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Radiography Positioning > Lange Chapter 2 > Flashcards

Lange Chapter 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by:

  1. Trauma or other pathology
  2. Greater than 90 degree flexion
  3. Less than 90 degree flexion
A
  1. Trauma or other pathology
  2. Less than 90 degree flexion
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2
Q

The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions? A) Scapular Y B) AP Scapula C) Medial oblique elbow D) Lateral oblique elbow

A

C) Medial Oblique Elbow

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3
Q

The male bony pelvis differs from the female bony pelvis in which of the following way(s)? 1. The male pelvis has a larger pelvic inlet. 2. The female pubic arch is greater than 90 degrees. 3. The male ilium is more vertical

A
  1. The female pubic arch is greater than 90 degrees 3. The male ilium is more vertical.
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4
Q

Which of the following techniques would provide a posters terror (PA) projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of a barium-filled high and transverse stomach? A) Place the patient in a 35 to 40 degree right anterior oblique (RAO) position. B) Place the patient in a lateral position C) Angle the CR 35 to 45 degrees cephalosporins D) Angle the CR 35 to 45 degrees caused.

A

C) Angle the CR 35 to 45 degrees cephalad.

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5
Q

The term varus refers to.. A) turned outward B) turned inward C) rotated medically D) rotated laterally

A

B) turned inward

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6
Q

Critique the attached lateral cervical spine and select the most correct statement below.

A) The chin has been depressed too much

B) The chin needs to be extended more.

C) The head is tilted

D)The shoulders are not depressed enough

A

D) The shoulders are not depressed enough.

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7
Q

With the patient and the x-ray tube positioned as illustrated, which of the following will be visualized?

  1. Intercondyloid fossa
  2. Patellofemoral articulation
  3. Tangential patella
A
  1. Patellofemoral articulation
  2. Tangential patella
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8
Q

All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except:

A) the right lung has three lobes

B) the inferior portion of the lung is the apex.

C) each lung is enclosed in serous membrane.

D) the main stem bronchi enter the lung hilum

A

B) the inferior portion of the lung is the apex.

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9
Q

All the following statements regarding an exact PA projection fo the skull are true except:

A) the orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the IR

B) the pertous pyramids fill the orbits

C) the midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the IR.

D) the central ray is perpendicular to the IR and exits at the nasion.

A

C) the midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the IR.

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10
Q

What could be done to improve the mediolateral projection of the knee seen here:

A) Rotate the pelvis slightly forward

B) Rotate the pelvis slightly backward.

C) Angle the x-ray tube 5 degrees cephalad

D) Angle the x-ray tube 5 degrees caudad.

A

B) Rotate the pelvis slightly backward.

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11
Q

Pacemaker electrodes can be introduced through a vein in the chest or upper extremity, from where thay are advanced to the:

A) left atrium

B) right atrium

C) left ventricle

D) right ventricle

A

D) right ventricle

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12
Q

Widening of the intercostal spaces is characteristic of which of the following conditions?

A) Pneumothorax

B) Emphysema

C) Pleural Effusion

D) Pneumonia

A

B) Emphysema

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13
Q

Which of the following structures is(are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?

  1. Hepatic flexure
  2. Gallbladder
  3. Ileocecal valve
A
  1. Hepatic Flexure
  2. Gallbladder
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14
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the provided image is correct?

A) the left kidney is more parallel to the IR

B) the image was made in the left posterior oblique position

C) the left ureter is better visualized

D) the image was made postvoid

A

A) the left kidney is more parallel to the IR

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15
Q

During an upper gastrointestinal (GI) examination, a stomach of average shape demonstrates a barum-filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb. The position used is most likely:

A) AP Erect

B) PA

C) RAO

D) LPO

A

D) LPO

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16
Q

Which of the following articulations paricipate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?

  1. Talotibial
  2. Talocalcaneal
  3. Talofibular
A
  1. Talotibial
  2. Talofibular
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17
Q

Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the logitudinal arch?

A) Mediolateral

B) Lateromedial

C) Lateral weight-bearing

D) 30-degree medial oblique

A

C) Lateral weight-bearing

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18
Q

Graves disease is associated with:

A) thyroid underactivity

B) thyroid overactivity

C) adrenal underactivity

D) adrenal overactivity

A

B) thyroid overactivity

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19
Q

To best visualize the lower ribs, the exposure should be made:

A) on normal inspiration

B) on inspiration, second breath

C) on expiration

D) during shallow breathing

A

C) on expiration

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20
Q

In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passsig midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?

A) Occipital bone

B) Frontal bone

C) Facial bones

D) Basal foramina

A

A) Occipital bone

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21
Q

The right posterior oblique position (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the:

  1. anterior rim of the right acetabulum
  2. right iliac wing
  3. right anterior iliopubic column
A
  1. anterior rim of the right acetabulum
  2. right iliac wing
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22
Q

The image provided demonstrates which of the following conditions?

A) right upper lobe atelectasis

B) left upper lobe atelectasis

C) Pneumothorax

D) Dextrocardia

A

D) Dextrocardia

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23
Q

A frontal view of the sternum is best accomplised in which of the following positions?

A) AP

B) PA

C) RAO

D) LAO

A

C) RAO

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24
Q

What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it?

A) Spondylitis

B) Spondylolysis

C) Spondylolisthesis

D) Spondylosis

A

C) Spondylolisthesis

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25
Q

During artial systole, blood flows into the:

  1. right ventricle via the mitral valve
  2. left ventricle via the bicuspid valve
  3. right ventricle via the tricuspid valve
A
  1. left ventricle via the bicuspid valve
  2. right ventricle via the tricuspid valve
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26
Q

How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient having traumatic injuries?

A) perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position.

B) erect inspiration and expiration images should be obtained

C) include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position

D) perform the examination AP supine at 44 inches SID

A

C) include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position.

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27
Q

All the following statements regarding the use of iodinated contrast agents with patients taking metformin hydochloride are true except:

A) metformin is used to help lower blood sugar levels in type 2 diabetic patients

B) patients on metformin who have intravenous (IV) iodinated contrast agent administration are at risk for renal failure.

C) metformin should be withheld for 48 hours before IV iodinated contrast studies

D) metformin should be withheld for 48 hours after IV iodinated contrast studies.

A

C) metformin should be withheld for 48 hours before IV iodinated contrast studies

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28
Q

Which of the following methods was used to obtain the image shown?

A) erect PA, chin extended, OML forming 37 degrees to IR

B) erect PA, OML, and CR perpendicular to IR

C) erect PA, chin extended, OML 15 degree horizontal

D) erect PA, chin extended, OML 30 degree from horizontal

A

C) erect PA, chin extended, OML 15 degree from horizontal

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29
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the provided radiograph is (are) true?

  1. The position is used to demonstrate the frontal and ethmoid sinuses.
  2. The ethmoid sinuses are seen near the medial aspect of the orbits.
  3. The perpendicular plate is visualized in midline of the nasal cavity.
A

All 3 statements (1, 2 and 3) are true.

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30
Q

Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?

A) Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees.

B) Use a support sponge for the phalanges

C) Clench the fist to bring the carpals closer to the IR

D) Use ulnar flexion

A

A) Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees.

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31
Q

All the following positions are used frequently to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations except:

A) weight-bearing

B) RAO

C) LAO

D) PA

A

A) weight-bearing

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32
Q

Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?

A) AP

B) PA

C) RPO

D) LPO

A

D) LPO

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33
Q

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained?

  1. With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
  2. With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
  3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular
A
  1. With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
  2. With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
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34
Q

Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity?

A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up

B) Lateral decubitus, affected side down

C) AP Trendelenburg

D) AP supine

A

A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up

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35
Q

Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest?

A) Esophagus

B) Trachea

C) Cardiac apex

D) Superimposed scapular borders

A

C) Cardiac apex

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36
Q

For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?

A) 5 degrees caudad

B) 10 degrees caudad

C) 5 degrees cephalad

D) 0 degree (perpendicular)

A

D) 0 degree (perpendicular)

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37
Q

In which of the following projections was the image provided made?

A) AP

B) Medial oblique

C) Lateral oblique

D) Acute flexion

A

B) Medial oblique

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38
Q

Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 2 in the image provided?

A) Medial epicondyle

B) Trochlea

C) Capitulum

D) Olecranon process

A

D) Olecranon process

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39
Q

Which of the following is(are) well demonstrated in the lumber spine picture provided?

  1. Apophyseal articulations
  2. Intervertebral foramina
  3. Pedicles
A
  1. Intervertebral foramina
  2. Pedicles
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40
Q

In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis?

  1. Supine flexion 45 degrees (Merchant)
  2. Prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast)
  3. Prone flexion 55 degrees (Hughston)
A
  1. Supine flexion 45 degrees (Merchant)
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41
Q

Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional “open-mouth” projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?

A) AP or PA through the foramen magnum

B) AP oblique with right and left head rotation

C) Horizontal beam lateral

D) AP axial

A

A) AP or PA through the foramen magnum

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42
Q

The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except:

A) the temporal bones

B) the occipital bone

C) the ethmoid bone

D) the sphenoid bone

A

B) The occipital bone

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43
Q

A lateral projection fo the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate

  1. a fracture
  2. a foreign body
  3. soft tissue
A
  1. a foreign body
  2. soft tissue
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44
Q

In which of the following positions was the radiograph provided taken?

A) RPO

B) LPO

C) AP Axial

D) Right Lateral Decubitus

A

A) RPO

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45
Q

The Structure indicated as number 4 in the image provided is the:

A) terminal iliu,

B) appendix

C) cecum

D) sigmoid

A

C) cecum

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46
Q

The condition that results from a persitent fetal foramen ovale is:

A) an atrial septal defect

B) a ventricular septal defect

C) a patent ductus arteriosus

D) coarctation of the aorta

A

A) an atrial septal defect

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47
Q

Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?

A) Tangential

B) AP axial

C) Transthoracic lateral

D) PA oblique scapular Y

A

D) PA oblique scapular Y

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48
Q

With the patient recumbent on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the:

A) Trendelenburg position

B) Fowler position

C) decubitus position

D) Sims position

A

A) Trendelenburg position

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49
Q

Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the right thorax?

  1. RAO
  2. LAO
  3. RPO
A
  1. LAO
  2. RPO
50
Q

In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated?

A) Lateral oblique foot

B) Medical oblique foot

C) Lateral foot

D) Weight-bearing foot

A

A) Lateral oblique foot

51
Q

The sternal angle is at approzimately the same level as the:

A) T2-3 interspace fifth thoracic vertebra

B) T9-10 interspace

C) T5

D) costal margin

A

C) T5

52
Q

Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?

  1. Spleen
  2. Gallbladder
  3. Hepatic flexure
A
  1. Gallbladder
  2. Hepatic flexure
53
Q

To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in:

A) the recumbent position

B) the erect position

C) the anatomic position

D) the Fowler position

A

A) the recumbent postion

54
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the provided image is (are) true?

  1. Correct degree of rotation is present.
  2. Midphalanges are foreshortened
  3. Fingers are parallel to the IR
A
  1. Correct degree of rotaion is present
  2. Midphalanges are foreshortened
55
Q

The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is:

A) red marrow

B) yellow marrow

C) cortical tissue

D) cancellous tissue

A

B) yellow marrow

56
Q

All the following structures are associated with the posterior femur except:

A) popliteal surface

B) intercondyloid fossa

C) intertrochanteric line

D) linea aspera

A

C) intertrochanteric line

57
Q

Which of the following projections of the ankel would best demonstrate the mortise?

A) Medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees

B) Lateral oblique 15 to 20 degrees

C) Medial oblique 45 degrees

D) Lateral oblique 45 degrees

A

A) Medial oblique 15 - 20 degrees

58
Q

Which of the following statements with respect to the PA Chest image provided is (are) correct?

  1. Adequate inspiration is demonstrated
  2. The shoulders are rolled forward adequately
  3. Rotation is demonstrated
A

All answers (1, 2 and 3) are correct.

59
Q

Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis?

A) Ischial tuberosity

B) Prominence of the greater trochanter

C) Anterosuperior iliac spine

D) Anteroinferior iliac spine

A

B) Prominence of the greater trochanter

60
Q

A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient’s waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine to:

  1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR
  2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR
  3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the IR
A
  1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR
  2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR
61
Q

To reduce the amount of scatter radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imagin of the lumbosacral region, which of the following is (are) recommended?

  1. Close collimation
  2. Lead mat on table posterior to the patient
  3. Decrease SID
A
  1. Close collimation
  2. Lead mat on the table posterior to the patient
62
Q

Which of the following is (are) distal to the tibial plateau?

  1. Intercondyloid fossa
  2. Tibial condyles
  3. Tibial turberosity
A
  1. Tibial condyles
  2. Tibial turberosity
63
Q

Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include:

  1. epicondyles parallel to the IR
  2. lesser tubercle in profile
  3. superimposed epicondyles
A
  1. lesser tubercle in profile
  2. superimposed epicondyles
64
Q

Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially?

A) AP

B) External rotation

C) Internal rotation

D) Neutral positon

A

C) Internal rotation

65
Q

With the patient in the PA postion, which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle?

A) 5 to 15 degrees caudad

B) 5 to 15 degrees cephalad

C) 15- 30 degrees cephalad

D) 15 to 30 degrees caudad

A

D) 15 to 30 degrees caudad

66
Q

Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a body process?

A) Avulsion fracture

B) Torus fracture

C) Comminuted fracture

D) Compound fracture

A

A) Avulsion fracture

67
Q

What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?

A) Semilunar/trochlear notch

B) Radial head

C) Capitulum

D) Trochlea

A

D) Trochlea

68
Q

Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed?

A) eversion

B) inversion

C) abduction

D) adduction

A

D) Adduction

69
Q

During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the:

A) subdural space

B) subarachnoid space

C) epidural space

D) epidermal space

A

B) subarachnoid space

70
Q

The junction of the safittal and coronal sutures is the:

A) diploe

B) lambda

C) bregma

D) pterion

A

C) bregma

71
Q

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the provided radiograph?

  1. The patient is place in an RAO position.
  2. The midcoronal plane is about 60 degrees to the IR
  3. The acromion process is free of superimposition.
A

All answers (1, 2 and 3) are correct.

72
Q

Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the:

  1. atlantoaxial joint
  2. radioulnar joint
  3. temporomandibular joint
A
  1. atlantoaxial joint
  2. radioulnar joint
73
Q

The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the “Scotty dog” seen in a correctly positions oblique lumbar spine?

A) eye

B) nose

C) body

D) ear

A

B) nose

74
Q

An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injury is referred to as:

A) blowout

B) Le Fort

C) contacture

D) contrecoup

A

D) contrecoup

75
Q

In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?

A) Dorsoplantar metatarsals/toes

B) Tangential metatarsals/toes

C) 30-degree medial oblique foot

D) 30-degree lateral oblique foot

A

B) Tangential metatarsals/toes

76
Q

Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial turberosity?

A) Ewing sarcome

B) Osgood-Schlatter disease

C) Gout

D) Exostosis

A

B) Osgood-Schlatter disease

77
Q

AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed:

  1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula
  2. following inversion or eversion injuries
  3. to demonstrate a ligament tear
A
  1. following inversion or eversion injuries
  2. to demonstrate a ligament tear
78
Q

Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax?

  1. Manubrium
  2. Clavicles
  3. 24 ribs
A
  1. Manubrium
  2. 24 ribs
79
Q

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the:

A) right main stem bronchus

B) left main stem bronchus

C) esophagus

D) proximal stomach

A

A) right main stem bronchus

80
Q

The PA chest radiograph provided demonstrates:

  1. rotation
  2. scapulae removed from lung fields
  3. adequate inspiration
A
  1. rotation
  2. scapulae removed from lung fields
81
Q

The letter “B” in the image provided indicates:

A) left anterior rib

B) a right posterior rib

C) a left posterior rib

D) a right anterior rib

A

A) a left anterior rib

82
Q

With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

A) radial head

B) Ulnar head

C) Coronoid process

D) Olecranon process

A

C) Coronoid process

83
Q

The structures forming the brain stem include:

  1. the pons
  2. the medulla oblongata
  3. the midbrain
A

All answers (1, 2 and 3) are correct

84
Q

The CR will parallel the intervertebral foramina in which of the following projections?

  1. Lateral cervical spine
  2. Lateral thoracic spine
  3. Lateral lumbar spine
A
  1. Lateral thoracic spine
  2. Lateral lumbar spine
85
Q

What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis?

A) Dome of the acetabulum

B) Femoral neck

C) Greater trochanter

D) Iliac crest

A

A) Dome of the acetabulum

86
Q

The structure labeled 3 in the image provided is the:

A) maxillary sinus

B) sphenoid sinus

C) ethmoid sinus

D) frontal sinus

A

B) sphenoid sinus

87
Q

Which of the following would best evaluate the structures laveled 4 in the image provided?

A) PA axial projection (Caldwell method)

B) Parietoacanthal projection (Waters method)

C) Lateral projection

D) Submentovertical projection (SMV)

A

B) Parietoacanthal Projections (Waters method)

88
Q

Which of the following positions demonstrates the sphenoid sinuses?

  1. Modified waters (open mouth)
  2. Lateral
  3. PA axial
A
  1. Modified Waters (open mouth)
  2. Lateral
89
Q

The radiograph provided demonstrates the articulation between the:

  1. talus and the calcaneus
  2. calcaneus and the cuboid
  3. talus and the navicular
A
  1. calcaneus and the cuboid
  2. talus and the navicular
90
Q

Identify the structure labeled 1 in the AP projection of the knee provided.

A) Lateral condyle

B) Lateral epicondyle

C) Medial condyle

D) Medial epicondyle

A

D) Medial epicondyle

91
Q

The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a(n):

A) AP projection

B) 30-degree oblique

C) 45-degree oblique

D) AP axial

A

B) 30-degree oblique

92
Q

The patient’s chin should be elevated during chest radiography to:

A) permit the diaphragm to move to its lowest position

B) avoid superimposition on the apices

C) assist in maintaining an upright position

D) keep the MSP parallel

A

B) avoid superimpositon of the apices

93
Q

The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the:

A) diaphysis

B) epiphysis

C) metaphysis

D) apophysis

A

B) epiphysis

94
Q

Medial displacement of a tibial fracture woudl be be demonstrated in the:

A) AP projection

B) lateral projection

C) medial oblique projection

D) lateral oblique projection

A

A) AP projection

95
Q

The lumbar lamina is represented by what part of the “Scotty dog” seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?

A) Eye

B) Nose

C) Body

D) Neck

A

C) Body

96
Q

All the follwoing statements regarding the position shown in the image provided are true except:

A) a left pleural effusion could be demonstrated.

B) a right pneumothorazx could be demonstrated

C) a left lateral decubitus position is illustrated

D) the CR is directed vertically to the level of T7

A

D) the CR is directed vertically to the level of T7

97
Q

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?

A) AP

B) 90 degrees mediolateral

C) 45-degree internal rotation

D) 45-degree exteral rotation

A

C) 45-degree internal rotation

98
Q

At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?

A) Foramen magnum

B) Trachea

C) Pharynx

D) C4

A

D) C4

99
Q

During double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon?

A) AP or PA erect

B) Right lateral decubitus

C) Left lateral decutitus

D) Ventral decubitus

A

B) Right lateral decubitus

100
Q

What is the structure indicated by the number 8 in the image provided?

A) common hepatic duct

B) common bile duct

C) cystic duct

D) pancreatic duct

A

B) common bile duct

101
Q

What is the structure indicated by the number 7 on the image provided?

A) Common hepatic duct

B) Common bile duct

C) Cystic duct

D) Pancreatic duct

A

C) Cystic duct

102
Q

Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture?

A) Pyelonephrosis

B) Nephroptosis

C) Hydronephrosis

D) Cystourethritis

A

C) Hydronephrosis

103
Q

Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula?

A) Retrograde pyelogram

B) Voiding cystourethrogram

C) Hysterosalpingogram

D) Myelogram

A

C) Hysterosalpingogram

104
Q

All the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true except:

A) the large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination.

B) retained fecal material can obscure pathology.

C) single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions.

D) double-contrast studies help to deomonstrate mucosal lesions.

A

C) single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions.

105
Q

In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the:

  1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia.
  2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized.
  3. femoral condyles should be superimposed.
A

All answers (1, 2 and 3) are correct.

106
Q

All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?

A) AP

B) Lateral

C) Acute flexion

D) AP partial flexion

A

B) Lateral

107
Q

The term used to describe expectoration of blood from bronchi is:

A) hemoptysis

B) hematemesis

C) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

D) bronchitis

A

A) Hemoptysis

108
Q

Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the:

A) position of the organ

B) size and shape of the organ

C) diverticula

D) gastric or bowel mucosa

A

D) gastric or bowel mucosa

109
Q

Which of the following are mediastinal structures?

  1. Heart
  2. Trachea
  3. Esophagus
A

All answers (1,2 and 3) are correct.

110
Q

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the position illustrated in the picture provided?

  1. The right (adjacent to the table) ureter is parallel to the IR.
  2. The left (elevated) kidney is parallel to the IR.
  3. The degree of obliquity should be about 30 degrees.
A

All answers (1, 2 and 3) are correct.

111
Q

In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head?

A) AP

B) External rotation

C) Internal rotation

D) Neutral position

A

C) Internal rotation

112
Q

With the patient postioned as illustrated in the picture provided, which of the following structures is best demonstrated?

A) patella

B) patellofemoral articulation

C) intercondyloid fossa

D) tibial turberosity

A

C) Intercondyloid fossa

113
Q

Which of the following structures is illustrated by the number 2 in the picture provided?

A) Maxillary sinus

B) Coronoid process

C) Zygomatic arch

D) Coracoid process

A

C) Zygomatic arch

114
Q

Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?

  1. Knee
  2. Intervertebral joints
  3. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
A
  1. Knee
  2. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
115
Q

Ulnar flexion/deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)?

  1. Medial carpals
  2. Lateral carpals
  3. Scaphoid
A
  1. Lateral carpals
  2. Scaphoid
116
Q

What should be done to better demonstrate the coracoid process shown in the picture provided?

A) use perpendicular CR.

B) angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad.

C) angle the CR about 30 degrees caudad.

D) angle the MSP 15 degrees toward the affected side.

A

B) angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad

117
Q

Structures comprising the neural, or vertebral, arch include:

  1. pedicles
  2. laminae
  3. body
A
  1. pedicles
  2. laminae
118
Q

In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?

A) Closed

B) Compound

C) Compression

D) Depressed

A

B) Compound

119
Q

The thoracic apophyseal joints are demonstrated with the:

A) coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR

B) midsagittal plane 90 degrees to the IR

C) coronal plane 20 degrees to the IR

D) midsafittal plane 20 degrees to the IR

A

D) midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR

120
Q

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?

  1. Scapular Y projection
  2. Inferosuperior axial
  3. Transthoracic lateral
A

All answers (1, 2 and 3) are correct.

121
Q

The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the:

A) transverse processes

B) vertebral arches

C) laminae

D) pedicles

A

C) laminae

Radiography Positioning (1 decks)

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