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PNS > Last Half Of Semester > Flashcards

Last Half Of Semester Flashcards

1
Q

Corticospinal pathway function

A

Motor: controls fine movement of the face and extremities

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2
Q

Rubrospinal Pathway function

A

Motor: controls voluntary coarse movements excluding mouth, toes and fingers

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3
Q

Tectospinal Pathway Function

A

Motor: Controls orienting towards a stimuli

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4
Q

Reticulospinal Pathway function

A

Motor: controls stabilization of movement on uneven surfaces

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5
Q

Vestibulospinal Pathway Function

A

Motor: controls posture and balance maintenance during head movement

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6
Q

Medial Lemniscus function

A

Sensory: measures fine touch, body position (proprioception) and vibration

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7
Q

Corticospinal pathway originates where?

A

In the Motor Cortex

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8
Q

Corticospinal pathway crosses the midline where?

A

In the Lower Medulla

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9
Q

Rubrospinal Pathway originates where?

A

In the red nucleus of the midbrain

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10
Q

Rubrospinal Pathway crosses the midline where?

A

It crosses immediately

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11
Q

Tectospinal Pathway originates where?

A

Superior colliculus in the midbrain

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12
Q

The tectospinal pathway crosses the midline where?

A

It crosses immediately

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13
Q

The reticulospinal pathway originates where?

A

Reticular formation in the pons/ medulla

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14
Q

The reticulospinal pathway crosses the midline where?

A

It mostly doesn’t cross the midline

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15
Q

The vestibulospinal pathway originates where?

A

in the vestibular nuclei in the medulla

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16
Q

The vestibulospinal pathway crosses the midline where?

A

Trick! It doesn’t cross the midline

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17
Q

The medial lemniscus sensory pathway originates where?

A

In the dorsal root ganglia

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18
Q

The medial lemniscus pathway crosses the midline where?

A

In the lower medulla

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19
Q

The auditory pathway originates where?

A

In the cochlea

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20
Q

The auditory pathway crosses the midline where?

A

In the pons

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21
Q

The visual pathway originates where?

A

In the eyes, duh

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22
Q

The visual pathway crosses the midline where?

A

In the Optic chiasm

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23
Q

Which pathway travels through the LGN of the thalamus?

A

The visual pathway

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24
Q

Which pathway travels through the LGN of the thalamus?

A

The auditory pathway

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25
Q

Tuning Curve

A

Example: A neuron in the motor cortex fires most when a monkey moves in a particular direction, and the firing get less and less as the arm’s direction moves farther from that “preferred” direction.

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26
Q

The primary motor cortex’s role in creating movement is:

A

Planning and execution of a particular movement

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27
Q

The premotor cortex ’s role in creating movement is:

A

The selection of appropriate motor plan to accomplish a task

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28
Q

The supplementary motor cortex ’s role in creating movement is:

A

Control of complex sequences and bilateral movements

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29
Q

The basal ganglia ’s role in creating movement is:

A

Gating of proper movement initiation

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30
Q

The cerebellum ’s role in creating movement is:

A

Balance and coordination of ongoing movement

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31
Q

The brainstem’s role in creating movement is:

A

Basic movements and postural control

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32
Q

What are the two consequences to a lesion to the pyramids of the medulla?

A

1) loss of fine motor control because the corticospinal tract is disrupted
2) Rubrospinal track takes over those movements but is less precise, as it is the evolutionary precursor to the corticospinal pathway.

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33
Q

EEG measures what?

A

Electrical activity recorded from the scalp

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34
Q

MEG measures what?

A

Changes in magnetic fields caused by neuronal firing

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35
Q

ECoG measures what?

A

Electrical activity recorded on the surface of the brain

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36
Q

PET measures what

A

Movement of radioactive tracers

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37
Q

FMRI measures what?

A

Changes in blood oxygenation over time

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38
Q

FcMRI measures what?

A

Functional connectivity of brain regions

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39
Q

What major artery supplies blood to areas of the frontal, parietal and temporal lobes?

A

Middle Cerebral artery

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40
Q

Broadmann divided up the cortex into 52 regions based on what?

A

Cytoarchitecture (the arrangement of cells in a tissue, especially in specific areas of the cerebral cortex characterized by the arrangement of their cells and each associated with particular functions

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41
Q

Disorders of speech “content” are called _______________ and are more associated with damage to which hemisphere of the brain?

A

Aphasia, associated with left hemisphere damage

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42
Q

Disorders of speech “affect” (intonation and gestures) are called _________________ and are associated with damage to which hemisphere?

A

Aprosodias, associated with the right hemisphere

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43
Q

Speech production is most commonly associated with speech ___________________?

A

Production

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44
Q

Speech comprehension is most commonly associated with which part of the brain?

A

Wernicke’s area

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45
Q

Fluent speech, normal comprehension, but cannot repeat words after you- which type of aphasia and where is the damage located?

A

Conduction aphasia located in the accurate fasciculus (white matter tract connecting Broca’s and Wernicke’s area)

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46
Q

What are the three unique characteristics about Einsteins’s brain?

A

1) Overdeveloped parietal lobe
2) Sylvia’s fissure was pushed forward relative to the normal position
3) His brain was wider than normal in this region

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47
Q

What are the three types of plasticity?

A

Morphological/ developmental
Functional
Adult

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48
Q

What’s an example of morphological/ developmental plasticity?

A

Changes to the mouse barrel cortex after removing whiskers at birth -
OR Changes to ocular dominance columns in visual cortex after closing one eye at birth

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49
Q

What’s an example of functional plasticity

A

Learning a second language [and developing a new functional region for the second language distinct from the first language in Broca’s area]

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50
Q

What’s an example of adult plasticity

A

Visuomotor adaptation (like me in the prism goggles!)

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51
Q

The stripes in layer IV of the primary visual cortex are called _______________

A

Ocular dominance columns

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52
Q

What’s the significance of the ocular dominance columns?

A

The stripes show that information from each eye is kept separate through the LCN, into layer IV of the visual cortex (they are alter combined in other layers of the visual cortex).
These “stripes” were made visible by injecting dye into one of the animal’s eyes, so that it dyed only the parts of the cortex receiving inputs from the that eye.

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53
Q

Which two scientists performed the “closing one cat’s eye at birth” experiment?

A

Hubel and Wiesel

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54
Q

What’s the significance of monocular deprivation (Hubel and Wiesel experiment)

A

Ocular dominance columns corresponding to the closed eye became narrower, those corresponding to the open eye became wider. Basically, the brain adapted to make the best use of cortical space.

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55
Q

What molecular mechanism can cause Hebbian changes (that we learned about earlier in this course)?

A

Ocular dominance columns corresponding to the closed eye
became narrower, those corresponding to the open eye
became wider. Basically, the brain adapted to make the best
use of cortical space

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56
Q

True or false: The sodium current is equal and opposite to the potassium current at the peak of the action potential?

A

True

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57
Q

True or False: Saltatory propagation of action potentials takes place only in invertebrate animals like the giant squid

A

False

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58
Q

True or False: A neuron in the CNS may receive both EPSPs and IPSPs which may cancel each other out

A

True

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59
Q

True or False: Many channels involved in sensory perception, such as the TRPV1 channel which is activated by both heat and capsaicin, are cation selective channels permeable only to sodium ions and calcium ions

A

False

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60
Q

True or False: After a hydrated potassium ion enters the pore of a potassium channel, strategically placed
oxygen atoms of the channel selectively filter substitute for the oxygen atoms of the waters of
the hydration shell

A

True

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61
Q

True or False: Some leak potassium channels remain open at the peak of the action potential

A

True

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62
Q

True or False: The passive propagation of an electrical signal is necessary for active propagation, but active propagation is not necessary for passive propagation

A

True

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63
Q

True or False: In the action potential voltage cycle, the sodium and potassium currents are equal and opposite at rest, at the threshold voltage, at the peak of the action potential, and at the bottom of the undershoot

A

True

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64
Q

True or False: At the peak of the action potential the membrane potential is equal to the sodium ion equilibrium potential

A

False

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65
Q

True or False: The sodium current is equal and opposite to the potassium current in a resting cell

A

True

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66
Q

True or False: At the reversal potential of a channel, the net current through the channel is zero

A

True

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67
Q

True or False: Some ion channels have a reversal potential equal to the equilibrium potential of an ion

A

True

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68
Q

True or False: At the reversal potential of an ionotropic glutamate receptor, there is no net flow of either sodium or potassium ion through that open channel

A

False

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69
Q

True or False: At the reversal potential of an ionotropic glutamate receptor, there is no net flow of electrical current through that open channel

A

True

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70
Q

True or False: The mGluR1 and AMPA receptors both trigger a second messenger cascade that amplifies the signal

A

False

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71
Q

True or False: Small molecular weight neurotransmitters are used only for ionotropic neurotransmissions

A

False

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72
Q

True or False: Xanax is a serotonin uptake inhibitor and Prozac facilitates the activation of GABA receptors

A

False

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73
Q

What Experiment did Roger Sperry run and what were the phenomena/ chemicals that explain the results?

A

1) cutting a frog’s optic nerve and rotating the eye 180º

2) Chemoaffinity and Ephrins

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74
Q

What is the effect of Alpha bungarotoxin and curare?

A

Blocks AcH ionotropic receptors

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75
Q

What’s the effect of muscarine toxin?

A

It activates metabotropic receptors

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76
Q

What’s the effect of scorpion toxin?

A

It retards sodium channel inactivation

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77
Q

What’s the effect of tetrodotoxin?

A

It blocks sodium channels

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78
Q

True or False: Active propagation is required for passive propagation

A

False

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79
Q

True or False: Passive propagation is required for active propagation

A

True

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80
Q

True or False: MePPs are small depolarizations of the muscle cell membrane due to the spontaneous release of neurotransmitter in the presences of a stimulus

A

False

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81
Q

True or False: a MePP is the result of the spontaneous release of a synaptic vesicle containing a neurotransmitter

A

True

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82
Q

Myelin Sheath __________ capacitance

A

Decreases

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83
Q

Myelin sheath ___________ resistance across the cell membrane

A

Increases

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84
Q

Myelin ___________ the speed of the action potential propagation down the axon

A

Increases

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85
Q

Propagation of an electrical potential along an axon would be impossible by passive propagation alone because:

A

Passively propagated signals decay with distance

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86
Q

A receptor potential decreases in amplitude with distance from its site of initiation because it is a ____________ potential

A

Passive

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87
Q

The process through which the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next is ? ___________

A

Saltatory conduction

88
Q

Electrical potential:

A

The difference between two points in a circuit or between a point and the ground

89
Q

The rate of change transfer, measured in coulombs

A

Current

90
Q

The aggregate charge carried by one mole of monovalent ions

A

Faraday

91
Q

The measure of difficulty that a current encounters in its flow through an object

A

Resistance

92
Q

A charge storing device consisting of a pair of conducting surfaces separated by a non-conductor

A

Capacitor

93
Q

Why is a potassium ion able to leave its hydration shell behind when passing through a potassium channel?

A

Oxygen atoms within the channel mimic the position of the oxygen atoms within the water of the inner K+ hydration shell.

94
Q

Which has a larger crystal radius? Sodium or potassium?

A

Potassium

95
Q

The use of hydration shells is essential in our understanding of the ________ of ion channels

A

Selectivity

96
Q

Which ion moves into neurons via voltage gated ion channels and is an important
second messenger involved in neurotransmitter release into the synaptic cleft?

A

Ca2+

97
Q

When an action potential occurs in the motor neuron at the neuromuscular junction, the amplitude of the excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) depends on the concentration of extracellular Ca2+ because:

A

The higher the [Ca2+] the more Ca2+ enters the presynaptic terminal through voltage-gated Ca2+ channels and more synchronous release of the synaptic vesicles from the presynaptic terminal occurs if more Ca2+ enters

98
Q

GAD is an enzyme that catalyzes the inter-conversion of?

A

Glutamate to GABA

99
Q

In normal naming convention of the CNS pathways, you begin at the _______________ and end at the ______________

A

1) origin, 2) target

100
Q

In a lateral view of the brain, the pathway responsible for facial movements is ________________ to the tract responsible for foot movement

A

Inferior

101
Q

In a lateral view of the brain, the pathway responsible for facial movement is ______________ to the tract responsible for foot movement

A

Inferior

102
Q

If stabbed in the back on the left side of the dorsal spinal column at C7 (cutting the dorsal root) what symptoms should you see?

A

Loss of sensation in the left hand

103
Q

What makes up the diencephalon?

A

The hypothalamus, the epithalamus and the thalamus

104
Q

Cauda equina

A

Horse’s tail

105
Q

Dorsal horn

A

Sensory

106
Q

Ventral horn

A

Motor

107
Q

Ganglion

A

Groups of somas

108
Q

Decussation

A

Crossing the midline

109
Q

Pons

A

Bridge

110
Q

Pulvinar

A

Pillow

111
Q

Geniculate

A

Knee

112
Q

True or false: sensory nerves are afferent while motor nerves are efferent

A

True

113
Q

In the visual pathway, information from the retina passes through cranial nerve # _____________ “the ___________ nerve” before entering the _______________ of the thalamus

A

2, Optic, lateral geniculate nucleus

114
Q

In the auditory pathway, info from the cochlea passes through cranial nerve # _____________ , “the ______________ nerve”, and is eventually transmitted indirectly to the ________________ of the thalamus

A

VIII, vestibulocochlear, medial geniculate nucleus

115
Q

Cells that sense color

A

Cones

116
Q

Cells sensitive to low levels of light

A

Rods

117
Q

Cells necessary for vision

A

Photoreceptors

118
Q

Auditory sensory receptors

A

Hair cells

119
Q

Sensitive to movement, vibration, light pressure, pain and temperature

A

Skin touch receptors

120
Q

Define: adequate stimulus

A

The form of energy a sensory neuron is most sensitive to

121
Q

Define: threshold sensitivity

A

Amount of stimulus needed to activate a sensory neuron

122
Q

Define: adaptation

A

The process by which a receptor stops responding to a repeated stimulus

123
Q

Define: receptive field

A

The area in which a stimulus will activate a particular receptor

124
Q

True or false, The threshold to pressure differs over the body, which reflects different innervation densities. For example, there is lower innervation density in the fingers and lips

A

False, there is greater inner action density in the fingers and lips

125
Q

What organization principle fo the Nervous system did the mouse’s whiskers experiment results indicate?

A

The peripheral body maps to the somatosensory cortex

126
Q

Biogenic amines are responsible for

A

Addiction

127
Q

An example of a snare protein

A

Syntaxin

128
Q

What cleaves synaptobrevin at inhibitory synapses

A

Tetanus

129
Q

Conus is…

A

A soup of peptide neurotoxins

130
Q

What toxin depolarizers sensory neurons which carry pain?

A

Apamin

131
Q

Which alkaloid stimulates ACH receptors?

A

Nicotine

132
Q

What is required for the final phase of LTP

A

Protein synthesis

133
Q

How does Prozac function?

A

It inhibits the re-uptake of a small molecular weight matabotropic neurotransmitter

134
Q

What is oxytocin?

A

A peptide metabotropic neurotransmitter/hormone that makes you feel good about babies/ cuddling

135
Q

Normal human genetic variation shows that two individuals are likely, on average, to have a difference (SNP) in their DNA every ________________ nucleotides

A

500

136
Q

What specific property of voltage-gated sodium channels permits the sequential release of energy in the adjacent axon membrane to propagate the action potential?

A

Voltage-gating (duh)

137
Q

What type of mutation is likely to be recessive except in rare cases of haplo-insufficiency?

A

Loss-of-function mutations in a single gene

138
Q

What’s an example of a genetic syndrome caused by a dominant (gain of function) mutation?

A

Epilepsy, HKPP and NaV1.7 pain responses

139
Q

What’s an example of an autoimmune disease that affects the nervous system?

A

MS, Myasthenia gravis, LEMS

140
Q

What’s one type of ligand-gated ion channel that has a reversal potential approximately halfway between the equilibrium potential of sodium and potassium ions?

A

ACH receptor OR GLU receptor (NMDA, Kainate, AMPA)

141
Q

What’s a neurotransmitter that can activate both metabotropic and ionotropic receptors in different brain areas?

A

ACH or GLU

142
Q

Name a low molecular weight neurotransmitter whose action is stopped by being broken down into two components by acetylcholine esterase.

A

Acetylcholine… duh (ACH)

143
Q

The enzyme glutamate decarboxylase (GAD) converts glutamate into what inhibitory
neurotransmitter?

A

GABA

144
Q

Spatial summation

A

An IPSP and an EPSP are produced on different dendrites of the same neuron, and when they arrive at the cell body, they cancel each other out, producing neither a depolarization nor a hyperpolarization

145
Q

Temporal summation

A

A subthreshold EPSP in the postsynaptic terminal of an interneuron produces no action potential at the spike initiation zone, but when the presynaptic neuron is fired very rapidly, the EPSPs ride on top of one another and finally reach threshold.

146
Q

Mono synaptic facilitation

A

Action potentials arriving at the presynaptic terminal leave an accumulation of Ca2+ eventually resulting in increased neurotransmitter release.

147
Q

Synaptic depression

A

A succession of action potentials arriving in a presynaptic terminal produces successive IPSPs in the postsynaptic cell that decline in amplitude.

148
Q

Long-Term Potentiation (LTP)

A

Involves the insertion of AMPA receptors in the postsynaptic membrane which results from intense synaptic activity. It also involved the entry of Ca2+ into the postsynaptic cell after sufficient activation and de- blocking of NMDA receptors

149
Q

In cells with an internal [Cl-] higher than the external [Cl-], activating the GABA receptor channels when the cell is at rest will cause the cell to _______________

A

Depolarize

150
Q

In cells with an internal [Cl-] higher than the external [Cl-], the equilibrium potential is (positive? Negative? Equal to zero?)

A

Positive

151
Q

In cells with an internal [Cl-] higher than the external [Cl-], activation of the GABA receptor will result in _______________

A

Cl- flowing out of the cell

152
Q

True or false: driving force of an ion is the difference between the membrane potential and the equilibrium potential of an ion (measured in voltage)

A

True

153
Q

True or false: gamma frequency waves (~40 Hz) in the cortex are associated with consciousness attentiveness

A

True

154
Q

True or false: the potent sodium channel blocker tetrodotoxin can be ingested without dire consequences because it is rapidly broken down by digestion

A

False

155
Q

True or false: the action potential refractory period is a major factor determining the unidirectional travel of action potentials

A

True

156
Q

True or false: in voltage clamp experiments, the voltage is controlled while the current varies over time

A

True

157
Q

True or false: passive propagation is necessary for active propagation, but not the other way around

A

True

158
Q

True or false: the mechanism of ion selectivity in voltage-dependent ion channels limits the movement of water into and out of cells

A

True

159
Q

True or false: when the NA/K ATPase is positioned, a cell’s resting potential immediately goes to 0

A

False

160
Q

True or false: scorpion toxin prevents inactivation of voltage-sensitive NMDA receptors

A

False

161
Q

True or false: In voltage (patch) clamp experiments, single channel currents may be analyzed with respect to their single channel conductance, selectivity, gating characteristics and channel mean open time.

A

True

162
Q

True or false: Myelin serves two major roles: 1. Lowering membrane resistance to increase the length constant, and; 2. Raising membrane capacitance to conserve energy.

A

False

163
Q

True or false: spatial summation applies only to EPSP’s and not IPSP’s

A

False

164
Q

True or false: each element fo circuitry in the brain can be thought of as a computer AND as a batter

A

True

165
Q

True or false; Each synapse in the CNS closely resembles the NMJ with regard to the number of vesicles released.

A

False

166
Q

True or false: The bulk concentration of calcium ion always remains constant in the presynaptic terminal, even during intense synaptic activity.

A

False

167
Q

True or false: Even without the Na+/K+ ATPase most cells would have a negative intracellular potential.

A

True

168
Q

True or false: Saltatory conduction refers to active propagation jumping from internode to internode at the speed of light.

A

False

169
Q

True or false: Gain-of-function mutations are mostly recessive while loss-of-function mutations are mostly dominant.

A

False

170
Q

True or false: The only output of a digital computer is a series of voltage blips corresponding to one’s and zero’s.

A

True

171
Q

True or false: Coding of information in the brain has a striking similarity to the coding of information in digital computers

A

False

172
Q

Define: Law of specific nerve energies

A

Depolarization of neurons in a pathway is interpreted as a particular form of stimulation

173
Q

What is the location factor of thresholds?

A

Threshold to pressure differs along the body, reflecting different innervation densities (ie lips and ends of fingers are the most sensitive)

174
Q

What’s the fiber type factor for thresholds?

A

Thresholds to mechanics force (pressure) differ for endings associated with different fiber sizes- smaller forces activated myelinated faster conducting fibers (Aß) Greater forces are required to activated unmyelintaed/ thin myelinated slower conducting fibers (A∂, and C)

175
Q

What is neuromorphological developmental plasticity?

A

Changes in brain structure deterred by inputs available during development. It has a limited time window (critical period) and is structural plasticity

176
Q

What 3 major features control the “gate” (tonic glues pallidus internal segment inhibition of the thalamus)

A

1) direct de-inhibition pathways from the cerebral cortex
2) Direct de-inhibition pathways from the substantia nigra (dopamingergic D1- “gas”)
3) Indirect de-de-de-inhibition from substantia nigra (dopaminergic D2, “brake”)

177
Q

What are the 10 steps (in order) of Nervous Embryology?

A
  1. First positional axis is set (animal vs vegetal)
    2) Fertilization (defined by sperm entry)
  2. Cortical rotation (creates dorsal/ventral axis)
  3. Second positional axis set (dorsal/ventral
  4. 3rd positional axis set relative to Spemann organizer (anterior/posterior)
  5. Blastulaton
  6. Principle germ layers formed (ecto, meso, endo)
  7. Gastrulation (endo/meso involuted through blastopore)
  8. Neurulation (formation of neural tube/ neural crest cells)
  9. Cephalization then segmentation (anterior enlargement and segmentation for spinal specialization)
178
Q

What experiment studied neuron fate depending on axon targets (Victor Hamburger)

A

Chick limb buds were removed from growing embryo, and loss of atonal targets results in the stunting of neuronal development in that area (target innervation determines which neurons survive)

179
Q

What experiment (by Hamburger, Levi-Monalcini and Cohen) discovered nerve growth factor?

A

They transplanted a mouse tumor next to a developing chick spinal cord, and found that the presence of the sarcoma caused axon sprouting due to a “diffusible factor “ secreted by the tumor called NGF

180
Q

Define Equilibrium potential

A

Membrane voltage at which there is no net flow of an ion through a channel

181
Q

Define Reversal potential

A

Pertains to channels; membrane voltage at which there is no net flow of CHARGE through a channel

182
Q

What is whole-cell patch clamping?

A

A recording pipet creates tight contact between the tip and the plasma membrane, then through strong suction the membrane breaks while maintaining contact, allowing the pipette to have direct access to the cytoplasm

183
Q

What is “outside-out” patch-clamp recording

A

Like whole-cell configuration, first the pipette has direct access to the cytoplasm, the the pipette is retracted from the cell and the broken ends of the membrane anneal, allowing access to the extra cellular domains of the ion channel

184
Q

What is inside-out patch clamp recording?

A

The recording pipette uses mild suction so as to not break the membrane and expose the cytosol, but the pulled membrane breaks away from the cell and allows access to the cytoplasmic domain of the ion channel

185
Q

What are the two forms of short-term plasticity?

A

Monosynaptic facilitation and monosynaptic depression?

186
Q

Define monosynaptic facilitation

A

Multiple stimulation’s in the pre-synaptic neuron causing larger PSPs in the post-synaptic neuron. This is caused by calcium building up in the presynaptic terminal after each simulation. (It’s a method of learning at the cellular level)

187
Q

Define monosynaptic depression

A

The PSPs get smaller and smaller with each stimulation because the readily releasable pool of vesicles gets depleted

188
Q

What are two forms of synaptic integration?

A

Temporal summation and spatial summation

189
Q

Define temporal summation

A

The EPSPs do not have time to return to baseline because the action potentials of the presynaptic neuron are firing too quickly, so the EPSPs build one on top of the other like steps, which may eventually lead to an action potential

190
Q

Define spatial summation

A

Summation over distance, where multiple neurons are sending signals to a single postsynaptic neuron causes the postsynaptic potentials to build one on top of the other

191
Q

What are the three different type of metabotropic signaling?

A

Gs: increases cAMP —> stimulated PKA
Gi: decreases cAMP—>inhibites PKA
Gq: increases Ca2+—> activated PKC

192
Q

What type of receptors are metabotropic? (General)

A

G-Protein coupled receptors (GPCRs)

~The largest gene family of receptors~ sends signals through second messengers to affect cellular processes

193
Q

What are the three small MW ionotropic neurotransmitters? (And what receptors do they activate?

A
  1. Acetylcholine (ACH) —> nicotinic ionotropic receptors
  2. Glutamate—> AMPA, Kainate and NMDA receptors
  3. GABA —> GABAA receptors
194
Q

What are the four types of small molecular weight metabotropic neurotransmitters? (And what receptors do they activate?)

A
  1. ACh—> muscarinic
  2. Glutamate—> mGlu
  3. GABA—> GABA B
  4. Dopamine and related biogenic amines (lots)
195
Q

What are 5 examples of the high molecular weight metabotropic neurotransmitters?

A 
1. Neuropeptides
A. Substance P
B. Oxytocin
C. Vasopressin
D. Angiotensin II
196
Q

What is nicotine toxins’s 1. Origin, 2. Target, and 3. Symptoms?

A

Origin: tobacco plant
Target: activates ACh receptors
Symptoms: nausea, vomiting, mental convulsions

197
Q

What is muscarine toxin’s 1. Origin, 2. Target, 3. Symptoms?

A

Origin: red mushroom
Target: activated ACh receptors
Symptoms: Nausea, vomiting, mental confusion

198
Q

What is curare toxin’s 1. Origin, 2. Target, 3. Symptoms?

A

Origin: arrowhead poison from a plant
Target: block nicotinic ACh receptors
Symptoms: paralysis

199
Q

What is picrotoxin’s 1. Origin, 2. Target, 3. Symptoms?

A

Origin: fish berries
Target: blocks GABA A receptors
Symptoms: seizures

200
Q

What is tetrodotoxin’s 1. Origin, 2. Target, 3. Symptoms?

A

Origin: puffer fish and salamanders
Target: Blocks NA+ channels (except for in California garter snake who have mutations that the toxins can’t fit in the receptor)
Symptoms: paralysis

201
Q

What are the 5 alkaloid toxins

A

Nicotine, muscarine, curare, picrotoxin and tetrodotoxin

202
Q

What are the four peptide toxins?

A

Neurotoxin (scorpions), apamin (bees), alpha-bungarotoxin (snakes), conotoxin cocktail (conus)

203
Q

What is the neurotoxin’s 1. Origin, 2. Target, 3. Symptoms?

A

Origin: scorpions
Target: Na+ channels (remain in the active state and can’t inactivate)
Symptoms: pain and decreased coordination

204
Q

What is apamin toxin’s 1. Origin, 2. Target, 3. Symptoms?

A

Origin: Bees
Target: block leak K+ channels (SK Channels)
Causes the sensory neuron to approach threshold at rest
Symptoms: Pain

205
Q

What is alpha-bungarotoxin’s 1. Origin, 2. Target, 3. Symptoms?

A

Origin: snakes
Target: blocks nicotinic ACh receptors- prevents ACh from opening post-synaptic ion channels
Symptoms: paralysis

206
Q

What is conotoxin’s 1. Origin, 2. Target, 3. Symptoms?

A

Origins: cocktail of chemicals from conus
Target: Blocks Ca2+ channels, Na+ channels, K+ channels, ACh receptors and there is NO antidote
Symptoms: paralysis or immediate death

207
Q

What are the two types of enzyme toxins?

A

Botulinum (Botox) and tetanus (responsible for lock jaw)

208
Q

How does botulinum (Botox) function?

A

It cleaves presynaptic vesicle SNARE proteins, inhibits ACh release and causes paralysis

209
Q

How does tetanus function to give you lock jaw?

A

It cleaves synaptobrevin, inhibits release of glycine and GABA, and causes continuous muscle contraction because there’s no inhibition of motor neurons

210
Q

What are loss-of-function mutations?

A

Mutations that inactivates a gene or prevents/destroys protein from being produced. They’re generally recessive (you can get by with one copy) but lethal if homozygous

211
Q

What are gain-of-function mutations?

A

A mutation that results in a new functional ability of a protein, and is normally dominant. Examples are epilepsy and HKPP (or 1,000 genes that when mutated with a GOF mutation will cause autism)

212
Q

What receptor does Xanax and other benzodiazepines activated and what is its function?

A

It targets GABA receptors, and it facilitates the opening of GABAA channels—> used to treat anxiety, seizures and muscle spasms.

213
Q

What does Prozac target and what is its function?

A

It targets serotonin (by being derived from tryptophan)—> used to treat depression and create feelings of wellbeing. It’s a reuptake inhibitor, allowing more serotonin to remain in the cleft

214
Q

What do monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors target and what is their function?

A

Targets dopamine, which comes from the amino acid tyrosine. Prevents the breakdown of dopamine and is used to treat depression

215
Q

What is NaV1.1’s function and what is its mutation?

A

General Na+ channel in the CNS- a loss-of-function mutation leads to epilepsy by inhibiting transition from open to closed, and delaying repolarization.

216
Q

What is NaV1.4 and what is its mutation?

A

It’s a skeletal muscle Na+ channel.

  1. Causes Hyperkalemia (too much potassium outside the cell leading to depolarization
  2. A Gain of function mutation causes Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis (HKPP), Which causes sodium channels to leak open, raising the resting potential of the cell
217
Q

What is a potassium channel mutation?

A

Benign Familial Neonatal Convulsions (BFNC)
One subunit of the K+ channel mutated and whole channel struggles—> epilepsy disorder in young adulthood that children grow out of as they get older
Some K+ channels function as homotetramers, others as heterotetramers

PNS (2 decks)

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