last days ting Flashcards

1
Q

Features making a UTI atypical, as defined by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines include:

A
seriously ill child
poor urine flow
abdominal or bladder mass
raised creatinine
septicaemia
failure to respond to treatment with suitable antibiotics within 48 hours
infection with non- coli organisms

According to NICE guidelines, in children younger than 6 months of age with an atypical UTI, an urgent USS is required during the acute infection, looking for any structural abnormalities in the urinary tract. Once the acute infection has resolved, 4–6 months later, a routine DMSA is performed (looking for a scar in the kidney, renal agenesis or a duplex system) and an MCUG (looking for vesico-ureteric reflux or a posterior urethral valve).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A baby is admitted to the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit with severe jaundice. On examination, there is hepatosplenomegaly. Nursing staff report that the baby does not appear to respond to audible stimuli.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

This neonate has congenital CMV infection due to vertical transmission from the mother. The incidence of congenital CMV is around 0.3–0.4% in the United Kingdom. Neonates can present acutely unwell with low birthweight, jaundice, microencephaly and seizures. Treatment is with systemic antivirals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A 2-day-old neonate is brought to the Emergency Department by concerned parents. They report that the child is refusing to feed and appears irritable. On examination, the child has hypotonia and a non-blanching petechial rash over the lower limbs.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Group B Streptococcus (GBS)
This patient has early-onset neonatal sepsis, likely neonatal meningitis. The most common causative organism is GBS, a Gram-positive coccus that is present in up to 25% of pregnant women. A full ‘septic screen’, including a lumbar puncture, will be required. Treatment is with empirical antibiotics such as intravenous (IV) benzylpenicillin and gentamicin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A 10-day-old neonate presents to the Paediatric Assessment Unit with a blistering rash on the scalp and face. On examination, there is jaundice and hepatomegaly. The rash appears vesicular.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Herpes simplex
This patient has developed neonatal herpes infection, usually due to herpes simplex virus type II. If the mother has active genital herpes, there is a 50% risk of transmission to the neonate, which can be reduced by opting for a Caesarean delivery. Neonatal herpes has three main presentations: skin, eye and mouth (SEM) disease, central nervous system disease and disseminated disease. The patient likely has disseminated disease due to the combination of hepatic failure and cutaneous lesions. Treatment is with IV aciclovir.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Criteria for admission for withdrawal

A

Consider inpatient or residential assisted withdrawal if a service user meets one or more of the following criteria. They:

drink over 30 units of alcohol per day

have a score of more than 30 on the SADQ

have a history of epilepsy, or experience of withdrawal-related seizures or delirium tremens during previous assisted withdrawal programmes

need concurrent withdrawal from alcohol and benzodiazepines

regularly drink between 15 and 30 units of alcohol per day and have:

significant psychiatric or physical comorbidities (for example, chronic severe depression, psychosis, malnutrition, congestive cardiac failure, unstable angina, chronic liver disease) or

a significant learning disability or cognitive impairment.

Also consider a lower threshold for inpatient or residential assisted withdrawal in vulnerable groups, for example, homeless and older people.

Offer inpatient care to children and young people aged 10 to 17 years who need assisted withdrawal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

• Positional talipes

A
feet remain in their in-utero position
o	Aetiology = intrauterine compression
o	Signs & symptoms and investigations:
	Can be fully dorsi-flexed to touch front of lower leg	
	Normal size foot	
o	Management:
	Physiotherapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

• Talipes Equinovarus (‘club foot’) =

A

inverted and supinated feet
o Aetiology = idiopathic; 1 in 1,000; M > F (2: 1)
 May be 2nd to oligohydramnios
 Association to DDH

o Signs & symptoms and investigations:
 Cannot be fully dorsi-flexed to touch front of lower leg
 Inverted (not everted; i.e. calcaneovalgus) and supinated feet
 Affected foot is shorter and calf muscles are thinner
o Management:
 Mild-moderate  Ponsetti method (plaster casting and bracing)
 Severe  surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

GBS 9 weeks into preg. Tx

A

Intrapartum benzypenicllin only

Iv vanc if allergic severe and cephalo ifd mild

monitor newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Seborrhoeic dermatitis treatment

A

Management depends on severity
mild-moderate: baby shampoo and baby oils
severe: mild topical steroids e.g. 1% hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Miscarriages vs ectopics

A

Expectant management

  • miscarriage- wait 7-14 days
  • ectopic- monitor 48hr and if bhcg rises again or symptoms manifest, intervention

Medical
Miscarriage -vaginal misoprostol
Ectopic - oral MTX

Surgical management
Miscarriage- vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgery in theatre under GA (evacuation)
Ectopic - salpingectomy or salpingotomy

also According to NICE guidelines published in 2018, vaginal misoprostol is most appropriate as the patients past medical history of coagulopathy (Von Willebrand disease) is a contra-indication to expectant management, but not medical management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The most common cause of ovarian enlargement in women of a reproductive age

A

Follicular cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

known cause of infertility

A

immediate refferal to fertility services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If a breastfed baby loses > ?% of birth weight in the first week of life then referral to a midwife-led breastfeeding clinic may be appropriate

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

According to current NICE CKS guidance, pregnant women who are < 6 weeks gestation and present with vaginal bleeding and no pain…..

A

Monitor expectantly and advise to repeat pregnancy test in 7 days. If negative, this confirms miscarriage. If positive, or continued or worsening symptoms, refer to the early pregnancy assessment unit

Pregnant women who are < 6 weeks gestation and present with vaginal bleeding and no pain can be managed expectantly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

An infant with GORD who has troublesome symptoms despite a 1–2 week trial of alginate therapy, should be prescribed …

A

4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Features of atypical UTI:

A
Seriously ill
Poor urine flow
Abdominal or bladder mass
Raised creatinine
Septicaemia
Failure to respond to treatment with suitable antibiotics within 48 hours
Infection with non-E. coli organisms.

CATFISH

  • Creatinine
  • Abdo/bladder mass
  • Terribly ill
  • Flow problems
  • Infected with non-ecoli organisms
  • Septicaemia
  • Halted/no response to suitable abx >48 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Unilateral undescended testicle - review at

A

3 months - if persistent refer

If the testis is undescended by 3 months of age, the child should be referred to a paediatric surgeon and seen before 6 months of age. This is in line with NICE guidelines on undescended testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

IOTA criteria which help to classify cysts as being likely benign (‘B rules’) or malignant (‘M rules’). M rules include

A
Irregular, solid tumour.
Ascites.
At least 4 papillary structures.
Irregular multilocular solid tumour with largest diameter ≥100 mm.
Very strong blood flow.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ondansetron during pregnancy is associated with…

A

a small increased risk of cleft palate/lip - the MHRA advise that these risks need to be discussed with the pregnant woman before use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Consider a diagnosis of pneumonia if the child has:

A
high fever (over 39°C) and/or
persistently focal crackles.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A 27-year-old woman who is currently 39 weeks pregnant comes to see you complaining of itching down below. She has thick white discharge.

Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following treatment options would you advise?

A

Clotrimazole pessary

This patient has thrush which is treated with antifungal medication. This patient is pregnant, therefore cannot be given oral fluconazole as this is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its association with congenital abnormalities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Causes of neonatal hypotonia include:

A

neonatal sepsis
Werdnig-Hoffman disease (spinal muscular atrophy type 1)
hypothyroidism
Prader-Willi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A 39-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with what she describes as ‘Pre-menstrual syndrome’. She describes severe pain that occurs 3-4 days before the start of her period each month which stops her from being able to go to work. She has a regular 29-day cycle which has only started being painful in the past year. She is nulliparous and uses the progesterone-only pill for contraception.

What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

A

All patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea need to be referred to gynaecology for investigation

This patient has secondary dysmenorrhoea as her pain precedes the first day of her menstrual cycle. Secondary dysmenorrhoea is associated with pathologies such as pelvic inflammatory disease, endometriosis, adenomyosis, and fibroids. As it is pathological, it must be investigated further with a referral to gynaecology.

The combined oral contraceptive pill may improve her symptoms, depending on the cause, however, it is important that she is investigated first.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The IQ range for categories (according to ICD 10) is as follows:

A

Mild: 50-69
Moderate: 35-49
Severe: 20-34
Profound: below 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When to do USS UTI?

A

atypical any age - during
recurrent under 6m - during
1st under 6m - 4-6 weeks
recurrent over 6m - 4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When to do DMSA?

A

Any recurrent

atypical under 3y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When to do VCUG?

A

under 6m if recurrent or atypical

6m-3y - USS evidence, poor flow, non ecoli, family history of VUR

28
Q

Urinary incontinence management

A

overflow - specailaiswt urogynae. timed voiding.

Dribbling - urinary dye studies

29
Q

Anti D under 12 weeks:

A

 Anti-D is only indicated following: ectopic pregnancy, molar pregnancy, therapeutic TOP and in cases of uterine bleeding which is heavy/repeated or accompanied by abdominal pain

30
Q

calculating dates

A

9 m +7 + any days over 28

31
Q

Warts mx

A

o Often, no treatment required; might refer to GUM if STI risk factors
o Medical (contraindicated in pregnancy):
 Keratinised warts  imiquimod cream
 Non-keratinised warts  podophyllin/tri-chloro-acetic acid
o Surgical – cryotherapy, laser, electrocautery

32
Q

Chlamydia mx

A

• Management (can treat on suspicion before getting laboratory results back):
o 1st line – doxycycline, 100mg, BD 7 days (contra-indicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding)
o 2nd line / pregnant / breastfeeding – azithromycin (1g STAT)

o Contact tracing (6 months) Avoid sex until treatment has been completed
o Recommend STI screen

33
Q

alt treatment for PID

A

Ofloxacin and metronidazole

34
Q

Bartholin’s mx

A
o	Conservative (if draining and patient well)					Rupture
o	Incision and drainage ± ‘Word’ catheter ± Flucloxacillin, OD			Recurrence
o	Marsupialisation (forming an open pouch to stop the cyst from reforming)
35
Q

Eczema steroids potency ladder

A

hydrortisone, clobetasone, betamethasone, momeasone,clobetasol

 Steroid ladder – Help (hydrocortisone) Every (Eumovate) Busy (Betnovate) Dermatologist (Dermovate)

36
Q

impetigo

A

hydrogen peroxide

topical fusidic acid

extensive - oral flucox

37
Q

tinea mx

A

o Tinea Faciei, Tinea Corporis, Tinea Cruris or Tinea Pedis
 Mild  topical antifungals (e.g. terbinafine cream, clotrimazole)
 Moderate  hydrocortisone 1% cream
 Severe  oral antifungals (1st line: oral terbinafine; 2nd line: oral itraconazole)

o Tinea Capitis  oral antifungal (e.g. griseofulvin or terbinafine)

38
Q

Zodovudine when

A

Treatment with a single anti-retroviral drug (zidovudine) may be considered if your viral load is less than 10 000, your CD4 count is more than 350 and you are prepared to have a caesarean section. Your doctor will usually recommend that you start the treatment between 14 and 24 weeks of your pregnancy and continue until your baby is born.

39
Q

HIV testing baby

A

Your baby should be tested for HIV during the first 2 days, on discharge from hospital, at 6 weeks and at 12 weeks

40
Q

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

A

o Usually involving neck, shoulders, upper arms, most occur after waking up
o Begin around puberty

41
Q

Benign Rolandic Epilepsy

A

) (most common childhood epilepsy)
o S/S: seizures of face / upper limbs during sleep with hypersalivation & speech arrest
o AKA: Sylvian seizures
o Childhood (age 3-12yo) seizures – outgrown at end of puberty

42
Q

General endometrial cancer staging

A
I = limited to uterus
II = spread to cervix
III = spread adjacent
IV = distant spread
43
Q

Endometrial cancer mx

A

o FIGO staging (CT CAP > MRI)

o Stage 1 – requires all of the below:
 Total abdominal hysterectomy (TAH) +
 Bilateral salpingoopherectomy (BSO) +
 Peritoneal washings

o Stage 2+:
 Radical hysterectomy (include cervix)
 Radiotherapy adjunct

o Chemotherapy is of limited use and used if a cancer is not amenable to radiotherapy

o Hormone treatments:
 High-dose oral or intrauterine progestins (LNG-IUS)
 Indication: women with complex atypical hyperplasia + low-grade stage 1A endometrial tumours
 Relapse rates are high but may be suitable for those not fit for surgery or for fertility reasons

44
Q

Cervical cancer mx

A
45
Q

Vulval cancer Mx

A

over 2cm or over 1mm invasion makes it 1b

46
Q
hearing tests
birth 
6-9m 
18m -2.5y
over 2.5y
over 3y
A
47
Q

Pathological ctgs

A

 Sinusoidal rhythm  IMMEDIATE CAT 1 EMCS E.G.
• Severe foetal anaemia or hypoxia
• Foetal or maternal haemorrhage

 <100 bpm or >180 bpm

 Late decelerations >30 mins = maternal hypotension, pre-eclampsia, uterine hyperstimulation

 BV: <5 for >50 mins, >25 for >25 mins, sinusoidal

 Variable decelerations with any concerning characteristics in >50% contractions for <30 mins

 Acute bradycardia or a single prolonged deceleration lasting >3 mins (terminal bradycardia)

48
Q

Simple cysts follow up pre and post menopausal

A

Pre emnopausal; Simple/unilocular cyst:
 <5cm  no follow-up required
 5-7cm  repeat USS yearly
 >7cm  MRI ± surgery

Post

RMi under 200 and no concerning features then repeat ss and ca125 in 4/6 months

over 200 then ct-ap and mdt managment

49
Q

RMI low and high risk

A

 Features: menopausal status, USS features, CA125

 Score >250 is considered high-risk (<25 is low risk)

50
Q

mx OVARIAN TUMOUR

A
51
Q

UTI and Bacteriuria in Pregnancy mx

A
52
Q

Syphilis symtoms

A

o Primary (3-4w) – painless chancres ± local lymphadenopathy

53
Q

Herpes symptoms

A

 Asymptomatic
 Oral herpes
 Genital herpes (dysuria, frequency)
 Disseminated herpes (encephalitis, hepatitis, disseminated skin lesions)

54
Q

Herpes mx in pregnancy

A
55
Q

Summarise PKU, MCADD, Glutaric Aciduria T1, Isovaleric Acidaemia, Homocystinuria, Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD)

A
56
Q

Tricuspid atresia mx

A
57
Q

TGA mx

A

o Immediate prostaglandin infusion (PDA patency)
o Balloon atrial septoplasty (tears atrial septum down to allow mixing)
o Arterial switch surgery to switch the vessels

58
Q

TOF mx

A
59
Q

Hypoplastic Left-Heart Syndrome mx

A
60
Q

Threadwom mx

A

Mebendazole for whole househoilf

Under 6m then just hygeine for 6 weeks and ID specialist

NO exclusion

61
Q

Seborrhoeic Dermatitis mx

A

o 1st line if scalp affected -> regular washing with baby shampoo -> gentle brushing to remove scales

  • Soaking crusts overnight with white petroleum jelly or slightly warmed vegetable/olive oil, and shampooing in the morning / soften scales with baby oil, gentle brush, wash off with baby shampoo
  • Emulsifying ointment can be used if these measures don’t work
  • If other areas of skin affected, bathe infant ≥1/day using emollient as a soap substitute

o 2nd line if scalp affected  topical imidazole cream (e.g. clotrimazole, econazole, miconazole)

  • BD or TDS (depending on preparation) until symptoms disappear
  • Consider specialist advice if it lasts >4 weeks

o 3rd line if severe  mild topical steroids (e.g. 1% hydrocortisone)

62
Q

Ringowrm mx

A

All non tinea capitis:

 Mild  topical antifungals (e.g. terbinafine cream, clotrimazole)
 Moderate  hydrocortisone 1% cream
 Severe  oral antifungals (1st line: oral terbinafine; 2nd line: oral itraconazole)

Tinea capitis -

oral antfungal eg griseofulvin or terbinafine

63
Q

Lamba sign

A

DCDA

64
Q

T sign

A

MCDA/MCMA

65
Q

Shared placenta scans

A

16w every 2

66
Q

Twins no shared placenta scans

A

20w every 4 w