences, or explosives/ fireman offences unless the conviction is spent
D ; drug offences , sexual offences, or fraud offences unless the conviction is spent
drug offences , sexual offences, or offences involving violence unless the conviction is spent
A police officer is lawfully entitled to enter and be upon private premises without the consent of the lawful occupier to:
A ; make inquiries about ay serious indictable offence
B ; make inquires about strictly indictable offence
C ; arrest a person the officer suspects on reasonable ground is at the address
D ; arrest a person the officer believes on reasonable grounds is at the address
arrest a person the officer believes on reasonable grounds is at the address
Section 93X(2) of the Crimes Act 1900 states that a person does not habitually consort with convicted offenders unless:
A ; the person consorts with at least 1 convicted offender on at least 2 occasions
B ; the person consorts with at least 1 convicted offender on at least 3 occasions
C ; the person consorts with at least 2 convicted offenders on at least 2 occasions with each convicted offender
D ; the person consorts with at least 2 convicted offenders on at least 3 occasions with each convicted offender
the person consorts with at least 2 convicted offenders on at least 2 occasions with each convicted offender
In satisfying the element of ‘the property belongs to another’ in Larceny under s117 of the Crimes Act 1900, which of the following is NOT a consideration?
A ; Possession
B ; Custody
C ; Control
D ; Ownership
custody
When compiling a brief of evidence, in addition to the original (master brief), how many copies are required?
A ; two
B ; three
C ; four
D ; five
three
You see a man standing amongst a group of people at a taxi rank smoking a cigarette. As a police officer, you may require the man to
A ; state his name , address and telephone number
B ; state his name, age and telephone number
C ; state his name, age and address
D ; state his name and address
name and address
A number of juveniles found consuming liquor in a public park are spoken to by police. Several unopened cans of beer are confiscated. The person from whom the liquor is confiscated is to be told the name of the police station where the liquor will be taken, and that the liquor will be there for:
A ; a maximum of 6 hours
B ; at least 24 hours
C ; at least 48 hours
D ; a maximum of 28 days
24 hours
You are on your way to a noise complaint when VKG diverts you to a more serious job. In relation to the noise complaint, you would:
A ; attend to it when you are able
B ; arrange for VKG or station officer to contact the complainant to advise about the delay
C ; call the complainant at the end of the shift and ask if the noise is continuing
D ; hand the job over to the on-coming shift
arrange for VKG or station officer to contact the complainant to advise about the delay
s 104 of LEPRA gives a police officer the power to arrest a person reasonably suspected of having committed an interstate offence. Such offence must consist of an act or omission that, if it occurred in NSW, would constitute
A ; be punishable by a term of imprisonment
B ; be punishable by a term of imprisonment or fine
C ; constitute a serious indictable offence
D ; constitute an indictable offence or an offence punishable by imprisonment for 2 years or more
constitute an indictable offence or an offence punishable by imprisonment for 2 years or more
Criminal proceedings for summary matters before the Local Court are commenced by
A ; issuing and filing an application notice
B ; issuing and filling a court attendance noticeoriginal
C : creation of the charge in COPS
D ; acceptance of the charge in COPS
issuing and filling a court attendance notice
The Aboriginal Strategic Direction 2018–2023 has a three-tier system for addressing Aboriginal issues. Of the following, which is NOT one of those tiers?
A; Police Aboriginal Consultative Committee (PACC)
B; Aboriginal Strategic Direction Steering Committee (ASDSC)
C; Police Aboriginal Strategic Advisory Council (PASAC)
D; Police Aboriginal Coordination Team (PACT)
D; Police Aboriginal Coordination Team (PACT)
A person who discharges a firearm in a public place without a reasonable excuse, commits an offence under the provisions of the:
A; Crimes Act 1990
B; Firearms Act 1996
C; Prohibited Weapons Act 1996
D; Common Law
A; Crimes Act 1990
‘A’ borrows a video camera from ‘B’ to film the wedding of ‘C’. He then sells the footage to ‘C’ for a good profit. ‘A’ decides to start a business filming weddings and keeps the video camera. The appropriate offence is:
A; Larceny s117 Crimes Act 2990
B; Larceny as a bailee s125 Crimes Act 1990
C; Fraud s192 Crimes Act 1990
D; Fraudulent appropriation s 124 Crimes Act 1990
D; Fraudulent appropriation s 124 Crimes Act 1990
A police officer who enters premises pursuant to a warrant issued under s 280 of the Protection of the Environment Operations Act 1997 in order to give a noise abatement direction or investigate whether a noise abatement direction has been contravened, may
A; detain any person present at the premises for the purposes of issuing the direction or investigating a contravention
B; direct any person present to leave the premises
C; require the occupier or a person causing or contributing to the noise to furnish their name and address
D; require the occupier or a person causing or contributing to the noise to apologise to the complainants
C; require the occupier or a person causing or contributing to the noise to furnish their name and address
You stop a motor vehicle which has been reported stolen two hours previously. You speak with the driver who informs you that the vehicle was taken for a “joy ride” and the driver was going to leave it on the side of the road after he had finished with it. The appropriate offence is:
A; Steal motor vehicle s154F Crimes Act 1990
B; Stealing s117 Crimes Act 1990
C; Malicious damage by fire s195 (1) (b) Crimes Act 1990
D; Taking a conveyance without consent of owner s154A Crimes Act 1990
D; Taking a conveyance without consent of owner s154A Crimes Act 1990
All operational police may apply to be personally issued with a Covert Light Armour Vest (CLAV). Once issued, it is worn:
A; on duty at all times unless a precondition in the SOPs permits otherwise
B; on duty when a risk assessment does not authorise the carrying or arms and appointments
C; off duty when a risk assessment does not authorise the carrying of arms and appointments
D. at the discretion of the officer to whom it is issued
D. at the discretion of the officer to whom it is issued
A person reports a crash at your police station. Particulars have been exchanged, nobody was injured and no serious traffic offence has been committed. There was no damage to property other than the vehicles involved. One vehicle was towed from the scene. You would:
A; complete a ‘Minor Traffic Crash- Tow Away Only’ entry in WebCOPS (or refer the person to PAL if appropriate)
B; have the person complete a P5 Self-Reporting Collison form
C; record the crash as a message on the General Station Pad only
D; advise the person police no longer take reports of minor traffic crashes even where a vehicle is towed
A; complete a ‘Minor Traffic Crash- Tow Away Only’ entry in WebCOPS (or refer the person to PAL if appropriate)
In a prosecution for the offence of ‘Offensive conduct’ pursuant to s 4 of the Summary Offences Act 1988, it is a sufficient defence if the accused satisfies the court that:
A; he or she had a reasonable excuse for the conduct alleged
B; the offence was not witnessed directly n by police
C; he or she was seriously impaired by intoxicating liquor or a drug or combinations of drugs
D; the conduct was not carried out in the immediate presence of another person or persons
A; he or she had a reasonable excuse for the conduct alleged
Which of the following persons may take a buccal swab?
A ; An appropriately qualified police officer
B; A dental prosthetist
C; A medical practitioner
D; All of the above
D; All of the above
An offender breaks into a house in order to steal any money that can be found. The offender ransacks the premises but leaves without taking anything. The appropriate offence is:
A; Break, enter and steal s112 Crimes Act 1900
B; Break and enter with intent (steal) s113 Crimes Act 1900
C; Attempt Break, enter and steal s112 Crimes Act 1900
D; Attempt steal from dwelling s148 Crimes Act 1900
B; Break and enter with intent (steal) s113 Crimes Act 1900
For the purposes of the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Act 1998, a child is defined as being:
A; under the age of 18 years
B; under the age of 16 yeof their associate ars
C; under the age of 14 years
D; under the age of 10 years
B; under the age of 16 years
To charge a person with Consorting, they must be provided with:
A; an official request not to associate with persons convicted of an indictable offence.
B; an application notice not to associate with persons convicted of an indictable offence.
C; an official warning not to associate with persons convicted of an indictable offence.
D; a copy of their associates criminal history
C; an official warning not to associate with persons convicted of an indictable offence.
You investigate a domestic violence incident and arrest a man for assaulting his wife. On the date of the subsequent court hearing the wife tells you that she does not wish to give evidence. In this situation the wife:
A; is compelled to give evidence unless excused by the court.
B; need not give evidence if she does not wish to do so.
C; is exempt from giving evidence against her husband
D; could only give evidence after gaining legal advice.
A; is compelled to give evidence unless excused by the court.
What is the chain of command when completing either a one-off or ongoing registration of a Human Source?
A; Handler, Senior Supervisor, Controller, Command Registrar and Central Registrar
B; Handler, Controller, Senior Supervisor, Command Registrar and Central Registrar.
C; Handler, Controller, Command Registrar, Senior Supervisor and Central Registrar.
D; Handler, Senior Supervisor, Command Registrar
B; Handler, Controller, Senior Supervisor, Command Registrar and Central Registrar.
Following service of the respondent copy of an application notice made to the Local Court, a copy of the application notice must be filed with the court registry:
A; by the first return date for the application notice.
B; within 5 days of the day it was served.
C; before the first return date for the application notice.
D; within 72 hours of the day on which it was served.
C; before the first return date for the application notice.
You detain a registrable person for the purpose of serving the required notices. You MUST inform the person of the reason for their detention; that the person will be released immediately after the notices have been served; and what else?
A; Their refusal to sign the acknowledgement of having been served with the required notices is an offence
B; Their rights as a person in custody pursuant to Part 9 of LEPRA
C; That their detention is authorised under the Act
D; The official caution
C; That their detention is authorised under the Act
May police report the homelessness of a young person to the Director General, without the young person’s consent?
A. Yes, you have the authority to report the homelessness of all persons under 18 years of age.
B. Yes, but only with the consent of the young persons parent/s or guardian/s (regardless of them being estranged).
C. Yes, but only if the young person has, is or may be committing criminal offences.
D. No, you must obtain the consent of the young person.
D. No, you must obtain the consent of the young person.
A person shall not, without reasonable excuse, have in his or her custody an offensive implement in a public place or a school. Proof of a reasonable excuse lies with the: A. person. B. arresting person. C. prosecutor. D. presiding magistrate or judge.
A. person.
In response to a high risk situation, can the first police on scene request the assistance of the Tactical Operations Unit and Negotiators?
A. No, only the Duty Operations Inspector can.
B. No, only a Region Commander/equivalent can.
C. Yes but only if a person has been seriously injured and is likely to die as a result.
D. Yes, however, advice should be sought wherever possible from a senior officer.
D. Yes, however, advice should be sought wherever possible from a senior officer.
You have been required to open a plastic drug exhibit bag at court during a hearing. After examination, the exhibit and opened bag must be resealed in a new plastic drug exhibit bag. In addition to recording your name and signature on the new seal, who else must also record their name and signature?
A. The police prosecutor or DPP instructing solicitor.
B. The court officer.
C. The magistrate or judge.
D. The defendant or his legal representative.
B. The court officer.
You become aware of a registrable person residing in your LAC who is not reporting. You make certain enquiries and learn the sentencing court failed to inform the person of their obligations or issue the required notices. The person is neither a flight risk nor hiding from police. You would:
A. notify the sentencing court of the error.
B. prepare and serve an application notice to place the registrable person before the sentencing court.
C. prepare and serve an application notice to place the registrable person before the local court.
D. prepare and serve the required notices on the registrable person.
D. prepare and serve the required notices on the registrable person.
A 17-year-old young person attempts to use a forged birth certificate to enter a registered club. The most appropriate offence is found in the: A. Registered Clubs Act 1976 B. Summary Offences Act 1988 C. Liquor Act 2007 D. Young Offenders Act 1997
C. Liquor Act 2007
The holder of a security licence whose licence is lost, stolen, destroyed, defaced, mutilated or becomes
illegible must report the occurrence to police within:
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 7 days
D. 14 days
C. 7 days
An ambulance will remove a deceased when:
A. sudden death has occurred and the body is in public view
B. death occurred more than 24hours previously
C. it is obvious resuscitation will not be successful
D. the deceased is personally known to any person present at the scene
A. sudden death has occurred and the body is in public view
You detect a person drinking alcohol in a designated alcohol-free zone. As a police officer you may:
A. issue a direction to move out of the alcohol free zone
B. seize any alcohol that is in the immediate possession of the person
C. not take any action unless the person is committing some other offence for which you may act
D. obtain the persons name and address as only an enforcement officer of the local government area can take action
B. seize any alcohol that is in the immediate possession of the person
Within how many days after the seizure of a dangerous article does the person from whom it was seized or its owner have to apply for its return? A. 7 days B. 14 days C. 28 days D. 60 days
C. 28 days
You should search the body of a deceased person in the presence of a family member or some other
reliable independent witness (e.g. ambulance officer). If no such person is available, you should conduct
the search in the presence of:
A. any police officer
B. the most senior supervisor available
C. any willing person
D. the local area commander
B. the most senior supervisor available
A firearm seized during a murder investigation is entered in EFIMS as an exhibit. Criminal proceedings inrelation to the matter have been finalized. Who authorizes disposal of the firearm?
A. The presiding judge
B. The magistrate who presided at the committal
C. The local Area Commander (or specialist equivalent)
D. The coroner
D. The coroner
A police officer who obtains a search warrant is to furnish a report in writing to the issuing magistrate
setting out certain information. The report is to be submitted within a certain time period of the warrant
being executed, or its expiration. The specified time period is:
A. 5 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 14 days
C. 10 days
A complaint under Part 8A of the Police Act 1990 must:
A. be made in the presence of and signed by justice of the peace for NSW
B. identify the complainant
C. made in writing
D. be made in person to any commissioned police officer
C. made in writing
A police officer who seizes a thing pursuant to a search warrant must return the thing to the owner or
person who had lawful possession of the thing before it was seized if the officer is satisfied that its retention as evidence is not required and what else?
A. permission to return the thing has been authorized by a police officer of or above the rank of sergeant
B. its lawful for the person to have possession of the thing
C. permission to return the thing has been authorized by police officer of or above the rank of inspector
D. the owner or person who had lawful possession
of the thing before it was seized has requested in writing
B. its lawful for the person to have possession of the thing
A police officer who has reasonable grounds to suspect that another police officer has engaged in police misconduct or serious maladministration is under a duty to report that information in writing to another police officer who is more senior in rank than the police officer with a duty to report (a senior police
officer). The senior police officer must be of or above the rank of:
A. Sergeant
B. Inspector
C. Superintendent
D. Assistant Commissioner
A. Sergeant
s 104 of LEPRA gives a police officer the power to arrest a person who is reasonably suspected of
having committed an offence outside the State of New South Wales. An offence under this section
means an offence that, if it occurred in New South Wales, would:
A. be punishable by a term of imprisonment.
B. be punishable by a term of imprisonment or fine.
C. constitute a serious indictable offence.
D. constitute a indictable offence or an offence punishable by imprisonment for 2 years or more
D. constitute a indictable offence or an offence punishable by imprisonment for 2 years or more
The questions in the Suspect Financial Profile Questionnaire (SFPQ) have been structured to capture
information and/or details on persons of interest under four main categories. Of the following, which is
NOT one of those categories?
A. Personal
B. Associates/Partners/Business
C. Occupation/Activities/Habits
D. Resources
D. Resources
For the purposes of s 9 of the Summary Offences Act 1988, a person is intoxicated if it is reasonable in
the circumstances to believe that the person’s consumption of alcohol or any drug has resulted in:
A. the person being seriously affected.
B. the person’s speech, balance, coordination or behavior being noticeably.
C. the person vomiting.
D. the person singing at the top of their voice at 3am.
B. the person’s speech, balance, coordination or behavior being noticeably.
A woman complains to you that, while she was in a local nightclub, a man approached her from behind,
grabbed her breasts with both hands and began to fondle them for five seconds while rubbing his body
against hers. The offence committed is:
A. Common assault - s 61 Crimes Act 1900
B. Sexual touching - s 61C Crimes Act 1900
C. Sexual act - s 61KE Crimes Act 1900
D. Aggravated sexual assault - s 61J Crimes Act 1900
B. Sexual touching - s 61C Crimes Act 1900
When preparing media releases or planning for media interviews, which of the following is a key corporate police media message?
A. Police are in your community, working hard to address rising crime.
B. Police will encourage personal responsibility but will not be held responsible for careless victims.
C. Crime prevention is our priority.
D. The community’s help to drive down crime is welcome but not essential.
C. Crime prevention is our priority.
Under the Security Industries Act 1997, a Class 1C licence holder authorizes the licensee to do what?
A. Act as a Master licensee.
B. Act as a Security Consultant.
C. Act as a crowd controller or to act in a similar capacity.
D. Install and repair security equipment.
C. Act as a crowd controller or to act in a similar capacity.
Before serving an Early Appropriate Guilty Plea (EAGP) brief of evidence on the ODPP, it must be submitted for review and certification to: A. your supervisor. B. the police prosecutor. C. the court process officer. D. the register of the relevant court.
A. your supervisor.
You arrest a woman pursuant to an arrest warrant issued under s 109B of the Children and Young
Persons (Care and Protection) Act 1998. The woman must , as soon as practicable, be brought before:
A. the Children’s Court, a Children’s Magistrate or a Registrar.
B. the local Court, a Magistrate or a Registrar.
C. the District Court, a Judge of the District Court or a Registrar.
D. the Family Court, a Family Court Magistrate or a Registrar.
A. the Children’s Court, a Children’s Magistrate or a Registrar
Who can apply for a search warrant to enter and search a suspected drug premises?
A. The Officer- in-Charge of a police station.
B. A police officer who is in charge of an investigation.
C. The Local Area Commander ( or specialist equitant)
D. Any officer of or above the rank of Sergeant.
B. A police officer who is in charge of an investigation
Under the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000, who is deemed to be a senior police officer?
A. A police officer of or above the rank of Senior Constable.
B. A police officer of or above the rank of Sergeant
C. Any commissioned police officer.
D. Any police officer with 7 years or more in the New South Wales police force.
B. A police officer of or above the rank of Sergeant
An intoxicated person detained in the cells at a police station is apparently asleep but is also snoring loudly. He or she should be:
A. allowed to continue to sleep.
B. woken and his/her condition observed.
C. assessed by ambulance officers.
D. turned onto his/her side.
B. woken and his/her condition observed.
If you are required to open a multi-ply paper drug bag (PAB24) at court, there are a number of steps you
need to take before doing so. Of the following, which is NOT one of those steps?
A. Warn all present of the likelihood of compositional changes to the substance which may affect their health and safety.
B. Assess the need to use personal protective equipment.
C. Make a record in your police notebook and have the police prosecutor (or ODPP solicitor) endorse the entry.
D. Cut the evidence seal in front of the court officer.
C. Make a record in your police notebook and have the police prosecutor (or ODPP solicitor) endorse the entry.
You attend a residential area and speak to a complainant who is working in his detached garage. He complains that it is well after midnight and he can hear his neighbour’s television. You determine the
sound is not offensive and cannot be heard from inside the complainant’s residence. You would:
A. advise the complainant his neighbor is not breaching any law.
B. issue a noise abatement direction to the neighbor.
C. issue a warning to the neighbor not to cause/permit the continued use of the television in that manner outside gazetted times.
D. refer the matter to the Environment Protection Authority as the ‘appropriate regulatory authority”.
A. advise the complainant his neighbor is not breaching any law.
You attend a residence for the purpose of serving a court attendance notice on a defendant but the
person is not home. You would:
A. leave the notice in the mail box at the address.
B. leave the notice with another occupier at the address.
C. leave the notice with any other occupier at the address who is of or above 18 years of age.
D. make further attempts to serve the notice personally on the defendant.
D. make further attempts to serve the notice personally on the defendant.
Applications under the Criminal Assets Recovery Act 1990 for restraining orders, asset forfeiture orders
and unexplained wealth orders are made to the:
A. NSW Supreme Court
B. Local Court.
C. District Court.
D. Coroner’s Court.
A. NSW Supreme Court
All police dealing with Human Sources will ensure:
A. accurate and complete records are maintained in relation to all NSWPF/Human Source associations.
B. every Human Source is psychologically assessed prior to being registered on the source management system.
C. through enquires are made to establish if the source is in any way related to any police employee at their station.
D. the source is contactable 24/7.
A. accurate and complete records are maintained in relation to all NSWPF/Human Source associations.
