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LARE Site Inventory & Analysis > LAREPrep Section 2 Study Guide > Flashcards

LAREPrep Section 2 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

List the 7 primary goals of site planning:

A
  • Preserve open space, farmland and scenic areas
  • Direct new development toward existing communities
  • Encouraging mixed land use
  • Foster sense of place
  • Create walkable communities
  • Be cost effective
  • Encourage community stakeholder involvement
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2
Q

List the 5 sustainable design goals:

A
  • Protect existing environmental resources
  • Restore degraded environmental resources
  • Re-use previously developed sites
  • Build compact, walkable communities
  • Conserve resources at all scales
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3
Q

Describe the 7 development process steps: (flow chart graphic)

A
  • Programming and site selection
  • Site inventory (physical, biological, cultural)
  • Site analysis
  • Concept design
  • Design development
  • Construction docs
  • Design implementation
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4
Q

List the 3 components of a project program:

A
  • Goals and objectives
  • Design Elements
  • Special requirements for the design to fulfill
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5
Q

What’s the difference between goals and objectives in the context of Section 2 LARE?

A

Goals: Universal principles that do not change from project to project (health safety and welfare)

Objectives: Project specific outcomes (build a playgbround)

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6
Q

List the 7 elements that programming studies are guided by:

A
  • Market analysis
  • Literature reviews
  • User demand studies
  • Stakeholder interviews/surveys
  • Analysis of relevant precedence
  • Client objectives
  • Project budget
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7
Q

List the 3 elements that site selection is guided by:

A
  • Project objectives
  • Project requirements
  • The general location/area/region for the desired end use
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8
Q

List the 6 benefits of a thorough site selection:

A
  • Improved site function
  • Greater convenience and access for users
  • Reduced construction costs
  • Reduced maintenance and operational costs
  • Improved aesthetics
  • Reduced environmental impacts
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9
Q

List the 7 steps of the site selection process:

A
  • Determine the project objectives and requirements
  • Establish the site selection criteria
  • Identify potential sites
  • Evaluate each potential site against the project requirements
  • Rank the potential sites against one another
  • Select the ideal site
  • Test the projects feasibility
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10
Q

The redevelopment or re use of brownfield/infill sites promote what 5 benefits?

A
  • Economic revitalization
  • Providing housing near jobs and services
  • Decreasing automobile use
  • Creating a TOD / walkable neighborhood
  • Creates a grater sense of community
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11
Q

What is a community resource inventory?

A

An inventory of wetlands, archaeological sites, scenic views and significant wildlife habitats, forests, floodplains, farmlands, aquifers, and historic structures

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12
Q

What is included in a base map?

A
  • Property boundary
  • Public rights-of-way
  • Easements
  • Topography
  • Existing buildings
  • Existing utilities
  • Flood zones
  • Adjacent properties and land uses
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13
Q

What 6 elements are included in a 7.5 minute or quadrangle topographic map?

A
  • 1:24,000 scale
  • 40’ contour lines
  • Township, range, and sectional info
  • Transportation infrastructure
  • Rivers, floodplains, wetlands and physiographic data
  • Buildings and new construction
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14
Q

List the 4 Public Land Survey System sizes:

A
  • Quadrangle - 24x24 sq miles
  • Township - 6x6 sq miles
  • Sections - 1x1 sq mile OR 640 acres
  • Quater sections - 160 acres
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15
Q

How do the Principal Meridian, Base Line, Range Line and Township Line divide up a quadrangle?

A
  • Principal Meridian: N/S middle
  • Base Line: E/W middle
  • Range Line: N/S on the sides of the Prime Meridian
  • Township Line: E/W above and below the Base Line
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16
Q

What is contained in an ALTA Survey?

A

Property Boundary, public rights-of-way, easements, topography, existing Buildings, existing utilities, flood zones, adjacent property uses

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17
Q

What is included in a topographic survey?

A

Contours, spot elevations, vegetation and physical attributes, utilities

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18
Q

How is a backsight used?

A

A point used to determine the elevation and/or angular orientation on the surveying instrument

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19
Q

How do you solve a bearing question?

A

Use the straight line to subtract from the arched line, then add in cardinal directions based on where the line is traveling

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20
Q

What is chaining in surveying?

A

basic surveying with linear measurements. Used in small, flat areas.

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21
Q

What are infrared aerials used for?

A

To track the growth of vegetation over time. Color infrared can be used to track tree diseases.

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22
Q

What is leveling in surveying?

A

The process of determining the height of one level relative to another. Used to establish the elevation point relative to a datum.

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23
Q

What is a datum in surveying?

A

A known arbitrary horizontal plane.

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24
Q

What is LIDAR in surveying?

A

Light Detection and Ranging. Can see through vegetation to provide more complete topo surveys. Lower cost than a field survey.

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25
Q

What is a stadia measurement in surveying?

A

A technique that uses the observed height of a 6’ tall object to infer horizontal distance.

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26
Q

What is traversing in surveying?

A

A technique that maps an area of land using a series of interconnected lines. A traverse is considered open if it does not form an enclosed area. Lines have both a bearing and distance.

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27
Q

What are the 5 elements included in abiotic systems?

A

Soils, topography, geology, hydrology, climate

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28
Q

What are the 2 elements included in biotic systems?

A

Vegetation and wildlife

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29
Q

What are the 6 elements included in cultural and human systems?

A
  • Land use and regulations
  • Legal and financial
  • Utilities
  • Transportation
  • Historic resources
  • Sensory data
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30
Q

Describe a soil series.

A

A group of soils originating from the same parent material. The way to differentiate them is from the texture.

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31
Q

Describe a soil horizon.

A

A layer of soil whose physical, chemical and biological characteristics differ from the layers above or beneath.

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32
Q

Describe a soil profile.

A

A vertical section of soil extending through all soil horizons and extending into the parent material.

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33
Q

List the 3 components of soil:

A

Sand, silt, clay

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34
Q

What is the diameter of sand?
What is the diameter of silt?
What is the diameter of clay?

A
  • From bigger than 2 mm to 0.05 mm
  • From 0.05mm to 0.002 mm
  • Smaller than 0.002 mm
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35
Q

What’s in well-graded soil?

A

A wide range and even distribution of soil particle sizes, with the smaller diameter particles filling the voids created by the larger diameter particles.

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36
Q

What’s in gap-graded soil?

A

A soil that contains multiple particle sizes, but gradation is missing a few diameter sizes.

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37
Q

What’s in uniformly graded soil?

A

A soil containing one range of particle size.

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38
Q

What is permeability?

A

The rate that water runs through soil.

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39
Q

What is infiltration?

A

The rate of speed at which water flows into soil through small pores.

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40
Q

What is percolation?

A

The downward movement of water in soil.

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41
Q

What are hydric soils?

A

Characterized by being highly saturated with water for prolonged periods of time, it renders the soil anaerobic and gives it a blueish color.

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42
Q

Describe soil bearing capacity.

A

The measure of a soils decrease in volume under pressure of a given weight. Used in determining what kind of foundations can be built.

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43
Q

Describe angle of repose.

A

The maximum slope at which a loose material can be piled while remaining stable.

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44
Q

Describe soil elasticity.

A

The ability of a soil to return to its original shape after being subjected to a load condition.

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45
Q

Describe soil plasticity.

A

The ability of a soil to deformed under pressure without breaking apart.

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46
Q

Describe liquid limit.

A

The minimum moisture content at which a soil will flow under its own weight.

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47
Q

What are the 7 practices used to reduce soil erosion?

A
  • Preserve existing vegetation
  • Reduce the total land disturbance
  • Stabilize excavated areas with seeding, matting or mulching and divert runoff away from those areas
  • Minimize disturbance to steep slopes
  • Schedule clearing and grading activities during the dry season and suspend them before precipitation events.
  • Locate non-point pollution sources (construction roads) in areas that do not drain directly into bodies of water.
  • Introduce erosion control fencing, blankets and stabilize drainage channels with erosion resistant materials (riprap).
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48
Q

Describe gully erosion.

A

The widening, deepening, and headcutting of small channels and waterways due to erosion.

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49
Q

Describe rill erosion.

A

When runoff water forms small channels as it concentrates down a slope.

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50
Q

Describe sheet erosion.

A

The removal of a fairly uniform layer of materials or soil from a land surface by the act of rainfall and surface runoff.

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51
Q

What does NPK stand for?

A

Nitrogen, phosphorous, potassium.

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52
Q

What parts NPK is fertilizer?

A

20 N, 10 P, 20K

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53
Q

What does nitrogen do for a plant?

A

Supports rapid plant growth.

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54
Q

What does phosphorus do for a plant?

A

Helps a plant convert other nutrients into useful building blocks to grown.

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55
Q

What does potassium do for aplant?

A

Helps strengthen a plants abilities to resist diseases and plays an important part in crop yields.

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56
Q

What is prime soil?

A

A USDA classification of a soil that requires the least amount of inputs for productive agriculture.

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57
Q

Describe the pH scale, what is neutral and what pH plants prefer.

A

Scale of 0-14, 7 is neutral, plants prefer 5.5-7.5

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58
Q

What end of the pH scale are acidic soils on?

A

0-7

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59
Q

What end of the pH scale are alkaline soils located on?

A

7-14

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60
Q

What do you add to overly acidic soils?

A

Lime

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61
Q

What do you add to overly alkaline soils?

A

Sulfur

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62
Q

How are ridges identified on a topo map?

A

Contour lines pointing downhill. (spot a is higher that spot b)

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63
Q

How are valleys identified on a topo map?

A

Contour lines pointing uphill. (spot a is lower than spot b)

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64
Q

Where do watershed edges occur?

A

Ridgelines.

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65
Q

Describe the characters of slope and their percentages.

A
  • 0-3% - nearly level
  • 3-7% - gently sloping
  • 7-12% moderately sloping
  • 12-25% - strongly sloping
  • 25-40% - steeply sloping
  • 40-70% - very steeply sloping
  • 70%+ - extremely sloping
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66
Q

Describe the 5 slope aspects and their characteristics:

A
  • Southern slopes receive the most sun during the winter months
  • Southeastern slopes offer the most desirable microclimates
  • North-facing slopes are colder than south-facing slopes
  • Northwestern slopes receive colder winter winds
  • Western slopes are hottest in the summer
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67
Q

What 3 factors does geology take into consideration?

A

Landforms, seismic hazards, depth to bedrock.

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68
Q

What is a karst?

A

landscape underlain by limestone that has been eroded by dissolution, producing ridges, towers, fissures, and sinkholes.

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69
Q

What is glacial erratic?

A

A glacially deposited rock native to the area where it rests.

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70
Q

What is a moraine?

A

A mass of rocks and sediment carried down and deposited by a glacier, typically as edges in a ridge.

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71
Q

What are the 7 negative impacts of land development?

A
  • Increase runoff volume and rate
  • Increased frequency and severity of flooding
  • Reduced water quality
  • Reduced infiltration and aquifer recharge
  • Reduced stream flow during dry weather
  • Ecological degradation
  • Reduced recreational opportunities on the water
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72
Q

Describe time of concentration.

A

The time needed for water to flow to the most remote point in a watershed to the watershed outlet.

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73
Q

Describe Q=ciA

A

Q - Peak discharge rate in cubic feet per second
c - runoff coefficient (how permeable a surface is)
i - rainfall intensity in inches per hour
A - Drainage area measured in acres

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74
Q

List the 7 benefits that a riparian zone offers:

A
  • Groundwater recharge and discharge
  • Sediment stabilization
  • Flood attenuation
  • Water quality maintenance
  • Wildlife habitat
  • Climate moderation
  • Shoreline protection
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75
Q

Describe the difference between first order and second order streams

A

First order - stream beginning at the source of the watershed
Second order - joined later downstream

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76
Q

Describe ephemeral, intermittent, and perennial streams:

A

Ephemeral: flows only in response to precipitation
intermittent: flows only part of the time or through only part of its reach
Perennial: flows constantly

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77
Q

What percent chance does a 100 year floodplain have in flooding?

A

1%

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78
Q

Describe the 3 areas that compose a floodplain:

A

Channel - Area where the stream flows under normal conditions
Floodway - Area that floods during the 100-year flood
Flood fringe - Area outside of the floodway that does not contain floodwaters and usually contains slow-moving or standing waters (this is still in the 100yr floodplain)

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79
Q

What is Base Flood Elevation (BFE)?

A

Whole-foot elevations of the 100yr floodplain that have been studied in certain intervals. Usually used in determining what height a building must be constructed at to be considered safe from flooding.

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80
Q

Describe freeboard.

A

Any portion of the flood in excess measured above the BFE.

81
Q

What are the 4 key variables of a floodplain?

A
  • Topography
  • Soil
  • Vegetation types
  • Extents of past flood flows
82
Q

Describe point source pollution.

A

Any single identifiable source of pollution from which pollutants are discharged.

83
Q

Describe non-point source pollution.

A

Caused by rainfall and snowfall moving over and through the ground, during which it absorbs natural and human made pollutants and deposits it in a body of water.

84
Q

What are the 7 negative impacts of sediment?

A
  • Decline in water quality
  • Negative impact to aquatic vegetaion and animals
  • Negative impact to aquatic recreation
  • Unwanted biological growth
  • Increased turbidity
  • Decreased flow capacity in streams and rivers
  • Flooding in areas that haven’t before
85
Q

Describe aggradation.

A

When friction causes sediment to pick up and gather downstream, or when sedimentation is deposited on the inner curve of a stream or river. Sedimentation is also referred to as aggradation.

86
Q

Describe high water table.

A

A “shallow water table”, contributes to increased flooding and can make construction more costly because the underground structure will need to properly waterproofed.

87
Q

List the 3 things to know about aquifers:

A
  • Groundwater tables are falling as water demands exceed the aquifer recharge rate
  • Excess pumping of aquifer systems can result in land subsidence and related ground failures
  • Aquifer recharge areas are particularly important areas to identify and protect.
88
Q

List the 5 elements of climate:

A
  • Temperature
  • Humidity
  • Wind
  • Precipitation
  • Solar radiation
89
Q

Describe Albedo.

A

A measurement of an objects reflectivity (varies between 1 and 0) 0 - black 1 - white.
High Albedo = More reflective

90
Q

Describe angle of incidence.

A

The angle at which sunlight hits a surface.

91
Q

Describe azimuth.

A

The horizontal arc in between north and south that the sun is on when reflecting light towards earth.

92
Q

Describe drainage wind.

A

A wind that blows from a higher elevation to a lower one.

93
Q

Describe microclimate

A

When the 5 factors of climate differ for a small geographical area.

94
Q

List the 5 things to know about microclimates:

A
  • Southern exposures offer the best sun during the winter months
  • Southeastern exposures offer the best microclimates
  • North facing orientations are colder that south
  • Northwester orientations receive cold winter winds
  • Western orientations are hottest in the summer
95
Q

Describe carrying capacity.

A

A measure of the type and density of development that an area can be supported without a detriment to society, the economy, or environment now or in the future.

96
Q

Describe ecological footprint.

A

The impact of a person/community or use on an environment, expressed as the amount of land required to sustain their use of natural resources.

97
Q

Describe a xerophyte plant.

A

A plant requiring little moisture to survive. A “drought tolerant” plant.

98
Q

Describe a mesophyte plant.

A

A plant that is adapted to neither dry or wet environments and grow best with a moderate amount of water.

99
Q

Describe a hydrophyte plant.

A

A plant that lives in an aquatic or wetland condition and requires a surplus of water.

100
Q

Describe the 7 benefits of a wetland:

A
  • Groundwater recharge and discharge
  • Sediment stabilization
  • Flood attenuation
  • Water quality maintenance
  • Wildlife habitat
  • Climate moderation
  • Shoreline protection
101
Q

What are the 3 elements that wetlands are defined by?

A
  • Hydrology
  • Soils
  • Specific vegetation
102
Q

List the 5 wetland types.

A
  • Marine (ocean)
  • Estuarine (tidal rivers of coastal waters, tidal mashes, mangrove swamps, tide flats)
  • Riverine (rivers and streams)
  • Lacustrine ( lakes and swamps, large ponds)
  • Palustrine (marshes, wet meadows, fens, bogs, swamps)
103
Q

Define a bog.

A

Type of wetland found in northern climates with acidic soils, rich organic material deposits (peat). Bogs are fed by rainwater and fens by groundwater.

104
Q

Define a estuary.

A

Semi-enclosed coastal body of water concerned with the open sea. Affected by the tides and contain brackish water (seawater and freshwater combined).

105
Q

Define a marsh.

A

A type of wetland with vegetation no larger than six feet tall.

106
Q

Define a swamp.

A

A wetland dominated by wooded vegetation.

107
Q

What 3 things are on an arborist survey?

A
  • Tree location and size
  • Tree species
  • Tree condition, health, and tolerance to disturbance
108
Q

Define a plant black spot.

A

A fungal disease that causes black spots on the upper sides of leaves. Occurs when there is lots of wet weather.

109
Q

Define a plant canker.

A

An open wound that has been infected by a fungal or bacterial pathogen. Primarily found on woody plants.

110
Q

Define chlorosis.

A

A condition caused by an iron deficiency, effects are yellowed leaves and green veins. occurs in highly alkaline (high pH soils), over watering and a lack of soil aeration.

111
Q

Define fasciation.

A

A genetic mutation of a plants growing tip, it affects the stems, flowers or fruits by inducing malformed growths.

112
Q

Define powdery mildew.

A

A Fungal disease that creates a white powdery substance most visible on the upper parts of leaves. The fungus like low moisture soils and high humidity.

113
Q

What is the best thing to do for wildlife habitat?

A

Look for fragmentation and increase the wildlife corridors.

114
Q

What are the 6 techniques used in data collection for site inventory and analysis?

A
  • Interviews
  • Focus groups
  • Charrettes / workshops
  • Surveys
  • Literature and document research
  • Participant observation
115
Q

What are the 8 elements of a successful focus group?

A
  • An invitation
  • Transportation to the meeting site
  • Audio and video recording equipment
  • Facilitator with a script and core themes
  • Presentation materials/visual aids
  • Refreshments
  • Release forms
  • Transcript of the focus group discussion
116
Q

What 5 elements do visual surveys address?

A
  • Building mass / height / placement
  • Building articulation
  • Streetscapes
  • Open space / parks
  • Parking and mass transit
117
Q

List the 4 key elements of a charrette:

A
  • Identification of a specific community problem to understand, study, and hopefully resolve
  • Participation of the affected, interested citizens who are able to be a part of the decision making process
  • Involvement of professionals from within and outside the affected community
  • Commitment of the relevant power structure to put into effect the plans and recommendations created by the charrette. Representatives of the power need to be present to hear the developments
118
Q

Define a post-occupancy evaluation (POE).

A

A process to determine if the build design meets the needs of the owner and its users. Creates conclusions that can be applied to design guidelines.

119
Q

Define a needs assessment.

A

typically used during the development of a master plan, or at the beginning of a project process. Determines what specific populations believes they are lacking. Data needs can also be collected from site observation.

120
Q

For surveys (Interviews and questionnaires), what are the 5 elements needed to work best?

A
  • Preceded by pre-notification
  • Contain clear, non-technical langueage
  • Have a well delineated purpose clearly stated in the introduction
  • Are concise and use graphics as needed
  • Are not overly-difficult or time consuming
121
Q

Describe the 5 elements of community visioning:

A
  • Reflect core community values
  • Draw from the whole of the community
  • Address emerging issues or trends
  • Promote local action
  • Envision a preferred future
122
Q

Describe a comprehensive plan (also known as a comprehensive master plan / master plan).

A

A planning document that established a government’s policy for long term future development, usually 20-30 years. The documents are un-binding and can be revised.

123
Q

What 6 elements does a comprehensive plan (also known as a comprehensive master plan / master plan) take into account in their plans?

A
  • Housing
  • Transportation
  • Utilities
  • Natural and cultural resources
  • Community demographics
  • Economic development
124
Q

Describe the 3 issues that zoning regulations address:

A
  • Permitted use of land and buildings
  • Intensity of use
  • Height and other dimensional standards (Floor area ratio FAR)
125
Q

Describe a zone overlay district.

A

Special districts established within the zoning code that offer additional protections to specific resources (prime farmlands, historic districts).

126
Q

What is a conditional use in zoning?

A

Similar to a variance but allows for non conforming uses to be permitted in a certain zone. Variances don’t allow a change of use.

127
Q

Describe floor area ration (FAR).

A

Established the ration between gross square footage of a building and the size of the lot. A one story building covering 50% of the site would have an FAR of .5. A two story building covering 50% of the site would have an FAR of 1.

128
Q

List the 4 different types of development patters:

A
  • Cluster
  • Mixed use (MU) development
  • Planned unite (PUD) development
  • Transit-oriented (TOD) development
129
Q

List the 6 benefits of a cluster development:

A
  • Preserved open space and character
  • Protection of critical natural and cultural / historic resources on site
  • Reduction of impervious surfaces across site
  • Lowered construction costs for streets, utilities and other infrastructure
  • Reduction in site disturbance and grading
  • Reduced visual impact
130
Q

List the 7 benefits of a mixed use MU development:

A
  • Provides a sense of place
  • Encourages sustainability via high density development
  • Caters to diverse public
  • Density encourages pedestrian activity and use of public transit
  • Creates active public spaces
  • Grater public safety due to use
  • conductive to urban infill and historic re-use
131
Q

List the 5 challenges of implementing a mixed use MU development:

A
  • Zoning ordinances
  • Complex financing
  • Increased project complexity
  • Requires extensive interdisciplinary coordination
  • May increase project start to finish time and approval process
132
Q

Describe a planned unit (PUD) development.

A

Often framed as a variation to a traditional zoning district practice, PUDs allow for consolidation of multiple parcels into a single master planned project, which provides grater flexibility and improvements to a development.

133
Q

What are the 7 principles of a transit oriented (TOD) Development?

A
  • Encourage high density development
  • Mitigate urban sprawl
  • Mix commercial / office and residential site uses
  • Provide housing for all price ranges
  • Reduce parking requirements
  • Encourage use of public transit
  • Create walkable communities and active public spaces
134
Q

What are the two distances for TOD walkable communities? (to transit hubs and mass transit stations)

A
  • 1/8 mile to transit hubs in downtown areas
  • 1/2 mile to mass transit stations
135
Q

Describe a sanborn map.

A

A fire insurance map used from the early 20th century to 1990. Used for risk assessment.

136
Q

What percentage slope is considered a ramp?

A

5%, 1’ over 20’.

137
Q

A what slope does a ramp need a handrail?

A

8.33%

138
Q

What is the maximum rise and run between ramps?

A

30” rise max, 30’ run max.

139
Q

Define a capital improvement program, AKA a capital improvement plan.

A

Outlines services to be repaired, expanded or upgraded for the next 4-10 years. Provides a schedule and options for financing capital improvements.

140
Q

Describe a citizens’ advisory committee.

A

A group representing the local community that provides feedback to decisionmakers, planning commissions, city councils, private agencies, etc.

141
Q

Describe design guidelines.

A

Design standards for architecture and landscape architecture for new developments used to promote a vision or cohesiveness for a community. Mandatory items are called “design controls”.

142
Q

Describe a task force.

A

An ad hoc citizens committee supported by a government agency with a clearly defined objective related to a single problem or subject.

143
Q

Describe a technical advisory committee.

A

Groups that represent technical or scientific interests related to the work conducted by a planning commission, city council, public agency, or private developer.

144
Q

What 5 legal areas should a site inventory and analysis take into account?

A
  • Jurisdiction
  • Property value
  • Property title/ownership
  • Easements
  • Covenants
145
Q

Describe purchase of development rights (PDR).

A

A mechanism used to control development on a property. The property owner is selling the development potential. Public entities and non-profits will purchase the development rights because the current zoning overlay is lacking flexibility or appropriateness.

146
Q

Describe transfer of development rights (TDR).

A

Similar to a PDR, but it allows the uses to be transferred to a different location, like a wetland bank or other agricultural, environmental or open space uses.

147
Q

What are the 5 typical easement types?

A
  • Access
  • Utility
  • Conservation
  • Scenic
  • Solar
148
Q

Describe a covenant.

A

AKA deed restrictions, a consensual agreement that restrict what can be done with a private property. Anything from creating a rule that one cannot hang laundry outdoors, to restricting owners from keeping roosters or chickens.

149
Q

What are the 6 typical types of utilities?

A
  • Sewer
  • Stormwater
  • Electric
  • Gas
  • Water
  • Telecommunications
150
Q

Describe arterial streets.

A

Interstates and expressways, access is controlled or limited for higher speeds.

151
Q

Describe collector streets.

A

Carries trips to and from arterials into residential, commercial or industrial areas.

152
Q

Describe local streets.

A

Most residential and other side streets with the lowest volume of traffic.

153
Q

What holds more cars: a 45 degree or 90 degree parking lot?

A

90, but a 45 degree has narrower aisles.

154
Q

List some possible historic resources.

A

Bridges, buildings, walls, signs, or any other structures with historical significance.

155
Q

What does the National Register of Historic Places use as their criteria?

A
  • Significant events
  • Lives of famous US people
  • Distinctive time period styling or made by a famous person
  • Yields important information to history or pre history
156
Q

List the 5 elements of sensory data:

A
  • Character
  • Noise
  • Odor
  • Visual quality
  • Visibility
157
Q

List the 5 elements of character:

A
  • Location
  • Scale
  • Mix
  • Time
  • Movement
158
Q

List the 5 elements that affect a noise barrier:

A
  • Distance
  • Width
  • Continuity
  • Height
  • Mass
159
Q

Describe the difference between a viewshed map and a frequency seen map.

A

A viewshed map deals with preserving scenic views and a frequency seen map looks at the visibility of something from two or more vantage points.

160
Q

List the 4 elements of an environmental impact study (EIS):

A
  • A description and map of the area to be affected
  • An inventory and analysis of the sites resources
  • Detailed studies of the environmental consequences of the development
  • Description of development alternatives and/or mitigation, including impacts of each alternative
161
Q

What is the difference between an environmental impact study (EIS) and an environmental site assessment (ESA)?

A

An ESA is similar to an EIS, but it is prepared for a real estate holding and looks at potential environmental impacts, contamination or liabilities on site. They often entail historical research on a site to determine if past site uses would have caused a release of hazardous substances and determine if any environmental issues still exist on site.

162
Q

List the 6 elements of a feasibility study:

A
  • A market analysis
  • Development yield of a site
  • Regulatory permits and approvals required for project approval
  • Estimated project timeline
  • Budget and funding mechanisms available for use
  • Initial design concepts
163
Q

Describe the 4 steps of the concept design phase:

A
  • Delineate primary and secondary conservation areas
  • In the remaining areas, delineate the locations that are suitable for development
  • Within the suitable areas, delineate “pods” of uses and relationships
  • Locate the primary and secondary circulation systems
164
Q

What are the 4 on-site determinants to consider during the concept design phase?

A
  • Physical conditions
  • Regulations and standards
  • Open space
  • Boundary interface with off site properties and infrastructures
165
Q

What are the 4 off-site determinants to consider during the concept design phase?

A
  • Neighborhood, community and regional character
  • Nuisances (high way noise, etc.)
  • Number and location of site access points
  • Presence of significant views
166
Q

What is the difference between a functional use diagram and a concept plan?

A

Functional use if more broad, shows relative relationship not to scale, where a concept plan is a first attempt at showing real spatial relationships.

167
Q

What are the 3 key site elements of a concept plan?

A
  • Open space
  • Circulation
  • Development pods/activity zones
168
Q

List the 6 typical elements of a concept plan:

A
  • Open space
  • Buildings
  • Landmarks
  • Vehicle, pedestrian and other circulation
  • Utilities
  • Views
169
Q

What are the 5 factors for communicating project information to the public/client?

A
  • Message
  • Medium
  • Audience
  • Setting
  • Time
170
Q

What does the LARE committee consider this line type to be?
——- - ——- - ——- - ——-

A

A watershed boundary or ridge.

171
Q

What are the 4 factors of site analysis?

A
  • Proposed site uses
  • Existing on-site and off-site conditions
  • Requirements for permitting and approvals
  • Costs of data collection and analysis
172
Q

What 3 attribute maps can be created from topography?

A
  • Elevation
  • Slope
  • Aspect
173
Q

What 5 aspects are included in a soil inventory map?

A
  • pH
  • Permeability
  • Erosion potential
  • Depth to bedrock
  • Depth to seasonally high-water table
174
Q

What are the 5 functional elements of a site?

A
  • Edges
  • Paths
  • Districts
  • Nodes
  • Landmarks
175
Q

Describe the 3 steps of a suitability analysis (usually done with layering in GIS):

A
  • Identify suitability criteria for the land use
  • Collect and map site attributes
  • Identify and map the locations of the values that meet the suitability criteria
176
Q

What is LESA?

A

Land Evaluation and Site Assessment

177
Q

List 3 positive site amenities:

A
  • Visual amenity
  • Natural Resource
  • Cultural Resource
178
Q

What 3 elements does a conceptual design take into account?

A
  • Program
  • Community Goals
  • Site Suitability
179
Q

List the 4 ways the government tries to protect health safety and welfare:

A
  • Public investment (ex: transportation and utilities)
  • Regulations (ex: zoning)
  • Incentives and disincentives (ex: preferential taxation and zoning bonuses)
  • Land use planning (ex: comprehensive plan)
180
Q

What 3 elements are needed for a site plan review?

A
  • Existing conditions
  • Proposed development activities
  • Impacts of the proposed development activities
181
Q

List the 3 geological factors that increase construction costs:

A
  • Shallow bedrock
  • Seismic fault
  • Soils with low bearing strength
182
Q

List the 3 factors of fire danger:

A
  • Weather
  • Topography
  • Existing fuel load
183
Q

What 3 elements would a municipal planning agency not review during a site plan submittal?

A
  • Functional use diagram
  • Concept plan
  • Site inventory and analysis
184
Q

What is transpiration?

A

Water removed from a site through plant material.

185
Q

What three factors directly influence the scope of site inventory and analysis?

A
  • Proposed uses
  • Cost of data collection and analysis
  • Permitting requirements
186
Q

What type of site is a Phase I ESA be conducted on?

A

A brownfield site.

187
Q

What are the 3 soil textures?

A

Sand, silt, clay. (From largest to smallest)

188
Q

What 3 elements should be collected during a site visit?

A
  • Site elements not found on a survey
  • Stakeholder interviews
  • Health and character of existing vegetation
189
Q

What 2 elements are not a part of site inventory and analysis?

A
  • Construction documents
  • Purchase price of the property in question
190
Q

What produces hydrophobic soils?

A

Wildfires

191
Q

What is the percentage of loam soils

A

40% sand, 40% silt, 20% clay

192
Q

What is the most important type of ecosystem?

A

Salt marshes

193
Q

Describe site topography, slope and elevation information:

A

Site topography, slopes and elevational information on maps generally follows a graphic convention in which light tones or warmer color values represent higher elevations and dark tones or cooler color values represent lower elevations. Contour lines are often used in lieu of color values on specific map types, but this does not constitute a “color convention” as the question requests

194
Q

How many townships in a quadrangle?

A

64 (24 sq mi each)

195
Q

In a topo survey, elevational info is only accurate to what?

A

Spot elevations and contour half interval.

196
Q

What are the 4 dividers of pH?

A

pH is considered neutral at 7.0, with levels above 7.0 being alkaline, and those below 7.0 being acidic. pH above 8.5 is generally considered strongly alkaline and pH below 5.5 is considered strongly acidic.

197
Q

What is a purpose of an as built survey?

A

To ensure the project was built per the plans.

198
Q

What are the three milestones of the construction process?

A

Pre-Construction Conference (kickoff meeting), Construction Admin, Project Closeout.

199
Q
A

LARE Site Inventory & Analysis (1 decks)

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