Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Radiation Safety and Protection > Laura Nappi Practice Q's - rad safety related > Flashcards

Laura Nappi Practice Q's - rad safety related Flashcards

1
Q

practice test 1:
3. if the radiation worker is expected to receive _______ of the effective dose, they should be monitored.

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%

A

A. 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

practice test 1:
6. which of the following is NOT a primary component of Cerrobend?

A. lead
B. tin
C. bismuth
D. cerium

A

D. cerium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

practice test 1:
11. what is the tolerance dose of 1/3 of the kidney according to Enami et al.?

A. 2300 cGy
B. 3000 cGy
C. 4500 cGy
D. 5000 cGy

A

A. 2300 cGy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

practice test 1:
14. machines with energy ranges of 50-150 kv are known as:

A. linear accelerators
B. orthovoltage
C. superficial
D. cyclotron

A

C. superficial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

practice test 1:
16. terrestrial radiation is an example of:

A. gamma rays
B. natural background radiation
C. alpha particles
D. beta particles

A

B. natural background radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

practice test 1:
21. if exposed to radiation during the first 10 days of gestation, what is the most common effect?

A. organogenesis
B. microcephaly
C. skeletal abnormalities
D. prenatal death

A

D. prenatal death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

practice test 1:
22. what is true about hand blocks and cast blocks?

A. cast blocks are cut to match the angle of the photon beam to reduce penumbra
B. hand blocks are custom for each patient
C. cast blocks can have 7.5% transmission
D. a positive block shields the periphery of the radiation field

A

A. cast blocks are cut to match the angle of the photon beam to reduce penumbra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

practice test 1:
25. what is the dmax for a 6MV beam?

A. 1.5 cm
B. 2.5 cm
C. 3.0 cm
D. 3.2 cm

A

A. 1.5 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

practice test 1:
27. what device is used to spread the beam of electrons when utilizing electron therapy?

A. bending magnet
B. electron gun
C. scattering foil
D. flattening filter

A

C. scattering foil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

practice test 1:
28. the distance from the source of radiation to the isocenter is known as:

A. source to axis distance
B. source to surface distance
C. central axis
D. source to collimator distance

A

A. source to axis distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

practice test 1:
30. list the following type of radiation in order from LOWEST quality factor to HIGHEST quality factor:

alpha particles
beta particles
neutrons
protons

A. alpha, beta, neutrons, protons
B. protons, neutrons, beta, alpha
C. beta, protons, neutrons, alpha
D. neutrons, alpha, protons, beta

A

C. beta, protons, neutrons, alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

practice test 1:
31. the radiation oncologist wants 100% of the dose to be delivered at the patient’s skin surface. The patient is going to be treated with an energy of 6 MV. What bolus thickness would be required?

A. .5 cm
B. 1 cm
C. 1.5 cm
D. 2 cm

A

C. 1.5 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

practice test 1:
34. the normal tissue tolerance is 12 Gy and lethal tumor dose is 10 Gy. What is the therapeutic ratio?

A. .8
B. 1.2
C. 2.3
D. 3.6

A

B. 1.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

practice test 1:
38. on a dose-response relationship graph, high LET would be represented as:

A. a more rounded curve
B. a slowly declining curve
C. a steep curve
D. a flat horizontal curve

A

C. a steep curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

practice test 1:
39. the amount of time the beam is on is known as:

A. occupancy
B. dose
C. workload
D. use factor

A

C. workload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

practice test 1:
44. 1 Gray is equal to how many Sievert?

A.1 Sv
B. 10 Sv
C. 100 Sv
D. 1000 Sv

A

A.1 Sv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

practice test 1:
46. what is included in the four R’s of biological effectiveness?

A. Regeneration, Redistribution, Repair, Resolve
B. Regeneration, Repopulation, Reoxygenation, Repair
C. Repopulation, Redistribution, Repair, Reoxygenation
D. Repopulation, Regeneration, Repair, Reoxygenation

A

C. Repopulation, Redistribution, Repair, Reoxygenation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

practice test 1:
50. the number of waves that pass-through a given point in a specified amount of time is known as:

A. frequency
B. wavelength
C. speed
D. amplitude

A

A. frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

practice test 1:
54. what type of radiation has a charge, heavy mass, high LET and only travels in one direction?

A. xrays
B. gamma rays
C. alpha particles
D. beta particles

A

C. alpha particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

practice test 1:
57. when the treatment room door is opened while the beam is on, the beam should turn off. When the door is shut again, what should happen?

A. the beam should automatically turn on
B. the patient’s treatment cannot be completed
C. the beam won’t on until the therapist turns the beam on again
D. the treatment must start over again

A

C. the beam won’t on until the therapist turns the beam on again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

practice test 1:
61. what is the most effective way to increase radiation protection?

A. decrease time
B. increase distance
C. increase shielding
D. decrease distance

A

B. increase distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

practice test 1:
62. at least how much bone marrow needs to be in a trt field for bone marrow depletion to occur?

A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%

A

D. 25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

practice test 1:
64. IMRT is possible with use of:

A. Cerrobend blocks
B. compensators
C. wedges
D. MLCs

A

D. MLCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

practice test 1:
65. what is the dmax for a 9 MeV beam?

A. 1.5 cm
B. 2.2 cm
C. 2.8 cm
D. 3.0 cm

A

B. 2.2 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

practice test 1:
66. neutron production can occur in which part of the LINAC?

A. collimating jaws
B. target
C. bending magnet
D. waveguide

A

A. collimating jaws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

practice test 1:
70. if a person could receive 5 gray in 1 hour within 1 meter from a radiation source, the following sign should be visible:

A. radiation area
B. high radiation area
C. very high radiation area
D. caution: radioactive materials

A

C. very high radiation area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

practice test 1:
73. the radiation beam has an intensity of 50 mR/hr at a distance of 20 cm from the source. What is the intensity at 12 cm from the source?

A. 18 mR/hr
B. 30 mR/hr
C. 95 mR/hr
D. 139 mR/hr

A

D. 139 mR/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

practice test 1:
78. all of the following have a quality factor of “1”, EXCEPT:

A. xrays
B. gamma rays
C. beta particles
D. alpha particles

A

D. alpha particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

practice test 1:
79. what are the two most toxic materials in Cerrobend blocks?

A. tin and cadmium
B. lead and bismuth
C. bismuth and tin
D. cadmium and lead

A

D. cadmium and lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

practice test 1:
80. the klystron is located within the:

A. drive stand
B. gantry
C. collimator
D. modulator cabinet

A

A. drive stand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

practice test 1:
85. where is the field size defined:

A. on patient’s skin surface
B. at isocenter
C. in collimator
D. at source of radiation

A

B. at isocenter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

practice test 1:
86. Characteristic xrays are a secondary reaction to which photon interaction?

A. coherent scattering
B. photoelectric effect
C. compton scattering
D. pair production

A

B. photoelectric effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

practice test 1:
90. what is the SI unit for absorbed dose?

A. rad
B. gray
C. sievert
D. rem

A

B. gray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

practice test 1:
93. the oxygen enhancement ratio describes:

A. oxygen enhances survival rates during radiation treatments
B. oxygen helps cells repair while radiation is being delivered
C. oxygen makes a cell more sensitive to radiation during treatments
D. oxygen does not effect radiation treatments

A

C. oxygen makes a cell more sensitive to radiation during treatments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

practice test 1:
99. a brachytherapy applicator that is used to treat cervical cancer is:

A. intraluminal
B. intracavitary
C. interstitial
D. intra-arterial

A

B. intracavitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

practice test 1:
100. “exposure” can only be defined at energies less than ___

A. 1 MeV
B. 2 MeV
C. 3 MeV
D. 5 MeV

A

C. 3 MeV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

practice test 1:
105. the cells ability to repair itself is represented in which region of the dose-response relationship graph?

A. Do
B. Dq
C. n
D. TD 5/5

A

B. Dq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

practice test 1:
106. ALARA stands for:

A. As Little As Reasonable Affordable
B. As Low As Reasonably Achievable
C. As Low As Realistically Attainable
D. As Little As Realistically Achievable

A

B. As Low As Reasonably Achievable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

practice test 1:
109. Radiation can cause damage to organs within the body. If the same cell type replaces cells within this organ, what has occurred?

A. regeneration
B. repair
C. necrosis
D. reversal

A

A. regeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

practice test 1:
110. if the dose given for a single treatment fraction is different than ____________ of the prescription, it is considered a medical event.

A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%

A

D. 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

practice test 1:
111. CT simulation laser tolerance is?

A. +/- 1 mm
B. +/- 2 mm
C. +/- 1 cm
D. +/- 2 cm

A

B. +/- 2 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

practice test 1:
113. which of the following energies is the most penetrating?

A. colbalt-60
B. 10 MeV
C. 6 MV
D. 10 MV

A

D. 10 MV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

practice test 1:
116. in what order would the following sources be in if you were to list them from shortest half-life, to longest half-life?

iodine-125
cesium-137
iridium-192
gold-198

A

B. Gold-198, Iodine-125, Iridium-192, Cesium-137

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

practice test 1:
120. all of the following are related to indirect effects of radiation EXCEPT:

A. water
B. free radicals
C. hydrogen peroxide
D. oxygen

A

D. oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

practice test 1:
123. to find the area of an irregularly shaped field use:

A. Clarkson integration
B. equivalent square
C. Monte Carlo computation
D. Mayneord F factor

A

A. Clarkson integration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

practice test 1:
124. a “ready pack” film is taped onto the treatment table. The corners of the light field are traced onto the film. an exposure to the film is then made. The markings and the exposed area are compared. What check is this?

A. collimator indicator agreement
B. light and radiation field agreement
C. multileaf collimator performance
D. safety light tests

A

B. light and radiation field agreement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

practice test 1:
126. how much of the beam is allowed to go through the collimating jaws?

A. less than .2%
B. less than .5%
C. less than 2%
D. less than 5%

A

B. less than .5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

practice test 1:
128. a wall that absorbs scatter radiation is known as -

A. primary barrier
B. secondary barrier
C. tertiary barrier
D. scatter barrier

A

B. secondary barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

practice test 1:
132. the most radio-resistant cycle of cell division is -

A. G1
B. G2
C. M
D. S

A

D. S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

practice test 1:
134. Forward planning is when the:

A. planner chooses desired parameters and then the isodose curves are generated
B. planner chooses tolerance doses of all the tissues in treatment area and then the parameters are created
C. planner chooses the isodose curves and parameters are created
D. planner choose parameters and isodose curves

A

A. planner chooses desired parameters and then the isodose curves are generated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

practice test 1:
136. when a wedge is in the path of the radiation beam:

A. beam hardening increases
B. beam hardening decreases
C. PDD increases
D. PDD decreases

A

A. beam hardening increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

practice test 1:
143. at least what dose is needed to the lens of the eye to cause blindness?

A. 100 cGy
B. 500 cGy
C. 750 cGy
D. 1000 cGy

A

B. 500 cGy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

practice test 1:
147. the beam-flattening filter is used for what type of treatments?

A. electron
B. proton
C. photon
D. orthovoltage

A

C. photon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

practice test 1:
149. list the following in order from smallest volume to largest volume?

PTV
GTV
CTV

A

C. GTV -> CTV -> PTV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

practice test 1:
150. which instrument would be used to find a misplaced source?

A. ion chambers
B. Geiger-Muller detector
C. Thermoluminescence dosimeter
D. diodes

A

B. Geiger-Muller detector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

practice test 1:
154. on a dose-response relationship graph, the portion of the curve that represents 37% of cell survival is:

A. Do
B. Dq
C. n
D. TD 5/5

A

A. Do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

practice test 1:
156. which isodose curve defines the “useful range” in electron beam?

A. 50%
B. 80%
C. 90%
D. 100%

A

A. 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

practice test 1:
159. which somatic effect does NOT have a threshold?

A. stochastic effects
B. non-stochastic effects
C. direct effects
D. indirect effects

A

A. stochastic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

practice test 1:
164. what is the maximum cumulative dose limit for a 40-year old radiation therapist?

A. 5 rem
B. 20 rem
C. 40 rem
D. 80 rem

A

C. 40 rem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

practice test 1:
169. what is the main use of sulfur hexafluoride?

A. prevents microwaves from flowing back into the klystron
B. prevents linear accelerator from overheating
C. prevents arcing in the waveguide
D. prevents secondary scattering

A

C. prevents arcing in the waveguide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

practice test 1:
171. a patient is receiving a dose of 3000 cGy to the upper-abdominal region would need which of the following medications to relieve a common side effect?

A. antiemetic
B. analgesic
C. anti-inflammatory
D. anti-diarrheal

A

A. antiemetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

practice test 1:
172. what type of radiation consists of photons that were naturally produced from a nucleus?

A. xrays
B. gamma rays
C. alpha particles
D. beta particles

A

B. gamma rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

practice test 1:
173. when oxygen is present, the cell is:

A. radiosensitive
B. radioresistant
C. the same
D. dead

A

A. radiosensitive

64
Q

practice test 1:
179. the depth where the total dose is delivered is known as -

A. PDD
B. TMR
C. Dmax
D. PSF

A

C. Dmax

65
Q

practice test 1:
180. which of the following is not included when calculating radiation barriers?

A. occupancy of adjacent rooms
B. monthly dose
C. workload
D. distance

A

B. monthly dose

66
Q

practice test 1:
182. a patient’s prescribed total dose is 5400 cGy. The patient is prescribed to receive 180 cGy per fraction for 30 fractions at 100 SSD. What is the total dose the patient would receive if they were accidentally treated at 90 SSD?

A. 4374 cGy
B. 4860 cGy
C. 6000 cGy
D. 6666 cGy

A

D. 6666 cGy

67
Q

practice test 1:
183. what electron interaction occurs near the nucleus and causes the electron to change directions?

A. characteristic radiation
B. photonuclear reaction
C. coherent scattering
D. bremsstrahlung radiation

A

D. bremsstrahlung radiation

68
Q

practice test 1:
184. how much beam is permitted to pass through the collimating jaws?

A. .2%
B. .5%
C. 2%
D. 5%

A

B. .5%

69
Q

practice test 1:
186. what is the ratio of absorbed dose at depth compared to the absorbed dose at dmax known as?

A. percent depth dose
B. dmax
C. dose equilibrium
D. tissue air ratio

A

A. percent depth dose

70
Q

practice test 1:
188. what type of instrument is a “cutie-pie”

A. ion chamber
B. Geiger-muller detector
C. thermoluminescent dosimeter
D. diode

A

A. ion chamber

71
Q

practice test 1:
191. a patient is going to be treated on a LINAC using an energy of 6MV to a depth of 5 cm. The SSD is 91 cm, the TAR is .875 and the output is, 1.02 cGy/MU.
The patient will receive 180 cGy per treatment. How many MU must be delivered?

A. 158 MU
B. 176 MU
C. 202 MU
D. 206 Mu

A

C. 202 MU

72
Q

practice test 1:
193. what is the limit of radiation per year a restricted area can receive?

A. 1 rem per year
B. 5 rem per year
C. 15 rem per year
D. 150 rem per year

A

A. 1 rem per year

73
Q

practice test 1:
194. which scatter factor cannot be directly measured?

A. scatter factor
B. phantom scatter
C. backscatter factor
D. peak scatter factor

A

B. phantom scatter

74
Q

practice test 2:
2. who is allowed to be in a restricted area within the radiation therapy department?

A. all hospital workers
B. radiation workers
C. general public
D. patient’s families

A

B. radiation workers

75
Q

practice test 2:
3. all of the following have a direct relationship with PDD, EXCEPT?

A. energy
B. depth
C. field size
D. SSD

A

B. depth

76
Q

practice test 2:
6. a patient’s prescribed total dose is 3000 cGy. The patient was prescribed to receive 300 cGy for 10 fractions at 90 SSD. What is the total dose the patient would receive if they were accidentally treated at 100 SSD?

A. 2430 cGy
B. 2700 cGy
C. 3333 cGy
D. 3704 cGy

A
77
Q

practice test 2:
7. what is the dmax for a 15 MV beam?

A. 1.5 cm
B. 2.5 cm
C. 3.0 cm
D. 3.2 cm

A

C. 3.0 cm

78
Q

practice test 2:
8. during the M phase of cell division, radiation will:

A. have more of an effect on the cell
B. have less of an effect on the cell
C. have no effect on the cell
D. have the same effect on the cell

A

A. have more of an effect on the cell

79
Q

practice test 2:
12. the rate that energy is transferred to matter as it travels through it is:

A. LET
B. RBE
C. OER
D. TLD

A

A. LET

80
Q

practice test 2:
15. which component of the linear accelerator would only amplify microwaves?

A. RF driver
B. Klystron
C. Magnetron
D. Waveguide

A

B. Klystron

81
Q

practice test 2:
18. safety check tolerance limits are:

A. 1 degree
B. 2 mm
C. 2%
D. functional

A

B. 2 mm

82
Q

practice test 2:
22. what is the most common and economical material used for radiation barriers?

A. lead
B. tungsten
C. aluminum
D. concrete

A

D. concrete

83
Q

practice test 2:
26. cancer is an example of which somatic effect?

A. stochastic effects
B. non-stochastic effects
C. direct effects
D. indirect effects

A

A. stochastic effects

84
Q

practice test 2:
27. the radiation beam has an intensity of 100 mR/hr at a distance of 15 cm from the source. What is the intensity at 35 cm from the source?

A. 18 mR/hr
B. 42 mR/hr
C. 234 mR/hr
D. 544 mR/hr

A
85
Q

practice test 2:
30. which instrument is made up of lithium fluoride and can store information for weeks?

A. ion chambers
B. geiger-muller detector
C. thermoluminescent dosimeter
D. optically stimulated luminescence

A

C. thermoluminescent dosimeter

86
Q

practice test 2:
34. which magnet arrangement would create a more confined radiation beam?

A. 0 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 270 degrees

A

D. 270 degrees

87
Q

practice test 2:
38. which somatic effect depends on the severity of the radiation dose?

A. stochastic effects
B. non-stochastic effects
C. direct effects
D. indirect effects

A

B. non-stochastic effects

88
Q

practice test 2:
41. which imaging study uses high frequency sound waves and images soft tissue in the body?

A. nuclear medicine
B. ultrasound
C. magnetic resonance imaging
D. computed tomography

A

B. ultrasound

89
Q

practice test 2:
43. according to the law of Bergonie and Tribondeau, which cells are more sensitive to radiation?

A. rapidly dividing cells
B. differentiated cells
C. mature cells
D. malignant cells

A

A. rapidly dividing cells

90
Q

practice test 2:
45. what is the maximum total dose allowed during gestation?

A. .01 rem
B. .05 rem
C. .1 rem
D. .5 rem

A

D. .5 rem

91
Q

practice test 2:
49. if a patient is getting an HDR treatment, what sign should be hanging on the door?

A. radiation area
B. high radiation area
C. very high radiation area
D. caution: radioactive materials

A

D. caution: radioactive materials

92
Q

practice test 2:
54. when radiation attenuates matter, the intensity decreases according to which effect?

A. attenuation factor
B. inverse square law
C. photelectric effect
D. compton scattering

A

A. attenuation factor

93
Q

practice test 2:
55. which of the following statements is true?

A. bigger field sizes cause more scatter
B. bigger field sizes cause less scatter
C. field sizes have no effect on scatter

A

A. bigger field sizes cause more scatter

94
Q

practice test 2:
56. if the total dose delivered for the patient’s entire treatment is different than _____________ of the prescription, it is considered a medical event.

A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%

A

A. 20%

95
Q

practice test 2:
57. if the treatment planner chooses the tolerance doses for the organs at risk as well as tumor volume and then the treatment computer creates a plan, this is most likely?

A. forward planning
B. inverse planning
C. 2D planning
D. 3D planning

A

B. inverse planning

96
Q

practice test 2:
59. a patient’s treatment plan consists of 4 fields. One field is going to recieve 45 cGy. The wedge factor is .72, the output factor is .90 cGy/MU and the TMR is .765
How many monitor units will be needed for this field?

A. 50 MU
B. 65 MU
C. 91 MU
D. 363 MU

A

C. 91 MU

97
Q

practice test 2:
61. alpha particles are chemically similar to _____

A. carbon
B. helium
C. nitrogen
D. hydrogen

A

B. helium

98
Q

practice test 2:
62. what is the dmax for a 10 MV beam?

A. 1.5 cm
B. 2.5 cm
C. 3.0 cm
D. 3.2 cm

A

B. 2.5 cm

99
Q

practice test 2:
63. which of the following is not a daily check for the linear accelerator?

A. door interlock
B. beam on light
C. emergency switches
D. audio-visual monitor system

A

C. emergency switches

100
Q

practice test 2:
65. what is used during total body irradiation treatments to increase the skin dose without altering the beam’s penetration?

A. compensator
B. wedge
C. block
D. beam spoiler

A

D. beam spoiler

101
Q

practice test 2:
70. which of the following is an example of characteristic of a heavy charged particle?

A. changes directly quickly
B. large mass
C. zig-zag path
D. travel further than electrons

A

B. large mass

102
Q

practice test 2:
72. what is the limit of radiation per year an unrestricted area can receive?

A. .1 rem per year
B. .5 rem per year
C. 1 rem all year
D. 5 rem all year

A

B. .5 rem per year

103
Q

practice test 2:
73. which imaging technique can visualize the MLCs and treatment field?

A. CBCT
B. MVCT
D. KV-pair
D. MV portal image

A

D. MV portal image

104
Q

practice test 2:
75. the treatment plan and the linear accelerator communicate through -

A. R & V system
B. PACS
C. DICOM
D. HIPAA

A

A. R & V system

105
Q

practice test 2:
78. which of the following is NOT a characteristic of electrons?

A. charged particles
B. indirectly ionizing
C. travel in a zig-zag path
D. scatter easily

A

B. indirectly ionizing

106
Q

practice test 2:
79. in order to bring the beam’s dmax closer to the skin surface and reduce skin sparing, what must be added to the treatment plan for photon therapy?

A. wedge
B. compensator
C. bolus
D. blocks

A

C. bolus

107
Q

practice test 2:
81. when creating a treatment plan for IMRT, the type of planning used is most likely:

A. forward planning
B. inverse planning
C. 2D planning
D. 3D planning

A

B. inverse planning

108
Q

practice test 2:
84. what is located within the direction of the radiation beam and checks the output for each treatment?

A. ion chamber
B. modulator
C. electron gun
D. klystron

A

A. ion chamber

109
Q

practice test 2:
85. what is the method of MLC movement when the MLCs move while the beam is being delivered?

A. dynamic
B. step and shoot
C. static
D. classic

A

A. dynamic

110
Q

practice test 2:
86. after how many half-lives can radioactive materials be disposed?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10

A

D. 10

111
Q

practice test 2:
88. what type of radiation has no charge, is manmade and is created after an interaction near a nucleus?

A. xrays
B. gamma rays
C. alpha particles
D. beta particles

A

A. xrays

112
Q

practice test 2:
89. what is the tolerance dose to 3/3 of the brain according to Emami et al.?

A. 2300 cGy
B. 3000 cGy
C. 4500 cGy
D. 5000 cGy

A

C. 4500 cGy

113
Q

practice test 2:
91. a block that is used to shield the periphery of the treatment field and leaves the central portion open is called:

A. hand block
B. cast block
C. negative block
D. positive block

A

C. negative block

114
Q

practice test 2:
92. when using unsealed ionization chambers to measure radiation, what correction factors are needed?

A. dose and depth
B. energy and size
C. temperature and energy
D. temperature and pressure

A

D. temperature and pressure

115
Q

practice test 2:
96. the shoulder region on a dose-response relationship graph represents

A. the number of cells available
B. the cells radiosensitivity
C. the cells ability to repair itself
D. the cells radioresistance

A

C. the cells ability to repair itself

116
Q

practice test 2:
100. which isodose curve defines the “therapeutic range” of an electron beam?

A. 50%
B. 80%
C. 90%
D. 100%

A

C. 90%

117
Q

practice test 2:
101. what term describes the radiation beam’s penetration ability?

A. quality factor
B. attenuation factor
C. charge
D. frequency

A

A. quality factor

118
Q

practice test 2:
105. 1 Gray is equal to how many rad?

A. 1 rad
B. 10 rad
C. 100 rad
D. 1000 rad

A

C. 100 rad

119
Q

practice test 2:
106. all of the following are characteristics of collimating jaws in modern day linear accelerators EXCEPT:

A. moveable
B. asymmetric
C. tungsten
D. cerrobend

A

D. cerrobend

120
Q

practice test 2:
110. how many HVLs are required to block all but 5% of the radiation beam?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

D. 5

121
Q

practice test 2:
113. the amount of time it takes a radioactive source to reach half of its original value is known as:

A. half-life
B. activity
C. intensity
D. average life

A

A. half-life

122
Q

practice test 2:
115. which of the following imaging studies does NOT use radiation?

A. nuclear medicine
B. radiography
C. magnetic resonance imaging
D. computed tomography

A

C. magnetic resonance imaging

123
Q

practice test 2:
118. when is a human the most sensitive to radiation?

A. embryo
B. childhood
C. adolescence
D. adulthood

A

A. embryo

124
Q

practice test 2:
121. when a brachytherapy source is placed directly into the tumor this is?

A. intracavitary implants
B. interstitial implants
C. intervascular implants
D. interluminal implants

A

B. interstitial implants

125
Q

practice test 2:
123. 4D treatment planning incorporates ______ in addition to regular treatment planning

A. involuntary motion
B. respiratory motion
C. multiple treatment sites
D. larger treatment margins

A

B. respiratory motion

126
Q

practice test 2:
125. which of the following will have the most skin sparing?

A. therapeutic electron beam
B. diagnostic xrays
C. orthovoltage
D. megavoltage xrays

A

D. megavoltage xrays

127
Q

practice test 2:
126. which photon interaction has a threshold energy of 1.022 MeV

A. photonuclear reaction
B. photoelectric effect
C. pair production
D. compton scattering

A

C. pair production

128
Q

practice test 2:
130. radiation can cause damage to organs within the body. If a different cell type replaces cells within this organ, what has occurred?

A. regeneration
B. repair
C. necrosis
D. reversal

A

B. repair

129
Q

practice test 2:
133. what is the most effective radiosensitizer?

A. nitrogen
B. oxygen
C. hydrogen
D. helium

A

B. oxygen

130
Q

practice test 2:
135. if a wedge is added to a field, what needs to change about the MU?

A. the MU will decrease
B. the MU will increase
C. the MU will remain the same

A

B. the MU will increase

131
Q

practice test 2:
136. the type of anode used in radiation therapy units is:

A. flat
B. angled
C. rotating
D. hooded

A

nappi is saying - A. flat

but i think - rotating

132
Q

practice test 2:
139. what is the dmax for a 12 MeV beam?

A. 1.5 cm
B. 2.2 cm
C. 2.8 cm
D. 3.0 cm

A

C. 2.8 cm

133
Q

practice test 2:
142. a cyclotron is used for what type of treatment?

A. external beam radiation therapy
B. proton therapy
C. electron therapy
D. orthovoltage therapy

A

B. proton therapy

134
Q

practice test 2:
146. when radioactive seeds are placed within a prostate, this is considered which type of brachytherapy?

A. intraluminal
B. intracavitary
C. interstitial
D. intra-arterial

A

C. interstitial

135
Q

practice test 2:
147. DRRs can be created from the CT scans after a process called:

A. registration
B. reconstruction
C. transmission
D. transportation

A

B. reconstruction

136
Q

practice test 2:
149. where does most of the scatter that contributes to the “scatter factor” occur?

A. gantry head
B. patient
C. wedges
D. bolus

A

A. gantry head

137
Q

practice test 2:
150. what is the most common way to measure the radiation output in a linear accelerator?

A. ion chambers
B. gieger-muller detector
C. thermoluminescent dosimeter
D. diodes

A

A. ion chambers

138
Q

practice test 2:
153. how frequently must beam output be checked?

A. daily
B. monthly
C. quarterly
D. yearly

A

A. daily

139
Q

practice test 2:
154. which of the following energies would have the shortest wavelength?

A. 15 MV
B. 6 MV
C. 9 MeV
D. 12 MeV

A

A. 15 MV

140
Q

practice test 2:
157. which of the following is a result of a photon interacting with a nucleus?

A. bremsstrahlung
B. photoelectric effect
C. compton scattering
D. pair production

A

D. pair production

141
Q

practice test 2:
159. which of the following combinations make up Lipowitz metal (Cerrobend)?

A. tin, lead, cadmium, bismuth
B. iron, bismuth, aluminum, lead
C. bismuth, aluminum, lead, cadmium
D. lead, iron, cadmium, tin

A

A. tin, lead, cadmium, bismuth

142
Q

practice test 2:
161. the best scenario for a therapeutic ratio is:

A. the lethal tumor dose is higher than normal tissue tolerance
B. the lethal tumor dose is equal to normal tissue tolerance
C. the lethal tumor dose is less than normal tissue tolerance

A

C. the lethal tumor dose is less than normal tissue tolerance

143
Q

practice test 2:
165. what is the annual dose limit for a radiation therapist?

A. .1 rem
B. .5 rem
C. 1 rem
D. 5 rem

A

D. 5 rem

144
Q

practice test 2:
167. negatrons and positrons are types of:

A. xrays
B. beta particles
C. gamma rays
D. alpha particles

A

B. beta particles

145
Q

practice test 2:
168. what is a common free radical that results from indirect effects of radiation?

A. hydrogen peroxide
B. nitric oxide
C. superoxide anion
D. hydroxyl

A

A. hydrogen peroxide

146
Q

practice test 2:
173. the wall that absorbs the useful beam is known as a:

A. primary barrier
B. secondary barrier
C. useful barrier
D. scatter barrier

A

A. primary barrier

147
Q

practice test 2:
174. transmission through MLC leaves should be less than?

A. .1%
B. .2%
C. 1%
D. 2%

A

D. 2%

148
Q

practice test 2:
179. which component of the linear accelerator would generate microwaves?

A. waveguide
B. magnetron
C. circulator
D. electron gun

A

B. magnetron

149
Q

practice test 2:
180. what is the tolerance limit for the optical distance indicator?

A. +/- 1mm
B. +/- 2 mm
C. +/- 1 cm
D. +/- 2 cm

A

B. +/- 2 mm

150
Q

practice test 2:
183. what is the SI unit to describe the amount of radiation a person absorbs?

A. sievert
B. gray
C. rem
D. rad

A

B. gray

151
Q

practice test 2:
184. when a brachytherapy source is placed directly into a VESSEL this is?

A. intracavitary implants
B. interstitial implants
C. intervascular implants
D. interluminal implants

A

C. intervascular implants

152
Q

practice test 2:
189. what would prevent microwaves from re-entering the klystron?

A. magnetron
B. modulator
C. waveguide
D. circulator

A

D. circulator

153
Q

practice test 2:
192. what type of device can help reduce hot spots in a treatment plan with multiple fields or compensate for irregular contours?

A. bolus
B. wedge
C. hand blocks
D. cast blocks

A

B. wedge

154
Q

practice test 2:
193. which acute radiation syndrome would occur after a radiation dose of 5,000 cGy to the entire body?

A. cerebrovascular syndrome
B. gastrointestinal syndrome
C. hematopoietic syndrome
D. plummer-vinson syndrome

A

B. gastrointestinal syndrome

155
Q

practice test 2:
194. when determining the monitor units needed to treat fixed fields at extended distances, what is needed for calculation?

A. Clarkson integration
B. equivalent square
C. monte carlo computation
D. mayneord “F” factor

A

D. mayneord “F” factor

156
Q

practice test 2:
199. during the CT simulation, the mA needs to be increased to create a change in the image quality, this will also lead to:

A. an increased patient dose
B. a decreased patient dose
C. the same patient dose
D. no patient dose

A

A. an increased patient dose

Radiation Safety and Protection (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions