Lange Q&A Pulmonology Flashcards

1
Q

A 19yo male college student presents with a 4-day history of fever, headache, sore throat, myalgia, malaise, and a non-productive cough. On exam, you note an erythematous pharynx without exudate. The lung exam is unimpressive. A CXR reveals a right-sided lower lobe patchy infiltrate. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
b) Klebsiella pneumoniae
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Staphylococcus aureus

A

a: Mycoplasma pneumonia often presents after days of constitutional symptoms and a nonproductive cough. Generally, the exam reveals little more than a reddened throat and rarely, bullous myringitis. Dx is made on clinical grounds. Cold agglutinins are a common confirmatory test*

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2
Q

A 40yo woman presents with sudden onset of cough productive of blood-speckled sputum, chest pain with cough, shaking chills, high fever, and myalgia for the last 12 hours. On exam, she appears acutely ill, is tachypneic, and is coughing. Auscultation of the chest reveals rales and CXR reveals unilateral lobar consolidation consistent with pneumonia. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Chlamydia pneumoniae
d) aspiration pneumonia

A

b: Pneumococcal pneumonia is the most common cause of pneumonia. Classically it presents with abrupt onset of fever, cough (productive of rusty sputum), and pleuritic CP. CXR usually reveals lobar consolidation.

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3
Q

A 3yo pt presents with sudden onset of coughing and wheezing, which began at the dinner table this evening. Vital signs are pulse 120, respirations 26, and temp 98.6F. The most likely dx is a partial obstruction secondary to tracheal foreign body. What is the next step in the management of this pt?

a) chest physiotherapy
b) intubation
c) tracheostomy
d) bronchoscopy

A

d: pts with obstruction of the trachea typically present with cough, wheezing, dyspnea, and/or cyanosis. In most cases, the definitive dx is made by endoscopy, and tx can be accomplished at the same time by removal of the object.

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4
Q

An otherwise healthy 30yo pt presents with a 3 week hx of cough and malaise. The hx reveals that prior to this episode had a URI that was tx with acetaminophen, bedrest, and fluids. The physical exam reveals a normal lung exam and no fever. The pt is coughing while in the office. The CXR is normal. What is the most effect tx for this pt?

a) clarithromycin
b) albuterol HFA
c) Flumadine
d) fluticasone

A

b: in pts with acute bronchitis, bronchodilators may give symptomatic relief. Studies show that bronchodilator therapy may lead to quicker resolution of cough and return to normal functioning. Antibiotics have not been shown to be effective in pts with acute bronchitis. Corticosteroid therapy and antiviral therapy are NOT appropriate for acute bronchitis.

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5
Q

A 32yo pt with a 3 week hx of fever, malaise, weight loss, joint pain, and dry cough presents in your office. The CXR reveals bilateral hilar adenopathy with no parenchymal abnormalities. You suspect and would like to rule out sarcoidosis. How can the definitive dx be made?

a) biopsy of the mediastinal nodes
b) perform a bronchoalveolar lavage
c) administer an intradermal purified protein derivative
d) measure serum angiotensin-converting enzyme

A

a: Dx is confirmed by finding well formed noncaseating granulomas in affected tissues. Because the lung is involved so commonly, the routine CXR is almost always abnormal but cannot be used as the sole criteria

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6
Q

What is the most common mode of transmission of the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria?

a) aerosolized droplets
b) blood borne
c) transplacental
d) transdermal

A

a: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is most commonly transmitted from a patient with infectious pulmonary tuberculosis to other persons by droplet nuclei, which are aerosolized by coughing, sneezing, or speaking. Crowding in poorly ventilated rooms is one of the most important factors in the transmission of tubercle bacilli, since it increases the intensity of a contact with a case.

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7
Q

A 65yo alcoholic male pt presents with the acute onset of fever, cough productive of purulent sputum, hemoptysis, CP, and SOB. On exam, he is noted to be confused and hypotensive. CXR shows bilateral infiltrates and cavitations. Sputum smear reveals gram-neg rods. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this pneumonia?

a) Pneumocytstis jiroveci
b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
c) Chamydia pneumoniae
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

d: Klebsiella pneumoniae is the most likely cause. It is common, along with other gram-neg bacilli, in alcoholic and in debilitated pts. It typically causes the acute onset of cough, CP, and SOB. Cavitation are likely to be seen in pneumonias caused by Klebsiella.

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8
Q

What is the DOC for Mycoplasma pneumonia?

a) penicillins
b) cephalosporins
c) aminoglycosides
d) macrolides

A

d: Macrolides s/a erythromycin or tetracyclines are the DOC in treating Mycoplasma pneumoniae. GI intolerance is common with erythromycin. Doxycycline, azithromycin, or clarithromycin may be used as alternatives.

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9
Q

What is the empirical drug tx of choice for a known case of community-acquired?

a) gentamycin
b) penicillin
c) clarithromycin
d) vancomycin

A

c: The pneumococcus is the most common cause of community-acquired pyogenic bacterial pneumonia. The prevalence of penicillin resistant pneumococci is increasing in the U.S.; therefore, macrocodes are the class of choice and may be used in penicillin-allergic patients

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10
Q

A 50yo man presents with a hx of persistent cough, hemoptysis, and weight loss over the past 6 months. He has smoked 2 PPD for 30 years and also complains of shoulder and CP. On exam, he is noted to be pale, febrile, and dyspneic upon exertion. The CXR shows hillier adenopathy. What is the most likely dx?

a) asthma
b) bronchiectasis
c) bronchogenic carcinoma
d) COPD

A

c: The clinical manifestations of bronchogenic carcinoma can vary and is largely based on the location of the tumor and extent of disease. Anorexia, weight loss, asthenia, and cough are some of the more common clinical manifestations. CXR may demonstrate hilar adenopathy, infiltrates, or single or multiple nodules. Asthma and COPD usually reveal hyperinflation of lungs and flattened diaphragms. The medical hx is not consistent with bronchiectasis where the chest film may demonstrate dilated, thickened bronchi, scattered opacities, and atelectasis.

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11
Q

A 43yo woman with a hx of COPD presents to the office with worsening dyspnea, especially at rest. She also complains of dull, retrosternal CP. On exam, she has narrow splitting of S1. Radiographic findings demonstrate peripheral “pruning” of the large pulmonary arteries. What is the most likely dx?

a) CHF
b) pericarditis
c) pulmonary embolus
d) pulmonary hypertension

A

d: Peripheral “pruning” of the large pulmonary arteries is characteristic of pulmonary hypertension in severe emphysema

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12
Q

What radiologic findings is/are most suggestive of chronic silicosis?

a) eggshell calcification of enlarged hilar lymph nodes
b) pneumothorax and atelectasis
c) large nodules that appear primarily in the lower lobes
d) pleural thickening and plaques

A

a: Eggshell calcification of hilar or mediastinal lymph nodes is characteristic of silicosis. The ds may also be recognized by the presence of SMALL nodules, which appear predominately in the UPPER lobes. Pneumothorax, atelectasis, and pleural thickening and plaques are NOT radiologic features of silicosis.

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13
Q

A 50yo pt presents with a fever of 102F, productive cough, mild CP on deep breathing and coughing, and general malaise for the last 2 days. Prior to the onset of these symptoms, the pt had a “bad cold” for 5 days. What physical finding would be most consistent with this hx?

a) vesicular breath sounds
b) decreased transmitted voice sounds
c) inspiratory crackles
d) diffuse hyperresonance

A

c: In a pt with pneumonia, inspiratory crackles along with bronchial breath sounds, increase tactile fremitus and transmitted voice sounds (the presence of egophony, bronchophony, and/or whispered pectoriloquy), and dullness to percussion over the involved area would be consistent findings on physical exam.

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14
Q

Which histological type of lung cancer has the LOWEST 5-yr survival rate?

a) bronchioalveolar
b) large cell
c) small cell
d) squamous cell
e) adenocarcinoma

A

c: the prognosis for each type of lung cancer varies according to the pathologic stage. However, in general, small cell lung carcinoma (SCLC) has the WORST prognosis, with the median survival period of 12-16 months with only 5% to 25% surviving 2 years, whereas pts with extensive disease have a median survival period of only 7-11 months, with only 1% to 3% surviving 2 years.

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15
Q

A 43yo female pt who is HIV negative is recently dx with pulmonary tuberculosis via a positive purified protein derivative (PPD) and culture. She receives annual PPD testing and prior to this test has been negative. What is the current recommended tx?

a) 3 months of isoniazid (INH), rifampin (RIF), and pyrazinamid (PZA) and ethambutol (EMB)
b) 2 months of INH, RIF, PZA, and streptomycin (SM) followed by 1 month of INH and RIF
c) 6 months of INH and RIF
d) 2 months of INH, RIF, PZA, and EMB followed by 4 months of INH and RIF

A
  • This question is super hard and I doubt they would go in to this depth on our exam, so I figured I’d post it anyways in case anyone cares to know out of curiosity.
    d: the CDC currently recommends a minimum of 6 months of INH and RIF with initial 2 months of PZA and SM or EMB for immunocompetent persons
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16
Q

A 35yo man who is HIV positive presents to the ED complaining of high fever, pleuritic CP, and grossly purulent sputum. Hx also reveals that he was recently at a local conference and spend most of the time indoors. The ED has seen three other pts this week with the same complaints. On exam, he is toxic appearing with a temp of 103F. The chest films demonstrate focal patchy infiltrates. What is the tx of choice.

a) doxycylcine
b) erythromycin
c) levofloxacin
d) penicillin

A

c: The tx of choice for immunocompromised pts with legionella infection is either azithromycin or clarithromycin, or a fluoroquinolone s/a levofloxacin. Erythromycin and doxycycline are acceptable txs for immunocompromised pts with legionella. Penicillin is ineffective against legionella.

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17
Q

A 19yo woman, post motor vehicle accident, is hospitalized with a femur fx. She develops sudden onset of dyspnea, cough, and anxiety with retrosternal CP. On exam, her pulse is 120, respirations 32, and BP 120/80. CXR shows mild bilateral atelectasis. ECG is normal. What is the most likely dx?

a) pulmonary thromboembolism
b) aortic dissection
c) pneumonia
d) pneumothorax

A

a: PE is most often caused by the embolization of thrombus from the deep veins of the lower extremities. People at risk for PE are those with hypercoagulable states, which may arise from the use of birth control pills, local stasis, immobilization that may be the results of an accident or illness, fx, obesity, CHF. Signs and symptoms often begin abruptly and include dyspnea, cough, and CP (frequently pleuritic in nature). Hemoptysis may occur; tachypnea and tachycardia are common in this illness. A low grade fever, wheezing, rales, or pleural rub are also signs of PE.

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18
Q

What imaging study is the “gold standard” used to confirm the dx of DVT?

a) arteriography
b) contrast venography
c) Doppler ultrasound
d) ventilation-perfusion scan

A

b: Contrast venography is the imaging study of choice to dx a DVT. Doppler ultrasound can be used for screening. Arteriography and V/Q scans would not be appropriate studies to dx DVT.

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19
Q

A 70yo pt with a long hx of COPD presents to the office for a regular office visit. The pts hx is unchanged and the physical exam is consistent with long-term hx of COPD. One of the findings is distal phalanges that are rounded and bulbous. Upon palpation, the proximal nail folds feel spongy. This finding is consistent with what condition?

a) acute dyspnea
b) chronic hypoxia
c) transient hypercapnia
d) chronic hyponatremia

A

b: This description is consistent with digital clubbing. It accompanies chronic hypoxia associated with conditions s/a COPD, lung cancer, HD, and cirrhosis.

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20
Q

What is the mainstay bronchodilator treatment for mild intermittent asthma?

a) beta-adrenergic agents
b) theophylline
c) aminophylline
d) antileukotrienes

A

a: Beta-adrenergic agents are the mainstay bronchodilator tx for mild asthma. Theophylline and aminophylline are bronchodilators of moderate potency and are usually reserved for pts with moderate to severe asthma. Antileukotrienes are controller meds, not bronchodilators.

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21
Q

What is considered the primary therapy for pts with PE who are hemodynamically unstable?

a) anticoagulation with heparin
b) anti-embolization stockings
c) insertion of an inferior vena caval filter
d) thrombolysis with tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

A

d: primary therapy consists of clot dissolution with thrombolysis or removal of PE by embolectomy and is reserved for pts at high risk of death from right heart failure and for those pts at risk of recurrent PE despite adequate anticoagulation. Anticoagulation with heparin is useful to prevent further clot developmen, but it does not directly dissolve thrombi or emboli. The use of filters is considered a preventative measure, as is the recommended us of anti embolism stockings.

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22
Q

A 17yo girl presents complaining of a nonproductive cough, postnasal drip, and nasal congestion. Exam reveals inflamed nasal turbinates, cobblestoning of the posterior pharynx, and diffuse bilateral end expiratory wheezes. Which laboratory test will provide the best info to assist in making the dx?

a) arterial blood gas
b) CXR
c) peak flow measurements
d) spirometry

A

d: Evaluation for asthma should include spirometry before and after the administration of a short-acting bronchodilator to determine whether airflow obstruction is immediately reversible. Peak expiratory flow meters are designed for home use to assess severity and provide objective data to guide tx. ABG measurement may be normal in mild exacerbations, but respiratory alkalosis is also common in severe cases. Chest films may show only hyperinflation and are indicated only if pneumonia or pneumothorax is expected.

23
Q

A 7yo boy with a hx of asthma presents with nocturnal cough occurring every night along with daily exacerbations of wheezing and SOB. How would his asthma be classified?

a) intermittent
b) mild persistent
c) moderate persistent
d) severe persistent

A

d: In this case, the nighttime symptoms and daily exacerbations would classify his asthma as severe persistent. The National Asthma Education and Prevention Program has outlined the classification of severity of chronic asthma, which is useful in directing asthma therapy. The classification is based on the frequency of symptoms, nighttime severity, and peak flow measurements.

24
Q

A 13yo girl presents complaining of intermittent episodes of wheezing, which occur only when she is exercising. Which of the following medications is most appropriate to prevent her symptoms?

a) ipratropium
b) fluticasone
c) salmeterol
d) terbutaline

A

c: Long-acting bronchodilators, such as salmeterol, are indicated for long-term prevention of asthma symptoms and nocturnal symptoms, and for the prevention of exercise induced bronchospasm (EIB). It is critical to educate the pt that this should not be used as a tx for acute bronchoconstriction. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid that can be used as part of the tx strategy for mild persistent, moderate persistent, and severe persistent asthma. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic agent used to reverse vagally mediated bronchospasm but not allergen or EIB. Theophylline is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that is not recommended for therapy of asthma exacerbations.

25
Q

A 35yo woman with a hx of severe persistent asthma has been tx with inhaled corticosteroids, a long-acting bronchodilator, and prednisone tablets for several years. In order to decrease the severity of the side effects of this tx regimen, which of the following should be prescribed?

a) benzodiazepines
b) beta-blockers
c) folic acid
d) vitamin D and calcium

A

d: Concurrent tx with calcium supplements, vitamin D, and bisphosphonates can be prescribed to prevent steroid-induced bone mineral loss that occurs with long-term use of steroids. Benzodiazepines, folic acid, and bile acid sequestrants are not indicated for pts on long-term steroids.

26
Q

A 17yo girl with a hx of cystic fibrosis presents with a chronic cough productive of copious, foul smelling, purulent sputum. The pt is afebrile and the lung exam reveals crackles at the lung bases bilaterally. What is the most likely dx?

a) asthma
b) bronchiectasis
c) bronchiolitis
d) pneumonitis

A

b: Symptoms of bronchiectasis include chronic cough, purulent sputum, hemoptysis, and recurrent pneumonia. In addition, weight loss, anemia, and other systemic manifestations are common. CF causes about half of all cases of bronchiectasis. Asthma can cause cough but it generally characterized as nonproductive and presents with expiratory wheezes. Bronchiolitis is common in infants and children and is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus or adenovirus. Pneumonitis is a general term for inflammation of the lung (alveoli’s) and may be the result of an infectious or environmental insult.

27
Q

Which of the following disorders of the large bronchioles is characterized by the destruction of bronchial walls?

a) asthma
b) bronchiectasis
c) cystic fibrosis
d) pneumonia

A

b: Bronchiectasis is characterized by permanent, abnormal dilation and destruction of bronchial walls. Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder or the airways. Cystic fibrosis causes altered chloride transport and water flux across the apical surface of epithelial cells. Pneumonia is caused by the infiltration of the lower respiratory tract by microorganisms.

28
Q

A 35yo man is suspected of having a small right sided pleural effusion . What imaging modality is most sensitive to detect a small amount of pleural fluid?

a) Chest CT
b) lateral chest film
c) left lateral decubitus chest film
d) standard upright chest film

A

a: A chest CT can identify as little as 10mL of fluid. On the lateral view, at least 75 to 100 mL of pleural fluid must accumulate in the posterior sulcus to be visible. To make fluid in the right side become more visible, the pt must be in the right lateral decubitus position. The frontal view requires that at least 175 to 200mL must be present.

29
Q

A 58yo man with a hx of hypertension and left ventricular hypertrophy presents with SOB. Exam reveals dullness to percussion bilaterally with decreased breath sounds. Pleural fluid is aspirated and analyzed. Which of the following results is consistent with his most likely dx?

a) glucose 40mg/dL
b) LDH 300 IU/L
c) protein 2.5 mg/dL
d) WBC 2,000/mm3

A

c: The pt is most likely in CHF, which would results in transudative effusion. Pleural findings consistent with a transudate include glucose greater than 60mg/dL; protein less than 3g/dL. WBC less than 1000; LDH less than 200

30
Q

A 75yo male smoker presents with hemoptysis, weight loss, and chronic cough. Chest films reveal a hilar mass greater than 5cm and fluid in the costophrenic sulcus. An analysis of the pleural fluid is completed. Which of the following results is consistent with his most likely dx?

a) glucose 40mg/dL
b) LDG 100 IU/L
c) protein 2.9 g/dL
d) WBC 787/mm3

A

a: The patient most likely has carcinoma, which would result in an exudative effusion. Pleural findings consistent with an exudate include glucose less than 60; protein greater than 3; WBC less than 1,000; LDH greater than 200

31
Q

A 14yo healthy boy presents to the ED complaining of an acute onset of unilateral CP and dyspnea that occurred without a precipitating event. Exam reveals unilateral chest expansion and decreased breath sounds. What is the most likely dx?

a) atypical pneumonia
b) pericarditis
c) pulmonary embolism
d) spontaneous pneumothorax

A

d: These findings are most consistent with a spontaneous pneumothorax, which is primarily found in tall, thin men between ages of 10-30. Pericarditits is an acute inflammatory process of the pericardium due to either an infectious process or systemic disease, neoplasms, radiation, drug toxicity, or other processes. The clinical presentation includes CP, which is relieved by leaning forward. PE presents as acute onset of chest pain with tachycardia. Breath sounds are usually normal and fremitus is symmetrical.

32
Q

A 25yo pt with a hx of tobacco use presents complaining of acute onset of right-sided CP and dyspnea. He has no other symptoms. Exam reveals a tall, think man, who is mildly anxious and SOB. An expiratory film shows a visceral pleural line. What chest exam findings are consistent with the pts dx?

a) decreased tactile fremitus; hyperresonance to percussion
b) increased tactile fremitus; dullness to percussion
c) decreased tactile fremitus; dullness to percussion
d) increased tactile fremitus; hyperresonance to percussion

A

a: This pt has a pneumothorax. Because of the accumulation of air in the pleural space, fremitus on the affected side will be decreased and percussion will be hyperresonant

33
Q

Which of the following chest films will best demonstrate a small pneumothorax?

a) expiratory
b) lateral decubitus
c) Lordotic
d) oblique

A

a: Small pneumothoraces may only be seen on an expiratory film. Other findings include a visceral pleural line on a chest film and a “deep sulcus sign” on a supine film.

34
Q

A 65yo man presents with a chronic productive cough, dyspnea, and wheezing. Exam reveals cyanosis, distended neck veins, and a prominent epigastric pulsation. What is the most likely dx?

a) cor pulmonale
b) chronic bronchitis
c) emphysema
d) pneumonia

A

a: Cor pulmonale is right ventricular hypertrophy and failure resulting from pulmonary disease. It is most commonly caused by COPD, which is this pts underlying disorder precipitating the failure. While the other 3 diagnoses may have similar symptoms, none of them would present with distended neck veins and prominent epigastric pulsations.

35
Q

A 4yo child is brought to the ED with a low grade fever, barking cough, and respiratory stridor with activity but not at rest. On exam, you note the cough and the absence of drooling. What is the most appropriate tx for this child?

a) dexamethosone IM
b) endotracheal intubation and IV antibiotics
c) inhale budesonide
d) nebulized racemic epinephrine
e) supportive therapy with oral hydration

A

e: Viral croup is the most likely dx in this pt. It is most often caused by the parainfluenza virus. This pt displays mild symptoms: low grade fever, cough, and stridor only with activity. In this case, the most appropriate tx is SUPPORTIVE. If this pt was more seriously ill and had stridor at rest, other tx including inhaled, oral, or IM steroids and/or epinephrine would be appropriate. Intubation is reserved for the most severe pts with impending respiratory failure. The use of IV antibiotics is inappropriate in a viral illness.

36
Q

An otherwise healthy 2yo is brought to your office in late winter with a low grade fever, wheezing, and cough. On physical exam, you note diffuse wheezing and retractions. The pt is not having any trouble feeding or swallowing. This is the fifth child you have seen this week with the same symptoms. What is the most likely dx?

a) bronchiolitis due to RSV
b) epiglottitis due to H. influenzae type B
c) pharyngitis due to group A strep
d) pneumonia due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae
e) tracheitis due to S. aureus

A

a: Brionchioloitis due to RSV is the best answer. RSV peaks in winter and is common in young children. It is often a dx made on the basis of symptoms, particularly during an outbreak. Epiglottitis presents more acutely with sudden onset of fever, dysphagia, drooling, and cyanosis. Tracheitis is also more severe, Pts develop high fever, toxicity, and upper airway obstruction. Pneumonia due to mycoplasma is not usually seen in this age group; generally, pts with mycoplasma are older than 5. Pharyngitis generally presents with sore throat and fever; cough and wheezing are not part of the clinical presentation.

37
Q

What is a common initial presentation of cystic fibrosis?

a) congestive heart failure
b) failure to thrive
c) biliary cirrhosis
d) ulcerative colitis

A

b: More than 40% of pts with CF present in infancy with FAILURE TO THRIVE, and respiratory compromise. The age of presentation may be variable from infancy into adulthood. Biliary cirrhosis becomes symptomatic in only 2-3% of pts. CHF is not usually part of the initial presentation. GI disease is equally common and most commonly caused by distal intestinal obstruction, not by ulcerative colitis.

38
Q

What viral illness is transmitted via the respiratory route by droplet nuclei?

a) arbovirus
b) influenza
c) RSV
d) rhinovirus
e) severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)

A

b: influenza is transmitted via droplet nuclei. RSV, rhinovirus, and SARS are transmitted via fomites or large particle aerosols. Arbovirus is transmitted by arthropods or ticks and produces a variety of encephalitides including West Nile Fever, St. Louis encephalitis, and California encephalitis

39
Q

A 4yo child presents with a 2-week history of cough, rhinitis, and sneezing without fever. In the last 2 days, the cough has become more severe and is now paroxysmal (10-20 forceful coughs at a time). The paroxysms are accompanied by a loud high-pitched inspiratory sound. The child’s medical hx reveals that immunizations were not completed in infancy. What is the most likely dx?

a) diphtheria
b) H. influenzae type B
c) legionella
d) pertussis

A

d: The most likely dx is pertussis which is typically preceded by 2-3 weeks of cough and coryza without fever: the characteristic “whooping” cough is a high pitched inspiratory sound. Diphtheria typically presents with sore throat, fever, and malaise and produces a pseudomembrane, most often in the phayrnx. H. influenza type B causes a severe febrile illness that presents with meningitis, epiglottitis, septic arthritis, and cellulitis. Legionella causes abrupt onset with fever, chills, and HA, which progresses rapidly to pneumonia.

40
Q

A 37yo man who recently immigrated to the U.S and is otherwise healthy, presents to the office complaining of severe paroxysms of cough that have persisted for the past 4 weeks. He describes the cough as severe, causing him to have difficulty catching his breath and making him feel as if he will vomit. HE states that before the onset of cough, he was fatigued and complained of symptoms of head cold. What is the tx of choice for the most likely dx?

a) ceftriaxone
b) erythromycin
c) isoniazid
d) penicillin

A

b: This is a classic presentation of PERTUSSIS. Although the classic post-tussive “whoop” is described in the literature, it is a more common symptom in childhood and found less frequently in adults. Because of the waning in immunity to pertussis in adults who are not receiving booster vaccinations, the incidence of pertussis is increasing. Tx of pertussis is ERYTHROMYCIN, clarithromycin, or azithromycin. Household contacts should also be tx. The other drugs listed would not be appropriate for the tx of pertussis.

41
Q

Which laboratory/dx finding is consistent with coal worker’s pneumoconiosis (CWP)?

a) CT scan showing predominance of ground-glass abnormality
b) CXR with eggshell calcifications in hilar lymph nodes
c) decreased FEV1
d) positive ANA
e) positive RF

A

c: DECREASED FEV1 is typically found in pts with CWP. CXR with eggshell calcifications is found in a small % of pts with silicosis. A CT scan showing a ground-glass abnormality may be found in a nonspecific interstitial pneumonia. A positive ANA may be found in silicosis but is nonspecific. A positive RF may be found in RA with pulmonary involvement

42
Q

What is the commonly prescribed initial tx of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)?

a) colchicine in combination with a broad-spectrum antibiotic
b) corticosteroids in combo with immunosuppressive agents
c) hospitalization, intubation, and broad spectrum antibiotics
d) lung transplantation
e) methotrexate in combination with low dose corticosteroids

A

b: No tx to date has demonstrated improvement in survival; however, oral corticosteroids with an immunosuppressive agent is the most commonly prescribed tx. Lung transplantation is considered only if medical therapy fails. Colchicine, methotrexate, and broad-spectrum antibiotics are not used in the tx of IPF. Initial tx does not generally require hospitalization or intubation.

43
Q

Which of the following combination of findings would provide a definitive dx of cystic fibrosis (CF)?

a) family hx of CR; abnormal PFT
b) abnormal PFT; pancreatic insufficiency
c) abnormal sweat test; pancreatic insufficiency
d) abnormal CXR; family hx of CF

A

c: An elevated quantitative pilocarpine iontophoreses sweat test is one of the most consistent findings in CF. Only 2% of CF pts have a normal result. Genetic testing may also be performed.

44
Q

A premature infant is born at 32 weeks and after several hours develops rapid shallow respirations at 60/min, grunting retractions, and duskiness of the skin. The CXR reveals diffuse bilateral atelectasis, ground glass appearance, and air bronchograms. What is the most likely dx?

a) hyaline membrane disease
b) meconium aspiration
c) Tetraology of Fallot
d) ventral septal defect

A

a: Hyaline membrane disease is the most common cause of respiratory distress in the preterm infant. It is caused by a deficiency in surfactant that results in poor lung compliance and atelectasis.

45
Q

A child presents to the office with respiratory symptoms consistent with influenza. What would be most helpful in supporting the dx?

a) CXR with air bronchograms
b) elevated WBC count
c) epidemiologic and overall clinical data
d) hx of no influenza immunization
e) presence of pneumonia

A

c: Epidemiologic and clinical data are most helpful. Influenza is otherwise indistinguishable from any number of acute respiratory illnesses. Leukocytosis may be present but does not exist in making dx. CXR findings are nonspecific and may reveal atelectasis and/or an infiltrate in about 10% of children. Lack of vaccination may contribute to the dx but would not by itself be diagnostic. Pneumonia is common complication of influenza but is not diagnostic.

46
Q

A 50yo presents to the office complaining of progressive dyspnea over the past few years. Hx reveals that he has worked in construction for the past 20 years demolishing and refurbishing old buildings. He rarely used any protective breathing equipment. Physical exam demonstrates an afebrile man in mild respiratory distress with inspiratory crackles. The CXR reveals a reticular linear pattern with basilar predominance, opacities, and honeycombing. What is the most likely dx?

a) asbestosis
b) coal workers pneumoconiosis (CWP)
c) acute hypersensitivity pneumonitis
d) silicosis

A

a: The clinical presentation described best fits asbestosis. CWP and silicosis cause a nodular pattern with upper lobe predominance. Acute hypersensitivity pneumonitis would not be a likely dx in this pt who presents with a chronic condition and not an acute process.

47
Q

Classically, pertussis is an illness that lasts for weeks and is divided into stages. A pt who presents with 5 days of congestion, rhinorrhea, low grade fever, and sneezing is in which stage?

a) catarrhal
b) convalescent
c) paroxysmal
d) prodromal

A

a: Catarrhal: the first stage of illness. The second stage-paroxysmal-is marked by the onset of coughing. The third and final stage is the convalescent stage where the number, severity, and duration of coughing episodes diminish. There is not formal prodromal phase in pertussis

48
Q

A 30yo pt presnets to the office complaining of an acute onset of fever of 101F, chills, productive cough, and CP. The pain is described as severe, knife-like, and worsened by coughing and/or deep inspiration. What i the name given to this type of CP?

a) ischemic
b) neuralgic
c) pleuritic
d) visceral

A

c: The description best fits pleuritic CP. Visceral pain is poorly localized and usually described as aching or heaviness. Ischemic pain and neurologic pain can be very variable in presentation. Neither would fit the description above

49
Q

A 47yo man is admitted to the ICU in shock following a near drowning 3 hours ago. While in the ICU, he suddenly develops dyspnea, and rales. The chest film demonstrates air bronchograms and patchy bilateral infiltrates that spare the costophrenic angels. There is no cardiomegaly or pleural effusions. What is the most likely dx?

a) ARDS
b) CHF
c) pneumothorax
d) pulmonary embolism

A

a: This is a classic presentation of ARDS. Common risk factors for ARDS include sepsis, shock, and trauma. Air bronchograms on CXR is found in 80% of pts with noncardiogenic acute respiratory distress syndrome. There may also be peripheral distribution of infiltrates that typically spare the costophrenic angles. Kerley B lines and flattened diaphragms are not part of the picture. The heart is usually normal sized.

50
Q

A 7yo previously healthy pt presents with acute onset of respiratory distress following ingestion of a piece of candy. Which of the following signs or symptoms is most ominous?

a) aphonia
b) cough
c) drooling
d) stridor

A

a: Aphonia, the inability to vocalize, is a sign of a complete obstruction of the airway as is an inability to cough. Signs and symptoms of a partial obstruction include cough, stridor, and drooling

51
Q

A 55yo smoker with lung cancer presents with ptosis and miosis. What is the third clinical finding that compromises this syndrome found in pts with lung cancer?

a) anhidrosis
b) pericarditis
c) pneumonitis
d) systemic acidosis

A

a: Horner syndrome (ipsilateral ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis) is due to involvement of the inferior cervical ganglion and the paravertebral sympathetic chain. Pericarditis, pneumonitis, and systemic acidosis are not components of Horner’s syndrome

52
Q

A 32yo African American woman with a hx of erythema nodosum presents with nonspecific complaints s/a fatigue and malaise. Based on the fact that she is a smoker with these symptoms, a CXR is ordered that demonstrates bilateral hilar adenopathy. A transbronchial lung biopsy reveals noncaseating granulomas. What is the most likely dx?

a) bronchogenic carcinoma
b) mesothelioma
c) sarcoidosis
d) tuberuclosis

A

c: Sarcoidosis is a systemic ds of unknown etiology, which is generally characterized by granulomatous inflammation of the lung. In the U.S., the incidence is highest in blacks. Symptoms may include malaise, fatigue, and dyspnea but can also include others. Erythema nodosum is not an uncommon finding. Bronchogenic carcinoma may also present with bilateral hilar adenopathy and a biopsy would also confirm such a dx. Mesothelioma and TB do not present with these symptoms.

53
Q

A 59yo pt presents complaining of a daily productive cough for the last 3 years, which is worse in the winter months. He has also noticed some SOB with moderate to heavy exertion. He has no other symptoms. The pt admits to smoking a PPD for 38 years but quitting 9 months ago. Physical exam is normal. What is the likely dx?

a) asthma
b) bronchiectasis
c) chronic bronchitis
d) tuberculosis

A

c: This clinical picture best fits a dx of chronic bronchitis, which characteristically presents in the 50s, 60s with chronic cough. Asthma is more likely to present with episodic wheezing and chest tightness along with episodic cough. Bronchiectasis would be more likelyl to present with recurrent pneumonia, hemoptysis, and digital clubbing on physical exam. TB is more likely to present with weight loss, fever, night sweats, and cough