Lange Review Flashcards

1
Q

Name the largest artery in the body

A

Aorta

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2
Q

The abdominal aorta bifurcates at what level

A

L4

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3
Q

Name the 2 arteries the aorta bifurcates into

A

Right and left common iliac arteries

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4
Q

Name the first visceral branch of the abdominal aorta

A

Celiac axis

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5
Q

What are the 3 branches of the celiac axis

A

1) common hepatic artery
2) left gastric artery
3) splenic artery

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6
Q

What artery follows a tortuous horizontal course along the posterosuperior margin of the pancreatic body

A

Splenic artery

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7
Q

What artery arises from the anterior border of the abdominal aorta about 1 cm inferior to the celiac trunk

A

SMA

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8
Q

The SMA is _____ to the body of the pancreas

A

Posterior

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9
Q

The right renal artery courses______ to the IVC

A

Posteriorly

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10
Q

These arteries are small vessels that arise off the anterior border of the aorta and inferior to the renal arteries

A

Gonadal arteries

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11
Q

What artery is a small artery that arises off the anterior aspect of the abdominal aorta and is slightly left of midline

A

IMA

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12
Q

Name the arterial disease in which the vessel wall loses its elasticity and becomes hardened

A

Arteriosclerosis

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13
Q

What is the most common cause of aneurysms

A

Arteriosclerosis

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14
Q

How is the aorta measured

A

Outer border to outer border

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15
Q

Name the 3 types of aneurysms

A

1) true
2) dissecting
3) pseudo (false)

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16
Q

Which aneurysm has dilation of all 3 layers of the vessel wall

A

True

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17
Q

Name the 3 types of true aneurysms

A

1) fusiform
2) saccular
3) berry

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18
Q

What type of true aneurysm is the most common type and is characterized by an elongated spindle shaped dilatation of the artery

A

Fusiform

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19
Q

What type of true aneurysm is characterized by a focal outpouching of the vessel wall primarily caused by trauma or infection

A

Saccular

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20
Q

What type of aneurysm occurs when there is a tear of the intima layer of the vessel wall causing blood to collect between the intima layer and the media layer

A

Dissecting aneurysm

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21
Q

What type of aneurysm results from a tear in the vessel wall that permits blood to escape into the surrounding tissue

A

Pseudo aneurysm

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22
Q

The IVC carries deoxygenated blood into the ______ atrium of the heart

A) right
B) left

A

A) right

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23
Q

The right renal vein is located where in relation to the right renal artery

A

Anterior

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24
Q

What vein courses anterior to the aorta and posterior to the SMA

A

Left renal vein

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25
Q

Where does the right gonadal vein empty directly into

A

IVC

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26
Q

Where does the left gonadal vein empty and drain into

A

Empties unit left renal vein and drains into the IVC

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27
Q

What is the most common tumor that involves the IVC

A

Renal cell carcinoma

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28
Q

What is the sequence of echogenicity of abdominal structures from hyperechoic to hypoechoic

A

1) renal sinus
2) pancreas
3) liver
4) spleen
5) renal cortex

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29
Q

Which portion of the liver receives both right and left portal branches

A

Caudate lobe also drains directly into the IVC via the emissary veins

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30
Q

What vein divides the liver into right and left lobes

A

Middle hepatic vein

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31
Q

What vein divides the right lobe of the liver into anterior and posterior segments

A

Right hepatic vein

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32
Q

What vein divides the left of the liver into medial and lateral segments

A

Left hepatic vein

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33
Q

The ______ ______ is a remnant of the fetal ductus venosus

A

Ligamentum venosum

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34
Q

What divides the caudate lobe from the left lobe

A

Ligamentum venosum

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35
Q

This is a remnant of the fetal umbilical vein

A

Ligamentum teres

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36
Q

This courses within the left intersegmental fissure dividing the left lobe into medial and lateral segments

A

Ligamentum teres

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37
Q

Sonographically this is seen as a round hyperechoic area in the left lobe of the liver

A

Falciform ligament

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38
Q

This separates the right and left lobes of the liver . Seen as an echogenic linear line extending from the portal vein to the neck of the GB

A

Main lobar fissure

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39
Q

The majority of the total blood supplied to the liver is from what

A

The main portal vein

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40
Q

This drains deoxygenated blood into the IVC

A

Hepatic veins

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41
Q

What are nonpulsatile increase in size and course superiorly toward the IVC

A

Hepatic veins

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42
Q

What vein is formed posterior to the pancreatic neck by confluence of the splenic vein and SMV

A

Portal vein

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43
Q

What 3 things does the portal triad contain

A

1) portal vein
2) hepatic artery
3) bile duct

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44
Q

What is the CBD formed by

A

Formed by the confluence of the common hepatic duct and the cystic duct

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45
Q

AST is formerly known as

A

SGOT

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46
Q

What liver function test is increased with hepatocellular disease and is useful in detecting acute hepatitis

A

AST

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47
Q

ALT is formerly known as

A

SGPT

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48
Q

What liver function test is increased with hepatocellular disease and is used to assess jaundice

A

ALT

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49
Q

What liver function test is normally found in serum and it’s level rises in liver and biliary tract disorders while bile excretion is impaired

A

ALP

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50
Q

Which liver function test is produced by the fetal liver and yolk sac, GI tract, scrotal and heptocellular germ cell neoplasms and other cancers in adults

A

AFP

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51
Q

This is elevated when there is an obstruction of the biliary system

A

Direct bilirubin (conjugated)

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52
Q

Excessive destruction of red blood cells/hemolysis associated with anemias and liver disease

A

Indirect bilirubin (unconjugated)

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53
Q

Obstructive jaundice is an example of

A) direct bilirubin
B) indirect bilirubin

A

A) direct bilirubin

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54
Q

An enlarged left and caudate lobe, increased liver echogenicity with decrease through transmission and decrease visualization of vessel walls describes

A

Fatty liver

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55
Q

Hypoechoic liver parenchyma, increased echogenicity if portal vein walls and thickened GB wall describes

A

Acute viral hepatitis

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56
Q

What is the most common type of glycogen storage disease

A

Von Gierke disease

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57
Q

What is the most common cause of cirrhosis

A

Alcohol abuse

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58
Q

-Formation of collateral venous channels
-splenomegaly
-GI tract bleeding
-Ascites
Are all clinical findings of what

A

Portal hypertension

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59
Q

-dilation of portal vein
-dilation of SMV
- formation of collaterals
-varies
-reversed blood flow
-splenomegaly
-recanalization of the umbilical vein
Are all sonographic findings of

A

Portal hypertension

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60
Q

Thrombosis, invasion of the portal vein by a tumor describes

A

Portal vein obstruction

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61
Q

-nonvisualization of the portal vein
-echoes within the portal vein
-dilation of the splenic and SMV
Are all sonographic findings of

A

Portal vein obstruction

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62
Q

Obstruction of the hepatic veins caused by thrombosis or compression of a liver mass describes

A

Budd-Chiari Syndrome

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63
Q

-reduced or no visualization of the hepatic veins
-hepatic vein proximal to the obstruction may be dilated
-large and hypoechoic caudate lobe
-ascites
-abnormal Doppler blood flow
All are sono findings of

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

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64
Q

What is another name for echinococcal cyst

A

Hydatid cyst

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65
Q

Solitary cysts which may have thick or calcified walls, mother daughter cysts,honeycomb appearance or solid in appearance describes

A

Echinococcal cysts

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66
Q

This is usually found in the right lobe, solitary, variable in size, anechoic to echogenic or complex may have calcifications or shadowing from gas describes

A

Abscess or pyogenic cyst

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67
Q

Hepatomegaly, fatty infiltrations, focal lesions. Wheel within a wheel becomes more hypoechoic describes

A

Fungal infection- candidiasis

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68
Q

Varies depending on age- mostly cystic (fresh blood) echogenic, mixed appearance, irregular shape describes

A

Hematoma

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69
Q

What is the most common benign solid tumor in the liver

A

Cavernous hemangioma

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70
Q

This is usually asymptomatic, more prevalent in women
-normal LFTs
-usually small, round in the right lobe, homogenous with increased through transmission

A

Cavernous hemangioma

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71
Q

Usually asymptomatic, increased incidence in women on oral contraceptives
-normal LFTS
-usually echogenic, found in the right lobe, similar in appearance as adenomas or hepatomas

A

Focal nodular hyperplasia

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72
Q

Usually asymptomatic, or as a palpable mass, increased incidence in women on oral contraceptives or men on steroids
-normal LFTs
-most often found in the right lobe, hyperechoic may have areas of hemorrhage

A

Liver cell adenoma

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73
Q

What malignant liver tumor is usually found during infancy or childhood

A

Heptoblastoma

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74
Q

-abdominal enlargement, hepatomegaly, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, precocious puberty
-abnormal LFTs and elevated AFP
All describe what malignant liver tumor

A

Hepatoblastoma

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75
Q

What are the 3 primary sites for metastatic lesions

A

1) GI tract
2) Breast
3) Lungs

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76
Q

-LFTs usually abnormal, increase in total bilirubin, ALP
-hyperechoic, hypoechoic, complex, target lesions, anechoic

A

Metastatic lesions

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77
Q

The neck of the gallbladder tapers to form

A

The cystic duct

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78
Q

Where is the spiral valves of Heister located

A

In the cystic duct

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79
Q

The right and left hepatic ducts join to form the

A

Common hepatic duct

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80
Q

What is the function of the common hepatic duct

A

Transport bile to the gallbladder

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81
Q

The cystic duct unites with the ______ to transport concentrated bile to the second portion of the duodenum

A

CBD

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82
Q

What are the 3 main functions of the gallbladder

A

1) concentrate bile
2) store the concentrated bile
3) transport bile to the duodenum

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83
Q

What is the most common variant of the GB

A

Junctional fold

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84
Q

A fold or kinking located on the posterior GB wall between the body and neck describes

A

Junctional fold

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85
Q

A fold located in the fundal portion of the GB is called

A

Phrygian cap

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86
Q

A small sac located between the junctional fold and the neck of the GB describes

A

Harrimanns pouch

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87
Q

-prolonged fasting
-intravenous hyperalimentation
-cystic obstruction
-obstruction of the common bile duct
All are causes of

A

Large GB (hydrops)

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88
Q

A large GB caused by obstruction at the distal portion of the CBD is called

A

Courvoisier GB

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89
Q

-intrahepatic biliary obstruction, chronic cholecystitis, liver disease, and congenital hypoplasia are all causes of

A

Small GB

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90
Q

Low level non shadowing echoes in the dependent portion of the GB that moved with a change in patient position is

A

Sludge

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91
Q

-gas in the duodenum
-surgical clips from post-cholecystectomy
-valves of Heister and folds in the GB are structures that can mimic

A

Gallstones

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92
Q

These are not gravity dependent and do not move with changing patient position

A

Polyps

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93
Q

Hyperplastic changes in the GB wall describe

A

Adenomyomatosis

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94
Q

What refers to a common hepatic duct obstruction caused by a stone in the cystic duct with a normal CBD

A

Mirizzi Syndrome

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95
Q

Inflammation of the GB wall with decreased GB function caused by an obstruction at the level of the cystic duct, bacterial infection in the biliary system, or pancreatic enzyme reflux all describe

A

Acute cholecystitis

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96
Q
  • diffuse wall thickening
    -gallstones
  • halo sign
    -cystic artery along the anterior GB wall
  • sludge
    -pericholecystic fluid
    Are all sonographic findings of
A

Acute cholecystitis

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97
Q

Pus in the GB is called

A

Empyema

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98
Q

Rare occurrence caused by a gas forming bacteria in the wall of the GB describes

A

Emphysematous Cholecystitis

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99
Q

Patients with cholecystitis that do not have gallstones describes

A

Acalculous cholecystitis

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100
Q

What is the most common cause of symptomatic GB disease and is associated with gallstones in 90% of cases

A

Chronic cholecystitis

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101
Q

Sono appearance of a small or normal sized GB, gallstones, sludge, and thickened echogenic GB wall with elevated AST, ALT, ALP and direct serum bilirubin describes

A

Chronic cholecystitis

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102
Q

Intramural calcification of the gallbladder wall which occurs in association with chronic cholecystitis is known as

A

Porcelain gallbladder

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103
Q

What is the most common benign gallbladder tumor

A

Adenoma

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104
Q

Small echo-densities attached to the gallbladder wall by a stalk that do not shadow or move to the dependent portion of the gallbladder describes

A

A polyp

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105
Q

What type of cancer is the most common malignant cause to obstruct the biliary tree

A

Pancreatic

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106
Q

What is the most common cause of acute pyelonephritis

A) hypertension
B) E. coli
C) Klebsiella
D) hydro
E) enterococcus faecalis

A

B) E. coli

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107
Q

The GDA is a branch of which of the following
A) aorta
B) celiac axis
C) common hepatic artery
D) left gastric artery
E) duodenal artery

A

C) common hepatic artery

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108
Q

Which of the following can cause anterior displacement of the splenic vein
A) pancreatitis
B) pseudocysts
C) left adrenal hyperplasia
D) aneurysm
E) IVC thrombi

A

C) left adrenal hyperplasia

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109
Q

When accessory spleens are present, where are they usually located

A) at the superior margin of the spleen
B) on the posterior aspect of the spleen
C) near the kidney
D) near the splenic hilum
E) near the left diaphragm

A

D) near the hilum of the spleen

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110
Q

The IVC forms at the confluence of which of the following vessels

A) right and left carotid veins
B) right and left common iliac veins
C) right and left lumbar veins
D) right and left renal veins
E) right and left common iliac arteries

A

B) right and left common iliac veins

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111
Q

The right and left hepatic ducts unite to form the

A

Common hepatic duct

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112
Q

What is the most common fatal liver disorder in children in the United States

A

Biliary atresia

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113
Q

A genetic trait characterized by a segmental saccular dilatation of the intrahepatic ducts describes

A

Caroli disease

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114
Q

What is characterized as a cystic dilatation and out-pouching of the common duct wall

A

Choledochal cyst

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115
Q

Sonographically what presents as a solid mass at the junction of the right and left hepatic ducts and there is intrahepatic duct dilatation without extrahepatic duct dilatation

A

Klatskin tumor

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116
Q

A GB sonographic exam is performed and a small GB with intrahepatic dilatation is seen. This maybe indicate that the level of obstruction is at the left of which of the following

A) neck of the GB
B) CBD
C) cystic duct
D) common hepatic duct
E) none of the above

A

D) common hepatic duct

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117
Q

What is the max inner diameter of the main pancreatic duct in young adults

A) 10 mm
B) 5 mm
C) 2 cm
D) 3 mm
E) 2 mm

A

E) 2 mm

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118
Q

A patient in the late stages of sickle cell anemia will have a spleen that is which of the following

A) enlarged and lobulated
B) enlarged and echogenic
C) small and hypoechoic
D) small and echogenic
E) atrophic and isoechoic

A

D) small and echogenic

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119
Q

In a patient with acute hepatitis, what is the appearance of the liver parenchyma Sonographically

A) hypoechoic
B) echogenic
C) complex
D) normal
E) anechoic

A

D) normal

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120
Q

What portion of the pancreas is located anterior to the IVC and right renal vein

A

Head

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121
Q

What vein is imaged posterior to the SMA and anterior to the aorta

A

Left renal vein

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122
Q

Another name for the main pancreatic duct is

A

Wirsungs duct

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123
Q

Another name for the accessory duct is the

A

Santorini duct

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124
Q

The exocrine function of the pancreas is to secrete

A

1) amylase
2) lipase
3) trypsin

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125
Q

What is the most common complication associated with acute pancreatitis

A

Pancreatic pseudocyst

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126
Q

What is the most common malignant tumor of the pancreas

A

Adenocarcinoma

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127
Q

What malignant tumor of the pancreas is visualized Sonographically as an irregular cystic lobulated mass with thick walls and is more commonly seen in the body or tail

A

Cystadenocarcinoma

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128
Q

The spleen is located in what region

A

Left hypochondriac

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129
Q

What organ in the body is the main component of the reticuloendothelial system

A

Spleen

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130
Q

The spleen is crescent shaped with a _____ superior lateral border and ______ medially

A

Convex, concave

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131
Q

Where is a wandering spleen usually located

A

In the pelvis

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132
Q

What is the landmark for the posterolateral border of the thyroid

A) trachea
B) esophagus
C) strap muscle
D) common carotid artery
E) super thyroid artery

A

D) common carotid artery

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133
Q

Acute hydroceles may be caused by all of the following except
A) infarction
B) tumor
C) testicular torsion
D) trauma
E) infection of the testis or epididymis

A

C) testicular torsion

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134
Q

If a mass in the area of the pancreatic head is found, what other structure should be examined sonographically
A) liver
B) IVC
C) spleen
D) kidney
E) bowel

A

A) Liver

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135
Q

The ligament of venosum separates which 2 lobes of the liver
A) right and left lobes
B) medial portion of the left lone and the lateral portion of the left lobe
C) caudate lobe and left lobe of liver
D) anterior portion of the right lobe and posterior portion of the right lobe
E) quadrate love and left lobe of the liver

A

C) caudate lobe and left lobe of liver

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136
Q

Which of the following is not a retroperutoneal structure
A) kidney
B) pancreas
C) aorta
D) spleen
E) psoas muscle

A

D) spleen

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137
Q

Which of the following statements is true about the portal vein
A) it is formed formed by the union of the common hepatic duct and cystic duct
B) it is only imaged sonographically when there is liver pathology
C) it is formed by the union of the splenic vein and superior mesenteric vein
D) is it very pulsatile
E) it is common place for stones to form

A

C) it is formed by the union of the splenic vein and SMV

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138
Q

Identify the lab value that is specific for a hepatoma of the liver
A) ALP
B) AFP
C) serum amylase
D) bilirubin
E) serum albumin

A

B) AFP

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139
Q

Identify the part of the pancreas that lies anterior to the IVC and posterior to the SMV
A) head
B) neck
C) body
D) uncinate process
E) tail

A

D) uncinate process

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140
Q

In a dissecting aneurysm, the dissection is through which of the following
A) adventitia
B) media
C) intima
D) all 3 layers
E) lumen

A

C) intima

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141
Q

What part of the kidney contains fat, calyces, infundibula, renal pelvis, connective tissue, renal vessels, and lymphatics

A

Renal sinus

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142
Q

What portion of the kidney is where blood vessels, nerves, lymphatic vessels, and the ureter enter or exit the renal sinus

A

Renal hilum

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143
Q

What lab value is elevated with renal dysfunction

A

Serum creatinine

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144
Q

What lab value is elevated when there is acute or chronic renal disease or urinary obstruction.

A

BUN

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145
Q

What occurs when the kidney fails to ascend out of the pelvis

A

Pelvic kidney

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146
Q

What kidney disease presents as bilateral echogenic enlarged kidneys with cysts

A

Infantile polycystic kidney disease

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147
Q

What are 2 other names for infantile polycystic kidney disease

A

1) autosomal recessive polycystic disease
2) potter type 1

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148
Q

What is another name for adult polycystic kidney disease

A

Potter type 2

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149
Q

What kidney disease presents as bilateral large kidneys with randomly distributed cortical cysts of various sizes

A

Adult polycystic kidney disease

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150
Q

An RI of less than _____ will diagnosis renal obstruction

A

0.70

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151
Q

The “twinkle sign” is a color artifact that has been seen with

A

Urinary stones

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152
Q

What is the most common cause of acute renal failure

A

Acute tubular necrosis

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153
Q

Where is a transplanted kidney placed

A

Within the iliac fossa

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154
Q

What is the most serious sign of transplant rejection

A

Renal failure

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155
Q

A kidney that appears as an enlarged kidney with increased cortical echogenicity, decreased renal sinus echogenicity, irregular sonolucent areas in the cortex, enlarged and decreased echogenicity of the pyramids, distortion of the renal outline, and indistinct corticomedullary junction describes

A

Acute renal rejection

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156
Q

What is another name for prune belly syndrome

A

Eagle Barrett syndrome

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157
Q

A cystic dilatation of the distal portion of the ureter with narrowing of the ureteric orifice describes

A

Ureterocele

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158
Q

Adrenalcortical hyper function is another name for

A

Cushing syndrome

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159
Q

Hyperalrosteronism is another name for

A

Conns syndrome

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160
Q

Adrenocortical hypofunction is another name for

A

Addisons disease

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161
Q

An increase in aldosterone producing sodium retention describes

A

Conns syndrome

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162
Q

Decreased hormonal production causing hypotension, malaise, weight loss, changes in skin pigmentation, loss of body hair describes

A

Addison disease

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163
Q

Right adrenal pathology will displace the IVC
A) anterior
B) posterior

A

A) anterior

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164
Q

Right adrenal pathology will displace the right renal vein
A) anterior
B) posterior

A

A) anterior

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165
Q

Right adrenal pathology will displace the right kidney
A) anterior
B) posterior

A

B) posterior

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166
Q

Left adrenal pathology will displace the splenic vein
A) anterior
B) posterior

A

A) anterior

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167
Q

Left adrenal pathology will displace the left kidney
A) anterior
B) posterior

A

B) posterior

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168
Q

What produces steroid hormones

A

Adrenal cortex

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169
Q

The adrenal cortical hormones are regulated by what

A

ACTH

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170
Q

Name 2 things the adrenal medulla produces

A

1) epinephrine (adrenaline)
2) norepinephrine

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171
Q

______ dilates the coronary vessels and constricts the skin and kidney vessels

A

Epinephrine

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172
Q

______ constricts all arterial vessels except the coronary arteries (which dilate)

A

Norepinephrine

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173
Q

The narrowest portion of th colon is

A

The sigmoid

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174
Q

The _______ space is between the liver (or spleen) and the diaphragm and is a common site for abscess

A

Subphrenic

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175
Q

The ______ crus can be visualized anterior to the aorta above the level of the celiac artery

A

Left

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176
Q

The _____ crus is visualized posterior to the caudate lobe and IVC

A

Right

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177
Q

Where can a patent umbilical vein be found
A) ligamentum venosum
B) main lobar fissure
C) ligamentum teres
D) intersegmental ligament
E) gallbladder fossa

A

C) ligamentum teres

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178
Q

Dilatation of the intrahepatic biliary ducts without dilatation of the extrahepatic ducts may be caused by all of the following except
A) klatskin tumor
B) enlarged portal lymph nodes
C) cholangiocarcinoma
D) pancreatic carcinoma

A

D) pancreatic carcinoma

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179
Q

What is a cause of a small gallbladder
A) prolonged fasting
B) insulin dependent diabetes
C) hydrops
D) ascites
E) chronic cholecystitis

A

E) chronic cholecystitis

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180
Q

What is hydrops of the gallbladder
A) small contracted gallbladder
B) gallbladder with a thickened wall
C) thick walled gallbladder filled with stones
D) congenital duplication of the gallbladder
E) enlarged gallbladder

A

E) an enlarged gallbladder

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181
Q

The majority of primary retroperitoneal tumors are malignant. Which of the following is an example of a primary retroperitoneal tumor
A) hepatoma
B) hypernephroma
C) leiomyosarcoma
D) adenocarcinoma
E) hematoma

A

C) leiomyosarcoma

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182
Q

In comparison to the normal echotexture in adults, the pancreas in children will be relatively
A) more echogenic
B) less echogenic
C) the same
D) larger and less echogenic
E) complex

A

D) larger and less echogenic

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183
Q

What is the largest major visceral branch of the IVC
A) portal vein
B) hepatic veins
C) renal veins
D) IMV
E) gonadal veins

A

B) hepatic veins

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184
Q

What are the normal measurements of the thyroid gland
A) 3-4 cm in AP and length dimensions
B) 2-3 cm in AP and 4-6 cm in length
C) 1-2 cm in AP and 4-6 in length
D) 3-5 cm in AP and 6-8 cm in length
E) 4-6 cm in AP and 8-10 cm in length

A

C) 1-2 cm in AP and 4-6 in length

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185
Q

Ascites can be caused by all of the following except
A) malignancy
B) nephritic syndrome
C) congestive heart failure
D) tuberculosis
E) adenomyomatosis

A

E) Adenomyomatosis

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186
Q

What is the best way to delineate a dissecting aneurysm on sonography
A) begin scanning in the transverse section and document serial scans
B) show an intimal flap pulsating with the flow of blood
C) scan the patient in a decubitus position to document the aorta and IVC simultaneously
D) document the renal arteries
E) have the patient perform a Valsalva maneuver to dilate the aorta

A

B) show an intimal flap pulsating with the flow of blood

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187
Q

Which of the following is not a remnant of the fetal circulation
A) ligamentum teres
B) ligamentum venosum
C) Falciform ligament
D) coronary ligament

A

D) coronary ligament

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188
Q

A 44 year old patient presents with painless jaundice and a palpable RUQ mass which is most characteristic of which of the following
A) acute hepatitis
B) cirrhosis
C) porcelain GB
D) courvoisiers GB
E) Klatskin tumor

A

D) courvoisiers GB

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189
Q

What is the lesser sac located between
A) pancreas and IVC
B) stomach and pancreas
C) abdominal wall and stomach
D) liver and right kidney
E) stomach and spleen

A

B) stomach and pancreas

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190
Q

Abscesses are most often associated with

A

Cholangitis

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191
Q

Subhepatic abscess are associated with

A

Cholecystectomy

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192
Q

What type of abscess is associated with bacterial spill into the peritoneum during surgical procedure, bowel rupture, peptic ulcer perforation, and trauma

A

Subphrenic

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193
Q

A variable, complex, solid cystic lesion with septa, debris, and scattered echoes describes an

A

Abscess

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194
Q

What type of abscess is located within the liver parenchyma

A

Intrahepatic

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195
Q

What type of abscess is located inferior to the liver, fluid collection anterior to the right kidney, and gallbladder fossa

A

Subhepatic

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196
Q

What type of abscess is located superior to the liver and inferior to the diaphragm

A

Subphrenic

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197
Q

What does the anterior perirenal space contain

A

Retroperitoneal portion of the intestines and pancreas

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198
Q

Name 6 things the perineal space contains

A

1) kidneys
2) ureters
3) adrenal glands
4) aorta
5) IVC
6) retroperitoneal nodes

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199
Q

Name 3 things the posterior perirenal space contains

A

1) posterior abdominal wall
2) iliopsoas muscle
3) quadratic muscle

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200
Q

Name the 6 primary retroperitoneal tumors

A

1) liposarcoma
2) fibrosarcoma
3) rhabdomyosarcoma
4) leiomyosarcoma
5) teratoma
6) neurogenic tumors

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201
Q

Para-aortic nodes may displace the celiac axis and SMA _____

A

Anteriorly

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202
Q

What is calcification of the gallbladder wall called
A) cholesterolosis
B) courvoisiers gallbladder
C) hydronic gallbladder
D) porcelain gallbladder

A

D) porcelain gallbladder

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203
Q

A 60 year old man presents with an abdominal pulsatile mass and high blood pressure. What is this most characteristic of
A) an aneurysm
B) mesenteric cysts
C) gallstones
D) budd chiari syndrome
E) portal hypertension

A

A) aneurysm

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204
Q

Identify the vessel that may be imaged posterior to the IVC
A) right renal vein
B) right renal artery
C) left renal vein
D) left renal artery
E) no vessels course posterior to the IVC

A

B) right renal artery

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205
Q

The retroperitoneal space is defined as the area between which of the following
A) posterior portion of the parietal peritoneum and the posterior abdominal wall muscles
B) anterior portion of the parietal peritoneum and the posterior abdominal wall muscles
C) anterior portion of the parietal peritoneum and the posterior portion of the parietal peritoneum
D) anterior abdominal wall and the posterior parietal peritoneum

A

A) posterior portion of the parietal peritoneum and the posterior abdominal wall muscles

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206
Q

An abdominal sonogram is performed and there is a suggestion of a mass in the head of the pancreas. Identify the other structures that should be evaluated
A) the biliary system and GB to evaluate biliary obstruction
B) the hepatic artery and splenic artery to document dilatation
C) the kidney to evaluate renal obstruction
D) liver to evaluate focal masses
E) spleen to document size

A

A) the biliary system and GB to evaluate biliary obstruction

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207
Q

Lymph nodes may be confused sonographically with all of the following except
A) abdominal aortic aneurysm
B) chronic pancreatitis
C) crus of the diaphragm
D) bowel

A

B) chronic pancreatitis

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208
Q

An abdominal sonogram is performed on a 35 year old man with a history of primary cancer of the liver who now presents with abdominal pain and increasing abdominal girth. What is this most consistent with
A) cholecystitis
B) pancreatitis
C) portal hypertension
D) budd chiari syndrome
E) renal failure

A

D) budd chiari syndrome

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209
Q

During an abdominal sonogram, recanalization of the umbilical vein is identified. What could this be associated with
A) ascites
B) an abscess
C) a hematoma
D) hepatoma
E) portal hypertension

A

E) portal hypertension

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210
Q

Islet cell tumors of the pancreas are most likely to be located in which portion of the pancreas
A) head and neck
B) neck and tail
C) uncinate process
D) body and tail
E) head and body

A

D) body and tail

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211
Q

A normal functioning transplanted kidney will appear sonographically as which of the following
A) more echogenic than a normal kidney
B) with a thin renal cortex and prominent medullary pyramids
C) the same as a normal kidney
D) twice the size of a normal kidney
E) with the renal sinus and renal cortex being isoechoic

A

C) the same as a normal kidney

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212
Q

When performing a gallbladder exam, why is the patient asked to be NPO for approx 6 hours before the exam
A) to eliminate any overlying bowel gas
B) to make the patient more cooperative
C) to bring out dehydration which will make the patient easier to scan
D) causes bile to collect in the gallbladder
E) causes the bile ducts to dilate

A

D) causes bile to collect in the gallbladder

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213
Q

What do Klatskin tumors cause
A) dilatation of the intrahepatic ducts
B) dilatation of the extrahepatic ducts
C) gallstones
D) pancreatitis
E) porcelain gallbladder

A

A) dilatation of the intrahepatic ducts

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214
Q

Which if the following is not located in the peritoneal cavity
A) gallbladder
B) liver
C) spleen
D) pancreas
E) hepatic veins

A

D) pancreas

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215
Q

Artifactual echoes may occur within cysts owing to each of the following except
A) slice thickness
B) side lobe
C) edge
D) reverb

A

C) edge

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216
Q

In which of the following ways does ascites sonographically affect the liver
A) there will be no effect
B) the liver will appear more echogenic
C) the assured will attenuate the liver resulting in decreased echoes
D) the ascites will cause the liver to appear inhomogenous

A

B) the liver will appear more echogenic

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217
Q

Which of the following is a representative of a post trauma fluid collection located between the diaphragm and the spleen
A) ascites
B) pleural effusion
C) a subcapsular hematoma
D) a Subphrenic abscess
E) retroperitoneal fibrosis

A

D) a Subphrenic abscess

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218
Q

Which of the following can be displaced by a retroperitoneal sarcoma
A) kidney posterior
B) spleen anterior
C) pancreas posterior
D) diaphragm inferior
E) aorta posterior

A

B) spleen anterior

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219
Q

The causes of a large gallbladder include all of the following except
A) Adenomyomatosis
B) pancreatic carcinoma
C) diabetes mellitus
D) fasting patient
Eh common duct obstruction

A

A) Adenomyomatosis

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220
Q

All of the following are associated with cirrhosis except
A) ascites
B) splenomegaly
C) jaundice
D) hepatomegaly
E) collateral vessel development

A

D) hepatomegaly

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221
Q

What lies posterior to the IVC

A

Right renal artery

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222
Q

The _____ is a central branch of the aorta

A

SMA

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223
Q

The common bile duct is formed by which of the following
A) right and left hepatic ducts joining the cystic duct
B) cystic duct joining the right hepatic duct
C) common duct joining the cystic duct
D) common duct joining the neck of the gallbladder
E) common duct joining the pancreatic duct

A

C) common duct joining the cystic duct

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224
Q

The livers covering is called glissons capsule. What’s another term for this covering

A

Visceral peritoneum

225
Q

Name the lining of the abdominal cavity

A

Parietal peritoneum

226
Q

What is segment 1 of the liver called

A

Caudate lobe

227
Q

What is segment 2 of the liver called

A

Left lateral posterior

228
Q

What is segment 3 of the liver called

A

Left lateral anterior

229
Q

What is segment 4A and 4B of the liver called

A

4A- left medial superior
4B- left medial inferior

230
Q

What is segment 5 of the liver called

A

Right anterior inferior

231
Q

What is segment 6 of the liver called

A

Right posterior inferior

232
Q

What is segment 7 of the liver called

A

Right posterior superior

233
Q

What is segment 8 of the liver called

A

Right anterior superior

234
Q

Name 3 vessels that form the portal triad

A

1) portal vein
2) hepatic artery
3) bile duct

235
Q

Describe the location of the main lobar fissures

A

Imaginary line from GB fossa to IVC
Separates right and left lobes of liver
Middle hepatic vein= landmark

236
Q

Which 2 segments of the liver does the main lobar fissure separate

A

Separates the right anterior segment of the right lobe from the left medial segment of the left lobe

237
Q

Describe the location of the right intersegmental fissure

A

The right intersegmental fissure is a coronal division of the right lobe of the liver. Divides the right lobe into anterior and posterior segments. Right hepatic vein is a landmark

238
Q

Describe the location of the left intersegmental fissure

A

The left intersegmental fissure is a sagittal division of the left lobe of the liver. Divides left lobe into medial and lateral sections. Left hepatic vein, ligamentum teres, Falciform ligament, and ascending segment of left portal vein are landmarks

239
Q

What is the ligamentum venosum

A

Remnant of the ductus venosum. Conducts blood from the left portal vein to IVC. Separates the medial segment of the left lobe from the caudate lobe

240
Q

Name the 4 borders of the caudate lobe

A

1) posteriorly by IVC
2) anterioinferiorly by prox left portal vein
3) anterolaterally by ligamentum venosum
4) inferior by the main portal vein

241
Q

Which of the following is usually the cause of an aneurysm
A) degenerative joint disease
B) atherosclerosis
C) hypertension
D) diabetes
E) cystic fibrosis

A

B) atherosclerosis

242
Q

What is the sonographic characteristic of Hasimotos thyroiditis
A) atrophic thyroid tissue with homogenous echotexture
B) multiple hypoechoic micronodules
C) bilateral enlargements of the thyroid with multiple small cyst
D) hypertrophy of the thyroid gland with homogenous echotexture
E) hyperplasia with fluid levels

A

B) multiple hypoechoic micronodues

243
Q

Which of the following is associated with an increase with the biochemical marker CEA
A) postradioummunotherapy
B) bowel decompression surgery
C) follicular cyst of the ovaries
D) relapse of colorectal cancer
E) colostomy

A

D) relapse of colorectal cancer

244
Q

A _______ is a saccular outpouching of the distal ureter into the urinary bladder

A

Ureterocele

245
Q

A_____ _____ is an outpouching of the bladder mucosa through the muscular layer

A

Bladder diverticula

246
Q

Which one of the following statements concerning the sonographic patterns of periaortic lymph nodes is not correct
A) they may drape or mantle the great vessels anteriorly
B) they may displace the SMA posteriorly
C) they may displace the great vessels anteriorly
D) they may have lobar, smooth, or scalloped appearance
E) as mesenteric involvement occurs, the adenopathy may fill most of the abdomen in an irregular complex pattern

A

B) they may displace the SMA posteriorly

247
Q

Cholecystitis, right sided heart failure, and hypoproteinemia are some causes of a

A

Thickened gallbladder wall

248
Q

The lab findings of renal failure include which of the following
A) creatinine and alkaline phosphatase
B) creatinine and BUN
C) serum amylase and lipase
D) serum amylase and creatinine
E) alkaline phosphatase and alpha-fetoprotein

A

B) creatinine and BUN

249
Q

A resistive index of >0.70 in a kidney is consistent with early
A) obstructive jaundice
B) obstructive hydro
C) renal cell carcinoma
D) benign renal cyst
E) polycystic renal disease

A

B) obstructive hydro

250
Q

What is the bare area

A

Posterior crescent shaped portion of the liver not covered by peritoneum

251
Q

Describe how pyogenic abscesses develop in the liver

A

They are solitary and occur in the right lobe of the liver caused by bacteria which enter the liver via the bile ducts, portal veins and hepatic artery

252
Q

What is the sonographic appearance of pyogenic abscesses

A

Appear as hypoechoic, round, fluid filled masses with variable degrees of internal echoes or debris

253
Q

Describe the sonographic appearance of acute hepatitis

A

-hypoechoic liver parenchyma
-liver enlargement
-hyperechoic portal vein walls

254
Q

What is the sonographic appearance of a fungal abscess

A

1) wheel within a wheel
2) bulls eye
3) hypoechoic mass
4) echogenic mass

255
Q

Describe the sonographic appearance of an amoebic abscess within the liver

A

1) a round or oval shaped hypoechoic mass
2) absence of a prominent wall
3) fine low level internal echoes
4) distal enhancement
5) continguous with diaphragm

256
Q

Portal vein occlusion due to schistosomiasis leads to what 4 things

A

1) portal hypertension
2) splenomegaly
3) varies
4) ascites

257
Q

Describe the sonographic appearance of schistosomiasis

A

Distended, echogenic debris filled intrahepatic portal vein

258
Q

What is the most common organism causing infections in AIDS and other immune compromised patients

A

Pneumocystis Carinni

259
Q

How does pneumocystis carinni appear sonographically

A

Appears as non shadowing echogenic foci

260
Q

Fatty infiltration of the liver can be assessed sonographically by visualizing which of the following
A) echogenic vessel walls seen throughout the liver
B) hypoechoic diaphgram
C) increased liver echogenicity
D) multiple echogenic focal masses
E) small nodular liver

A

B) hypoechoic liver echogenicity

261
Q

A patient who has blunt trauma to the abdomen earlier in the day presents with LUQ pain and a decrease in hematocrit. An echogenic mass is seen in the spleen. What is this consistent with
A) abscess
B) lymphoma
C) infection
D) hematoma
E) leukemia

A

D) hematoma

262
Q

Which of the following conditions may affect the adrenal gland
A) neonatal hypotension
B) severe fulminant tuberculosis infection
C)malignant lung carcinoma
D) breast carcinoma
E) all of the above

A

E) all the above

263
Q

What portion of the pancreas is anterior to the formation of the portal vein
A) head
B) neck
C) isthmus
D) body
E) tail

A

B) neck

264
Q

Name the 3 most common causes of general dilation of the IVC

A

1) congestive heart failure
2) hypertension

265
Q

Describe the appearance of focal fatty infiltration

A

Regions of increased echogenicity present within a background of normal liver parenchyma

266
Q

Describe the appearance of focal fatty sparing

A

Islands of normal liver parenchyma which appear as hypoechoic masses within a dense fatty infiltrated liver. Commonly seen adjacent to the GB

267
Q

What liver mass is associated with glycogen storage disease

A

Hepatic adenoma. Linked the the usage of oral contraceptives

268
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a patient with cirrhosis

A

1) hepatomegaly
2) jaundice
3) ascites

269
Q

What are the clinical signs of portal hypertension

A

1) ascites
2) splenomegaly
3) varies

270
Q

What are the sonographic findings of portal vein thrombosis

A

1) intraluminal thrombus
2) increased vein diameter
3) cavernous transformation

271
Q

What are the sonographic findings associated with Budd chiari syndrome

A

1) hepatic vein thrombosis
2) ascites
3) hepatomegaly
4) caudate lobe enlargement
5) portal hypertension

272
Q

What is the sonographic appearance of a focal nodular hyperplasia

A

Solitary mass less than 5 cm that may have a central scar. Also described as a stealth lesion

273
Q

Name 4 well defined hyperechoic liver masses

A

1) hemangiomas
2) hepatic lipomas
3) echogenic mets
4) focal fatty infiltrations

274
Q

Name the most common primary malignant tumor of the liver

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma
Etiologic factors include alcoholic cirrhosis, chronic hep B and C
Seen as a hypoechoic mass

275
Q

Name 5 portosystemic shunts

A

1) portocaval shunt
2) prox splenorenal shunt
3) dst splenorenal (warren) shunt
4) mesocaval shunt
5) TIPS

276
Q

How is shunt patency confirmed sonographically

A

1) demonstration of flow within the shunt
2) presence of heptofugal portal vein flow
-Warren shunt and TIPS will have hepatopetal portal vein flow

277
Q

Low velocity continuous flow toward the liver with mild undulations that is physic and affected by respirations describes flow of the

A

Portal vein

278
Q

_____ veins are typically triphasic reflecting right atrial filling, contraction, and relaxation

A

Hepatic veins

279
Q

What artery runs parallel to the main portal vein

A

Hepatic artery

280
Q

Doppler waveforms demonstrating flow throughout diastole, indicating a low resistance system describes what artery

A

Hepatic artery

281
Q

______ is a non obstructive hepatocellular cause of jaundice

A

Hepatitis

282
Q

Which of the following statements does not differentiate the portal veins from the hepatic veins
A) portal veins become larger as they approach the diaphragm
B) portal veins have echogenic borders
C) portal veins bifurcate into right and left branches
D) the main portal vein is part of the portal triad

A

A) portal veins become larger as they approach the diaphragm

283
Q

The left crus of diaphragm may be confused with which of the following
A) left adrenal gland
B) aorta
C) splenic vein
D) SMA
E) accessory spleen

A

A) left adrenal gland

284
Q

A) spleen
B) pancreas
C) gallbladder
D) adrenal glands
E) kidneys

A

E) kidneys

285
Q

Identify the vessel with a postprandial low-resistive blood flow
A) celiac artery
B) hepatic artery
C) splenic artery
D) SMA
E) aorta

A

D) SMA

286
Q

What is the purpose of administering a fatty meal to a patient

A

A fatty meal is helpful in assessing biliary obstruction. An obstructed bile duct should increase in size following administration of a fatty meal.

287
Q

What does a significant level of conjugated bilirubin levels indicate

A

1) obstructive jaundice
2) intrahepatic cholestasis
3) biliary tree obstruction

288
Q

What are the 8 causes for gallbladder wall thickening

A

1)cholecystitis
2) ascites
3) hypoalbuminea
4) hepatitis
5) CHF
6) renal disease
7) AIDS
8) sepsis

289
Q

Describe acute cholecystitis

A

A stone obstructing the cystic duct

290
Q

What are the symptoms of acute cholecystitis

A

1) RUQ pain
2) fever
3) chills
4) leukocytosis

291
Q

Name the 5 sonographic criteria that define acute cholecystitis

A

1) gallstones
2) Murphy sign
3) diffuse wall thickening
4) GB dilatation
5) sludge

292
Q

What is emphysematous cholecystitis

A

Infection associated with gas forming bacteria within the wall of the gallbladder.

293
Q

Describe the mechanism of hydrops of the gallbladder

A

Distended non inflamed GB due to total obstruction of the cystic duct.
-enlarged non tender gallbladder r

294
Q

What is the most common complication of a pancreatic pseudocyst
A) infection
B) reabsorption
C) calcification
D) hemorrhage
E) rupture

A

E) rupture

295
Q

Which of the following is a type of a malignant adrenal mass
A) adenoma
B) myelolipoma
C) cyst
D) pheochromocytoma
E) neuroblastoma

A

E) neuroblastoma

296
Q

An enlarged right adrenal gland will displace the IVC in which of the following directions
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) medial
D) lateral
E) no displacement

A

A) anterior

297
Q

Where are the spiral values of Heister located
A) ampulla of Vater
B) junction of the cystic duct and common duct
C) junction of the right and left common hepatic duct
D) proximal portion of the cystic duct
E) fundus of the gallbladder

A

D) proximal portion of the cystic duct

298
Q

Identify the pre-existing condition that occurs in patients with hepatomas
A) hematomas
B) abscesses
C) gallstones
D) developmental cysts
E) cirrhosis

A

E) cirrhosis

299
Q

Which of the following describes how carcinoma of the gallbladder would most likely appear
A) thin walled gallbladder
B) small gallbladder with thickened walls
C) large gallbladder with a halo surrounding it
D) diffusely thickened gallbladder with gallstones
E) echogenic mass with no distinguishing features of a gallbladder

A

D) diffusely thickened gallbladder with gallstones

300
Q

What are Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses

A

Diverticula within the wall of the GB
- sludge and stones accumulate within the sinuses and present as focal wall thickening

301
Q

What is the sonographic presentation of gallbladder carcinoma

A

Intraluminal mass, asymmetric wall thickening or a mass filled GB

302
Q

What 3 other findings should be investigated to confirm the diagnosis of GB carcinoma

A

1) liver Mets
2) lymphadenopathy
3) bile duct dilatation

303
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of biliary tract obstruction

A

1) gallstones
2) carcinoma of the pancreas

304
Q

What 3 lab values are most likely to be elevated due to biliary tract obstruction.

A

1) ALP
2) conjugated (direct) bilirubin
3) GGT

305
Q

What is Mirizzi syndrome

A

Extrahepatic bile duct obstruction due to a stone within the cystic duct
-the stone causes extrinsic mechanical compression of the common hepatic duct

306
Q

Describe the 3 sonographic findings associated with Mirizzi syndrome

A

1) intrahepatic bile duct dilatation
2) normal sized CBD
3) large stone in cystic duct

307
Q

Name 3 extrahepatic biliary ducts

A

1) common hepatic duct
2) cystic duct
3) CBD

308
Q

A Klatskin tumor is a specific type of

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

309
Q

Where is a Klatskin tumor located

A

Located at the hepatic hilum at the junction of the right and left hepatic ducts

310
Q

Where is pneumobilia commonly seen

A

In the hilum of the liver

311
Q

What are the sonographic features associated with a choledochal cyst

A

1) 2 cyst like structures in the RUQ ( gallbladder and dilated CBD)
2) dilated intrahepatic biliary tree

312
Q

What is the sonographic appearance of Caroli disease

A

Saccular, communicating intrahepatic bile duct dilatation

313
Q

What other genetically acquired conditions are associated with Caroli disease

A

1) infantile PKD
2) congenital hepatic fibrosis
3) choledochal cysts

314
Q

Name 5 predisposing conditions associated with cholangiocarcinoma

A

1) ulcerative colitis
2) sclerosing cholangitis
3) Caroli disease
4) choledochal cysts
5) parasitic infestations

315
Q

The SMA and SMV are ______ to the neck of the pancreas

A

Posterior

316
Q

The uncinate process is ______ to the SMA and SMV

A

Posterior

317
Q

The celiac axis arises from the aorta ______ to the pancreas

A

Superior

318
Q

The GDA and CBD run________ to the first portion of the duodenum

A

Posterior

319
Q

The SMA and SMV are ______ to the third portion of the duodenum.

A

Anterior

320
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of pancreatitis

A

1) alcohol abuse
2) biliary calculi

321
Q

What is the sonographic appearance of acute pancreatitis

A

May demonstrate a normal pancreas with increasing severity, decreased echogenicity and increased gland size

322
Q

What are the sonographic signs of chronic pancreatitis

A

Irreversible destruction of the pancreas
1) small echogenic gland
2) calcifications
3) pancreatic duct dilatation
4) pseudocyst formation

323
Q

What 6 findings are associated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma

A

1) dilated biliary system
2) dilated pancreatic duct
3) liver Mets
4) ascites
5) lymphadenopathy
6) pseudocyst formation

324
Q

What are the branches of the common hepatic artery

A

1) proper hepatic
2) GDA

325
Q

What are Islet cell tumors

A

Well circumscribed masses found in the tail of the pancreas

326
Q

Name the 2 most common Islet cell tunes and describe the symptoms of each

A

1) Insulinoma- characterized by hyperinsulinism and hypoglycemia

2) gastrinomas- associated with gastric hypersecretions and peptic ulcer disease

327
Q

Where is a TIPS shunt typically placed

A

Placed by using a jugular access between the right hepatic vein and right portal vein

328
Q

If a liver cyst is seen what organ should be evaluated next

A

Kidneys looking for autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

329
Q

This is a solid liver mass associated with the use of oral contraceptive agents

A

Hepatic adenoma

330
Q

What is another name for hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Hepatoma

331
Q

What are pancreatic pseudocyst

A

Collections of pancreatic fluid encapsulated by fibrous tissue

332
Q

What are the 4 functions of the spleen

A

1) breakdown of hemoglobin
2) formation of bile pigment
3) formation of antibodies
4) reservoir for blood

333
Q

Name 5 structures that appear as cystic splenic masses

A

1) cystic degeneration of infarcts or hematomas
2) cysts associated with adult PKD
3) parasitic cyst of spleen
4) epidermoid cyst of spleen
5) pancreatic pseudocyst

334
Q

What type of hematoma is the result of splenic trauma in which the splenic capsule remains intact

A

Intraparenchymal or subcapsular hematoma

335
Q

What type of hematoma is the result of splenic trauma in which the splenic capsule ruptures

A

Perisplenic or intraperitoneal hematoma

336
Q

Multiple pancreatic cysts are associated with what 2 syndromes

A

1) autosomal dominant PKD
2) Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

337
Q

When severely affected, what is the sonographic appearance of the pancreas in a patient with cystic fibrosis

A

Increased echogenicity of the pancreatic parenchyma

338
Q

Name 4 sonographic indications of portal vein thrombosis

A

1) echogenic thrombus within vessel lumen
2) an increase in portal vein diameter
3) portosystemic collateral circulation
4) cavernous transformation

339
Q

What is the most common malignant liver tumor in early childhood

A

Hepatoblastoma

340
Q

________ is a spiral fold which controls bile flow in the cystic duct

A

Valve of Heisters

341
Q

________ is an abnormal sacculation of then neck of the gallbladder

A

Hartmanns pouch

342
Q

What’s another name for the main pancreatic duct

A

Duct of Wirsung

343
Q

What is another name for hydrops of the gallbladder

A

Mucocele

344
Q

Trace the branches of the renal artery

A

1) main renal artery branches from aorta
2) entering hilum of kidney it divides unit 5 segmental arteries which divide into interlobar arteries
3) interlobar arteries are seen between medullary pyramids
4) at base of med pyramids the arcuates branch perpendicular from interlobar arteries
5) arcuates are seen running parallel to the renal capsule
6) interlobar arteries branch off arcuates and run perpendicular to the renal capsule

345
Q

What is associated with unilateral renal agenesis

A

1) uterine duplication in females
2) seminal vesicle agenesis in males

346
Q

Describe the development and appearance of crosses renal ectopia

A

Kidney ascends to the contra lateral side. Ureter of kidney ascends to the contra lateral side crosses the midline. Seen as 2 kidneys on 1 side of the abdomen

347
Q

Describe the development and sono appearance of crossed fused renal ectopia

A

Developing kidneys fuse in the pelvis. 1 kidney ascends to normal position and carries the other across the midline. Appears as 2 kidneys fused at the upper and lower poles on 1 side of the abdomen

348
Q

A prolapse of the distal ureter into the bladder with cystic dilatation describes

A

Ureterocele

349
Q

A frequent complication of ectopic ureter is a

A

Ureterocele

350
Q

Describe the appearance of column of Bertin

A

Hypertrophy of renal cortical parenchyma located between 2 medullary pyramids

351
Q

Describe the appearance of an extra renal pelvis

A

Renal pelvis protrudes outside the renal hilum. Seen as a cystic collection medial to the renal hilum

352
Q

What is the most common cause of extrahepatic obstructive jaundice

A

Choledocholithiasis

353
Q

What type of choledochal cyst is the most common
A) type 1
B) type 2
C) type 3
D) type 4
E) type 5

A

Type 1

354
Q

Type 5 choledochal cyst is also called

A

Caroli disease

355
Q

The central dot sign is an ultrasound finding of what

A

Caroli disease

356
Q

The most common cause of malignant neoplasm obstructing the biliary tree is

A

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

357
Q

______ is an enzyme found in bone, liver and placenta

A

ALP

358
Q

ALP increases with what 5 things

A

1) biliary obstruction
2) liver disease
3) bone growth and diseases
4) hyperparathyroidism
5) pregnancy

359
Q

True or false
The pancreas’s should be more echogenic than the liver

A

True

360
Q

The GDA supplies what portion of the pancreas

A

The head

361
Q

The splenic artery and the SMA supply what 2 portions of the pancreas

A

Body and tail

362
Q

The CBD and duct of Wirsung join to become the

A

Ampulla of Vater

363
Q

What is another name for the duct of Wirsung

A

Main pancreatic duct

364
Q

The normal panc duct is considered abnormal if it is > _____ mm

A

2.0 mm

365
Q

In children the most common reason for a pancreatic pseudocyst is

A

Abdominal trauma

366
Q

Failure of the dorsal and ventral pancreatic duct to fuse during embryonic development is called

A

Pancreatic divisum

367
Q

An uncommon congenital anomaly where a ring of normal pancreatic tissue encircles the duodenum is called

A

Annular pancreas

368
Q

The 2 most common cystic neoplasms of the pancreas are

A

1) serous cystadenoma
2) mucinous cystic neoplasm

369
Q

What’s another name for serous cystadenoma

A

Microcystic cystadenoma

370
Q

What is another name for mucinous cystic neoplasm

A

Macrocystic neoplasm

371
Q

What is the 2nd most common islet cell tumor

A

Gastrinoma

372
Q

______ is a digestive enzyme for carbohydrate

A

Amylase

373
Q

_______ is produced by the pancreas and salivary glands

A

Amylase

374
Q

What lab value rises later and persists longer

A

Lipase

375
Q

Describe the sonographic appearance of infantile polycystic kidney disease

A

Bilaterally enlarged echogenic kidneys with loss of cortical medullary boundary

376
Q

What 3 other anomalies are associated with infantile PKD

A

1) lung hypoplasia
2) periportal hepatic fibrosis
3) oligohydraminos

377
Q

What is medullary sponge kidney

A

Dysplastic cystic dilatation of the collecting tubules of the medullary pyramids

378
Q

Describe the sono appearance of medullary sponge kidney

A

Equally spaced hyperechoic medullary pyramids

379
Q

List 4 sonographic features of multicystic dysplastic kidney disease

A

1) cysts of varying shape and size
2) absence of communication between cysts
3) absence of renal sinus
4) absence of renal parenchyma

380
Q

What contralateral renal abnormalities are found when multicystic kidney disease is unilateral

A

1) Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
2) renal agenesis or hypoplasia
3) pelvocalectasis

381
Q

What would a sonographer look for in a patient with a history of tuberous sclerosis

A

Renal cyst formation and multiple renal angiomyolipomas

382
Q

In relation to the right kidney where is the adrenal gland located

A

Superomedial

383
Q

The ______ arteries are the smallest renal arteries that branch off the arcuates running perpendicular to the renal capsule

A

Interlobular arteries

384
Q

What vein sits between the SMA and aorta

A

Left renal vein

385
Q

What is the 2nd most common renal fusion anomaly

A

Crossed fused renal ectopia

386
Q

What is another name for junctional parenchyma defect

A

Fetal lobulation

387
Q

Cysts located in the periphery of the kidney are termed

A

Cortical or parenchyma cysts

388
Q

Cysts located in the center of the kidney are termed

A

Peripelvic cysts

389
Q

What is the most common genetic determined childhood cystic disease of the kidneys

A

Austosomal recessive infantile polycystic kidney disease

390
Q

Where is the most common cause of an abdominal mass in a newborn

A

Multicystic dysplastic kidney

391
Q

What is another name for angiomyolipoma

A

Renal hamartoma

392
Q

What organ is the main focus of an abdominal sono eval in a patient with tuberous sclerosis

A

Kidneys

393
Q

What is the most common solid renal mass in the adult

A

Renal cell carcinoma

394
Q

What are 3 other names for renal cell carcinoma

A

1) renal adenocarcinoma
2) hypernephroma
3) Grawitz tumor

395
Q

In a normal adult patient, the common hepatic duct lumen measures less than or equal to
A) 2 cm
B) 2 mm
C) 6 mm
D) 4 mm

A

D) 4 mm

396
Q

All of the following are true regarding the ligamentum teres except
A) recanalizes with cirrhosis
B) is a remnant of the umbilical vein
C) located in the left interetmental fissure
D) round, hyperechoic foci near the porta hepatis

A

D) round, hyperechoic foci near the porta hepatis

397
Q

Renal cell carcinoma is associated with what 4 renal diseases

A

1) Adult PKD
2) Acquired cystic disease
3) Von Hippel
4) Tuberous Sclerosis

398
Q

What additional areas should be evaluated whenever a solid renal mass is detected

A

1) ipsilateral renal vein and IVC for tumor invasion
2) contralateral kidney and renal vein
3) retroperitonem for lymphadenopathy
4) liver for mets

399
Q

What is the most common solid tumor in children diagnosed by ultrasound

A

Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)

400
Q

What are the 3 ultrasound findings associated with significant acute pyelonephritis

A

1) renal enlargement
2) hypoechoic parenchyma
3) absence of sinus echoes

401
Q

What are the 3 sonographic features of pyonephrosis

A

1) dependent echoes within a dilated pelvocaliceal system
2) shifting urine debris level
3) gas shadowing from infection

402
Q

What are the 2 most common explanations for bilateral renal masses

A

1) malignant lymphoma/hodgkins
2) Mets

403
Q

What is the sonographic appearance of a renal mycetoma

A

Aka fungal ball
Appears as hyperechoic nonshadowing masses

404
Q

What 7 tumors commonly imaged with US are associated with Von Hippel

A

1) renal cell carcinoma
2) hemangioma
3) pheochromocytoma
4) pancreatic cystadenoma
5) adenoma
6) Islet cell tumor
7) cysts associated with a variety of organs

405
Q

What is the most common renal fungal disease

A

Candidiasis

406
Q

Name 6 types of hyperechoic renal masses

A

1) mycetoma
2) angiomyolipomas
3) blood clots
4) pyogenic debris
5) sloughed papilla
6) nonshadowing renal stones

407
Q

What is the most common cause of acute intrinsic renal failure

A

Acute tubular necrosis

408
Q

An inflammatory response resulting in glomerular damage caused by an autoimmune reaction, infection or exposure to toxins describes

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

409
Q

Ischemia of the medullary pyramids describes

A

Papillary necrosis

410
Q

Identify 5 causes of renal vein thrombosis

A

1) IVC or renal vein compression
2) nephrotic syndrome
3) renal tumors
4) renal allografts
5) trauma

411
Q

List 4 sonographic indications for acute renal vein thrombosis

A

1) dilated thromboses renal vein
2) absence of flow within kidney
3) enlarged hypoechoic kidney
4) high resistive renal artery waveform

412
Q

Describe the waveform characteristics of the arterial side of an AVF

A

Abnormally low resistive arterial flow pattern. This means a waveform with increased and sustained diastolic flow

413
Q

Describe the waveform characteristics of the venous side of an AVF

A

Increased velocity, pulsatility and with spectral broadening due to turbulence

414
Q

List 4 sonographic criteria for determining renal artery stenosis

A

1) kidney size less than 9 cm
2) peak main renal artery velocity >180
3) renal artery/aorta ratio >3.5
4) intrarenal parvus tardus waveform

415
Q

Describe the sonographic appearance of a ureterocele

A

Round cystic structure that projects into the bladder lumen at the ureterovesical junction.

416
Q

Normal bladder wall thickness is
_______ mm in a non distended bladder

______ mm in a distended bladder

A

<5 mm in a nondistended
<3 mm in a distended

417
Q

What is the most common clinical presentation of transitional cell carcinoma

A

Hematuria

418
Q

The normal ______ _______ demonstrates continuous forward flow during diastole typical of low resistance perfusion

A

Renal artery

419
Q

What is the most correctable form of hypertension

A

Renal artery stenosis

420
Q

What is the most common cause of renal disease leading to kidney transplantation

A

Diabetes

421
Q

A transplanted kidney arterial anastomosis will involve what artery

A

External iliac artery or the hypo gastric (internal iliac ) artery

422
Q

An echogenic linear band extending long within the testis is called

A

Mediastinum testis

423
Q

What carry’s the seminal fluid from the rete testis to the epididymis

A

Efferent ductules

424
Q

The ______ ________ a remnant of the Müllerian duct, is a small ovoid structure located beneath the head of the epididymis

A

Appendix testis

425
Q

The ______ _______, representing a detached efferent duct, is a small stalk projecting off the epididymis

A

Appendix epididymis

426
Q

The testicular artery divides into _______ and _______ branches

A

Capsular and centripetal

427
Q

The ______ arteries course along the septula converging on the mediastinum testis

A

Centripetal

428
Q

What is the most common germ cell tumor in adults

A

Seminomas

429
Q

When an intratesticular mass is discovered what region should be evaluated for lymph nodes

A

Paraaortic

430
Q

Name 8 disorders associated with AIDS

A

1) fatty liver
2) hepatomegaly
3) hepatitis
4) non-Hodgkin lymphoma
5) candidiasis
6) cholangitis
7) cholecystitis
8) Kaposi sarcoma

431
Q

What are the sonographic findings associated with acute rejection of a renal transplant

A

1) enlarged transplant
2) decreased cortical echogenicity
3) Indistinct cortiocomedullay boundary
4) prominent hypoechoic med pyramids
5) peritransplant fluid collection

432
Q

Name 3 abdominal masses associated with the elevation of AFP

A

1) hepatocellular carcinoma
2) metastatic liver disease
3) Hepatoblastoma

433
Q

What is the most common prepubertal testicular tumor

A

Yolk sac tumor

434
Q

Increased levels of _______ is seen with yolk sac tumors

A

ALP

435
Q

Choriocarcinoma is associated with an increase in

A

Beta HCG

436
Q

_______ and _______ are the most common malignancies to affect the testis secondarily

A

Leukemia and lymphoma

437
Q

What type of testicular cyst is well defined solid hypoechoic mass with an echogenic capsule or onion ring pattern formed by multiple layers of keratin

A

Epidermoid cyst

438
Q

What is the most common cause of painless scrotal swelling

A

Hydrocele

439
Q

What is the most common correctable cause of male infertility

A

Varicoceles

440
Q

The left testicular vein drains into the

A

Left renal vein

441
Q

The right testicle drains into the

A

IVC

442
Q

Where do spermatoceles usually occur at

A

Epididymal head

443
Q

What is the most common condition that causes acute scrotal pain

A

Acute epididymitis

444
Q

What is the most common cause of scrotal pain in adolescents

A

Testicular torsion

445
Q

_____ and ______ are complications of cryptorchidism

A

Infertility and cancer

446
Q

The most common location of the cryptorchoid testis is in the

A

Inguinal canal

447
Q

What is the most common primary cancer to metastasize to the liver
A) melanoma
B) lung
C) ovary
D) GI tract

A

D) GI tract

448
Q

The most common parasitic infection in humans is
A) hydatid disease
B) schistosomiasis
C) pneumocystis carinnii
D) hepatitis

A

B) schistosomiasis

449
Q

Describe the anatomical relationship between the crus of diaphragm, aorta, celiac axis, IVC, and adrenal glands

A

Crus of diaphragm lies:
1) anterior to AO
2) superior to celiac
3) posterior to IVC
4) medial and posterior to the adrenal glands

450
Q

What 3 arteries supply the adrenal glands bilaterally

A

1) suprarenal branch of the inferior phrenic artery
2) suprarenal branch of the aorta
3) suprarenal branch of the renal artery

451
Q

Into which vessel does the right suprarenal vein drain

What about the left suprarenal vein

A

Right- Directly into the IVC

Left- left renal vein

452
Q

In what locations can pheochromocytoma be found

A

1) adrenal medulla
2) organ of Zuckerlandi
3) paravertebral sympathetic ganglia

453
Q

What 4 criteria define a nonfunctioning cortical adenoma

A

1) unilateral mass
2) no history of malignancy
3) no biochemical evidence of adrenal hyper-functioning
4) adrenal mass < 3 cm

454
Q

What 2 tumors originate from the adrenal medulla

A

1) pheochromocytoma
2) neuroblastoma

455
Q

Name 11 structures that are retroperitoneal

A

1) kidneys and ureters
2) IVC
3) pancreas
4) ascending and descending colon
5) lymph nodes
6) bladder
7) adrenal glands
8) aorta
9) portions of duodenum
10) prostate
11) uterus

456
Q

What zone of the prostate contains 70% of tissue and is the source of most prostate cancer

A

Peripheral zone

457
Q

What zone of the prostate is the site of origins of BPH

A

Transitional zone

458
Q

What is the largest lymphoid organ

A

The spleen

459
Q

_________ and ________ are the most common causes of granulomas

A

Histoplasmosis and tuberculosis

460
Q

_________ is defined as bilateral left sidedness

A

Polysplenia

461
Q

_______ is defined as bilateral right sidedness

A

Asplenia

462
Q

-absent spleen
- midline liver and GB
-intestinal malrotation
- reversed positions of AO and IVC
-cardiac defects describe

A

Asplenia

463
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of Addison disease
A) hypertension
B) hypokalemia
C) weight gain
D) hyponatremia

A

D) hyponatremia

464
Q

What is the definition of a true aortic aneurysm

A

Dilatation that involves all 3 layers of the aorta

465
Q

What is the definition of a false aneurysm

A

Aka pseudo- results from injury to the vessel wall where blood extravasates from the vessel

466
Q

What is a dissecting aneurysm

Describe the appearance of a dissecting aneurysm

A

Dissection of the intima away from the aortic wall

Seen as a septation dividing the aorta into a true lumen and a false lumen

467
Q

What is the thoracic continuation of ascending lumbar veins

A

Ascending lumbar veins parallel the spine and lie posterior to the psoas muscle

Superior to the diaphragm the right ascending lumbar continues as the azygos and the left ascending continues as the hemiazygos. Both drain into the IVC

468
Q

Refine retroperitoneal fibrosis

Describe the sono appearance

A

Dense fibrous tissue proliferation that is confined to the paravertebral and central abdominal region

Presents as a smooth marginated hypoechoic mass encasing the IVC and AO

469
Q

What is the presentation of papillary carcinoma

A

Hypoechoic thyroid mass and adjacent to enlarged cervical nodes

470
Q

The ______ sac is the space that is situated between the liver pancreas and stomach

A

Lesser

471
Q

The kidneys and adrenal glands lie in what space

A

Perirenal space

472
Q

What vessel branches do for the aorta 1 cm inferior to the celiac

A

SMA

473
Q

What arises from the lateral walls of the aorta just below the origin of the SMA

A

Renal arteries

474
Q

Which artery passes posterior to the IVC

A

Right renal artery

475
Q

What is the most common tumor to involve the IVC

A

Renal cell carcinoma

476
Q

A right renal artery aneurysm moves the IVC where

A

Anterior

477
Q

Lymphadenopathy displaces the IVC

A

Anterior

478
Q

A tortuous aorta displaces the IVC to the

A

Right

479
Q

A right renal/ adrenal mass displaces the IVC

A

Lateral

480
Q

A retroperitoneal tumor displaces the IVC

A

Anterior

481
Q

Which of the following is a malignant neoplasm
A) hamartoma
B) lymphoma
C) granuloma
D) hemangioma

A

B) lymphoma

482
Q

What causes pseudopancreatitis
A) cholecystitis
B) polycystic liver disease
C) hepatitis
D) fatty liver

A

D) fatty liver

483
Q

What is the tunica albuginea

A

Fibrous capsule that surrounds the testicle

484
Q

What is the tunica vaginalis

A

Extension of the peritoneum into the scrotal chamber.
Inner or visceral layer covers the testis and epididymis
Outer or parietal layer lines the wall of the scrotal chamber

485
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of acute scrotal pain

A

1) torsion of the spermatic cord
2) epididymo-orchitis

486
Q

Describe the sono findings associated with torsion of the spermatic cord

A

Testicle becomes enlarged, inhomgeneous and hypoechoic when compared to the contralateral normal testis
Enlarged epi, skin thickening, and reactive hydrocele

487
Q

Describe the sono findings associated with acute epididymitis

A

Enlarged epididymis with decreased echogenicity and inhomogenous echo texture.

488
Q

How does acute appendicitis develop

What are the sono signs of an inflamed appendix

A

Develops from the obstruction of the appendiceal lumen

Appendix greater than 6 mm or an appendicolith

489
Q

What are the sono signs of acute diverticulitis

What is a target or pseudo kidney sign

A

Thickened bowel or abscess formation in the LLQ

Abnormal bowel wall thickening. Appears as a hypoechoic external rim representing the thickened intestinal wall and an echogenic center

490
Q

_______ veins drain into the IVC

A

Hepatic

491
Q

Which renal vein drains directly into the IVC

A

Right renal vein

492
Q

Which renal vein passes between the SMA and aorta and travels from the left kidney to the IVC

A

Left renal vein

493
Q

What are 2 other names for retroperitoneal fibrosis

A

1) Ordmonds disease
2) inflammatory aneurysm

494
Q

The adrenal glands and kidneys are located in what space

A

Perirenal space

495
Q

This is excessive cortical secretion associated with adrenal adenomas

A

Cushing syndrome

496
Q

This is excessive cortical secretion due to increase in ACTH from a pituitary adenoma

A

Cushing disease

497
Q

This is excessive aldosterone secretion associated with adrenal adenoma

A

Conn disease

498
Q

Pheochromocytomas are assisted with what 2 things

A

1) MEN
2) Von-Hippel

499
Q

This is a malignant tumor that typically presented as a palpable abdominal mass in children

A

Adrenal neuroblastoma

500
Q

Benign nonfunctioning adrenal masses that contain fat and bone elements describes

A

Myelolipomas

501
Q

Which lymphoma is the most common cell type

A

Non-Hodgkin disease

502
Q

What is the most common symptom of renal cell carcinoma

A

Hematuria

503
Q

What are the symptoms of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

Hypertrophy of the circular pyloric muscle resulting in elongation and constriction of the intestines between the stomach and first portion of the duodenum. Neonates present with projectile vomiting and palpable olive like abdominal mass

504
Q

What are the sonographic criteria for HPS

A

Pyloric muscle > 4mm
Pyloric channel length > 1.2 cm
Pyloric cross section >1.5 cm

505
Q

What are the symptoms of an intussusception

A

Crampy intermittent abdominal pain, vomiting and passage of blood through the rectum

506
Q

What is the sonographic appearance of an intussusception

A

Oval pseudo kidney mass with central echoes on long imaging and a sonolucent doughnut or target configuration

507
Q

Define BPH

A

Enlargement of the inner gland which is hypoechoic relative to the peripheral zone.

508
Q

Describe the sono appearance of an abscess

A

Complex collections containing cystic and solid components. Debris, septations and gas are seen within the abscess. Borders are irregular and thick with posterior enhancement

509
Q

Iliac and popliteal aneurysms are commonly associated with

A

Aortic aneurysms

510
Q

What is the most common cause of a false aortic aneurysm

A

Trauma

511
Q

Celiac axis compression syndrome is also known as

A

Arcuate ligament compression syndrome

512
Q

Another name for duodenal atresia is

A

Double bubble sign

513
Q

What is the most common cause of obstruction in infants

A

Intussusception

514
Q

The diameter of the normal abdominal aorta is greatest at the level of the

A

Celiac

515
Q

The largest abdominal tributaries of the IVC are the

A

Hepatic veins

516
Q

The largest tributaries of the IVC are the

A

Common iliac veins

517
Q

The loops of Henle are located in which portion of the kidney

A

Medulla

518
Q

What is the normal Doppler tracing from the renal arteries

A

Low resistance waveform with increased diastolic flow

519
Q

The renal cortex contains which of the following
A) loops of henle
B) calyces
C) bowman’s capsule
D) pyramids

A

C) bowman’s capsule

520
Q

The renal pyramids are found in the
A) calyces
B) sinus
C) medulla
D) Cortex

A

C) medulla

521
Q

On a long scan, this vessel is seen in cross section posterior to the IVC
A) right renal artery
B) left renal vein
C) right renal vein
D) left renal artery

A

A) right renal artery

522
Q

The IMV empties into the

A

Splenic vein

523
Q

The ______arteries are the vessels that course perpendicular to the renal capsule within the outer renal parenchyma

A

Interlobular

524
Q

The cup like or funnel shaped extensions of the renal sinus that originate at the papilla and collect urine that is coursing toward the renal pelvis are

A

Minor calyces

525
Q

What artery courses posterior to the IVC to reach the right kidney

A

Right renal artery

526
Q

The renal arteries branch from the aorta just below the origin of the

A

SMA

527
Q

Which of the following vessels follow a retrocaval course in the abdomen

A

Right renal artery

528
Q

Describe the sono appearance of a hematoma

A

Depends on the age of the collection. Seen as echogenic collection because of rapid fibrin invasion

529
Q

What is pseudomyxoma peritonei

A

Filling of the peritoneal cavity with mucinous material and gelatinous ascites

530
Q

What does the presence of portal venous gas indicate

What is the sono appearance

A

Indicates bowel infarction as seen in ulcerative colitis or necrotizing entercolitis

Linear echogenic branches in the periphery of the liver

531
Q

What are the symptoms of Graves’ disease

Describe the sono features

A

1) exophthalmos
2) palpable lymph nodes
3) muscle atrophy
4) localized myxedema
5) weight loss
6) temors
7) nervousness

Diffusely enlarged thyroid that’s hyper functioning. Color flow shows increased vascularity

532
Q

Name and describe 2 cystic masses associated with the pancreas in patients without a history of adult PKD

A

1) pseudocysts- encapsulated collections of panc enzymes
2) cystadenomas- fluid collection that arise from the epithelium of the pancreatic duct. Primarily cystic with separations and thick walls

533
Q

Name 5 techniques to access a renal artery stenosis

A

1) main renal artery peak systolic velocity
2) RAR
3) pulsus parvus et Tardus
4) absent early systolic peak
5) acceleration

534
Q

Define acceleration time

Define acceleration index

A

Acceleration time- interval of time from the beginning of systole to the initial peak velocity

Acceleration index- dividing acceleration slope by frequency

535
Q

Define the term tardus

Define the term parvus

A

Tardus- prolonged or delayed early systolic acceleration

Parvus- decreased amplitude and rounding of the systolic peak

536
Q

Name 6 causes of GB wall thickening

A

1) ascites
2) cholecystitis
3) Adenomyomatosis
4) hypoalbuminea
5) CHF
6) acute hepatitis

537
Q

Name 5 reasons for an enlarged GB

A

1) prolonged fasting
2) hydrops
3) choledocholithiasis
4) Courvoisier GB
5) diabetes

538
Q

Name and describe 3 causes of jaundice

A

1) hepatocellular disease- destruction of the hepatocytes that interfere with the excretion of bilirubin
2) hemolytic disease- hepaocytes can’t conjugate bilirubin fast enough
3) surgical jaundice- mechanical obstruction of the biliary tree

539
Q

Describe the location of the 4 parts of the duodenum and their anatomical relationship

A

First portion- transverse oriented segment which originates from the pylorus. CBD and GDA run posterior

2nd portion- longitudinal oriented segment. Directly lateral to head of the pancreas. CBD and panc duct combine to form ampulla of Vater which terminates 2nd portion

3rd portion- transversely oriented segment located between SMA and AO

4th portion- longitudinally oriented to the left of the AO and terminates jejunum

540
Q

What is the typical sono appearance of lymph nodes

A

Anechoic or hypoechoic masses with acoustic enhancement

541
Q

What is the most common type of thyroiditis

A

Chronic lymphocytic hashimotos

542
Q

Name 2 structures posterior to the IVC

A

1) right renal artery
2) right adrenal gland

543
Q

What is a cold nodule

What mass commonly appears as a cold nodule in a nuc med thyroid scintigram

A

Cold nodule- indicates an areas of hypofunctioning

Benign thyroid nodules like adenomas

544
Q

What clinical condition is milk of calcium bile associated with

A

Chronic cholecystitis due to gallstones or obstruction of the cystic duct

545
Q

What are 2 other name for Graves’ disease

A

1) hyperthyroidism
2) diffuse toxic goiter

546
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperparathyroidism

A

Parathyroid adenoma

547
Q

An increase is PTH that is increased with serum calcium confirms the diagnosis of

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

548
Q

Hyperparathyroidism is the most common manifestation of

A

MEN syndrome

549
Q

The inability to synthesize vitamin D depresses the serum calcium level which stimulates

A

Parathyroid gland hyperplasia

550
Q

What 2 arteries originate from the aortic arch

A

1) left CCA
2) subclavian

551
Q

Name the 3 vessels of the aortic arch

A

1) innominate artery
2) left CCA
3) left subclavian

552
Q

The ICA is ______ and ______ and the ECA is ______ and ______ in location

A

ICA= lateral and posterior
ECA= medial and anterior

553
Q

The ICA has a ____ resistance waveform while the ECA has a _____ resistance waveform

A

ICA= low
ECA= high

554
Q

The first branch of the ICA is

A

The ophthalmic artery

555
Q

What is the first branch of the ECA

A

Superior thyroid artery

556
Q

Calcitonin is produced by which of the following cell types

A) pararthyroid parafollicular
B) thyroid follicular
C) parathyroid follicular
D) thyroid parafollicular

A

D) thyroid parafollicular

557
Q

Which of the following structures is not included in the spermatic cord
A) centripetal artery
B) gonadal artery
C) vas deferens
D) cremasteric artery

A

A) centripetal artery

558
Q

Aside from the pancreas what other organ produces amylase
A) adrenal glands
B) pituitary glands
C) liver
D) salivary glands

A

D) salivary glands