LAFD Numbers Flashcards
TB 5, 20, 31, 35, 38, 44, 60, 61, 62, 65, 67, 74, 92, 104, 108, 111, 130, 136, 140, 164, 165, 169 DB 05-08, 11-12, 13-04, 14-04, 15-11, 15-17, 15-19, 20-09 Book 6 Lesson 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24 Book 8 Module 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 8 Book 29 Ch. 1, 2, 3, 4, 9 Book 77, 100, 101 Volume 2, 5 Volume 3 3/1, 6/2, 6/3, 6/4, 6/7, 6/8, 6/11, 7/1
Fuel conservation of at least ___% is possible through proper vehicle operation, use, maintenance, and trip planning
10%
____% improvement in fuel economy could be achieved through a combination of training, speed control, and rewards for utilizing proper driving habits
17.4%
Maximum speed limit of ___ mph
55
Most autos get ___% better mileage at ___ mph than ___ mph
18%
50; 65
Average vehicle on road today gets best fuel economy at approximately ___ mph
45
Increasing speed from ___ to ___ mph, fuel economy dropped by ___%
40;
70;
25%
If delay is over ________, turn off engine
1 minute
Recommended time for warming up an engine is __________
30 seconds to 1 minute
“Jack rabbit” starts can burn over ___% more gas than normal acceleration
50%
Varying speed only ___ mph can reduce economy by as much as ___%
5;
10%
For every __ pounds under recommended tire pressure, lose about __% in fuel economy
2;
1%
Out-of-tune engine can drop mileage by a minimum of ___%
10%
Lexan is used in temperatures ranging from ____ to ____ F
-60 to 280
Lexan will soften at ____ F
350
Lexan has a normal thickness of ___” to ____”
1/8” to 1/4”
Lexan on special installs may be ____”
1-1/4”
6-battery system batteries are rated at ____ CCA at ___ F
950;
0
6-battery system batteries have a reserve capacity of ___ minutes at ___ A draw per hour
190 mins;
25 A
Diesel engines draw approximately __ A per cubic inch when starting
2 A
__ of __ batteries are used to start heavy apparatus
5 of 6
Combined use of 800 MHz Radio, UHF/VHF radio, and MDT, causes a constant __ A per hour draw on battery system
8 A
Automatic battery charger on-board apparatus is ___ A
40
All apparatus have been installed with “low voltage warning system”. Audible warning device activates anytime batteries fall below ___ V.
12.2
When apparatus is out of service for extended period of time, over ____ hours or battery charger cannot be plugged in, radio “cut off switch” must be turned off to avoid running down batteries
10
2-stage Holmatro power units provide what pressures at 1st & 2nd stage?
3,000 psi
10,500 psi
Hydraulic fluid for Holmatro is __-weight
22
Holmatro PPU 15 weighs ___ lbs
35
Holmatro PPU 15 horsepower
2.5
Holmatro PPU 15 RPM
4500
Holmatro PPU 15 fuel tank capacity
1.3 quarts
Holmatro PPU 15 hydraulic fluid capacity
2000 cc
Holmatro DPU 30 weight
58 lbs
Holmatro DPU 30 horsepower
3.0
Holmatro DPU 30 RPM
3600
Holmatro DPU 30 fuel tank capacity
1.5 quarts
Holmatro DPU 30 hydraulic fluid capacity
3000 cc
Holmatro spreaders model number
3260 UL
3 models of Holmatro cutters
3020 UL
3035 NCT
4020 NCT
3020 UL cutting force
62,400 lbs
3020 UL opening
5-1/4”
3020 UL weight
27-1/2 lbs
3035 NCT cutting force
57,320 lbs
3035 NCT opening
5-5/8”
3035 NCT weight
33-1/2 lbs
4020 NCT cutting force
208,000 lbs
4020 NCT opening
7-1/8”
4020 NCT weight
37-1/2 lbs
Holmatro telescopic rams model numbers
3340
3350
Telescopic rams 1st & 2nd stage force
1st - 49,210 lbs
2nd - 18,210 lbs
3340 ram retracted and extended length
12” to 23”
3340 ram weight
24 lbs
3350 ram retracted and extended length
21” to 50-1/4”
3350 ram weight
37 lbs
Holmatro hoses are ____ long
32’
Working pressure of Holmatro hoses
10,500 psi
Burst pressure of Holmatro hoses
42,000 psi
Weekly check of Holmatro units includes running them for ___ minutes
15
Cutter hinge bolt torque is ___ ft-lb
75
Weekly check of Holmatro hoses, hold trigger handle of tool for ___ seconds to check for leaks along hose and couplers
5-10 seconds
Hot Stick is ___ long and ___ diameter
20-1/2”
1-3/4”
Hot Stick takes __ AA batteries
4
Hot Stick weighs slightly over __ lb with batteries
1
Hot Stick Detection Distances for single conductor 6’ above ground (120V / 60 Hz & 220V / 50 Hz)
High = 15’
Low = 3’
Front-focused = 0.5’
Hot Stick Detection Distances for conductor laying in wet soil (120V / 60 Hz & 220V / 50 Hz)
High = 3’
Low = 0.5’
Front-focused = 0.1’
Hot Stick Detection Distances for overhead distribution line (7.2kV / 60 Hz & 16kV / 50 Hz)
High = 210’
Low = 70’
Front-focused = 20’
Hot Stick Detection Distances for overhead transmission line (46kV / 60 Hz)
High = > 500’
Low = > 200’
Front-focused = > 70’
Hot Stick has __ operational settings
4
Apparatus position and personnel must maintain at least __ span (distance between __ poles) from affected wire/pole. Distance between __ undamaged poles will provide best margin of safety
1;
2;
2
Turn Hot Stick to HIGH, listen for series of rapid beeps and LED flash lasting approximately __ seconds indicating Hot Stick is ready for use
3
Hot Stick requires no warm up and is ready for use in __ seconds after turning on
5
Hot Stick is tested to continuously operate for ___ hours by manufacturer
300
Ready Reserve fleet includes ___ fully equipped engines and ___ fully equipped BLS Ambulances
21;
26
In-and-Out Repair: A repair made on apparatus that is expected to be completed within no more than __ hours
8
When Ready Reserve is placed out of service for more than __ hours, Station Commanders shall “change-over” the Ready Reserve apparatus into a Reserve apparatus
8
Ready Reserve may be used for a max of __ hours to replace Front-line placed out-of-service for mechanical repairs. Front-line that cannot be repaired within __ hours shall be replaced by Change-over into a Reserve
8;
8
MFC shall not allow more than __ companies to be either NAV and/or CAV
15
MFC shall not allow more than a total of __ BLS and __ ALS RAs to be either NAV and/or CAV
8; 8
Truck apparatus
Total Fleet:
Front-line:
Ready Reserve:
Reserve Threshold:
63
42
0
5
Engine apparatus
Total Fleet:
Front-line:
Ready Reserve:
Reserve Threshold:
204
90
21
31
RA apparatus
Total Fleet:
Front-line:
Ready Reserve:
Reserve Threshold:
207
124
26
46
According to NFPA, approximately _____ structure fires in vacant/abandoned buildings every year resulted in an average of ____ firefighter injuries annually
31,000
4,500
1998-2007, total of __ firefighters were fatally injured in abandoned building structure fires
15
LA Department of Building and Safety is responsible for abatement of buildings which constitute a nuisance, are hazardous, or in a substandard condition based on provisions of Chapter ___ of Los Angeles Building Code
89
Vacant/abandoned building placards __” x __” min size with red background, white reflective stripes, and white reflective border with __” for hazard identification symbols
24” x 30”
6”
If the owner chooses to install the placards or use a private company, please have the owner notify the Fire Marshal’s office, in writing, within __ days of the date of this letter
14
Vacant/abandoned building placard stripes and border shall have a __” minimum stroke
2”
For NFPA 704 placards, if multiple hazards exist, the __ worst hazards indicated in that space with most severe on top
2
Every above ground tank used for haz mat storage on at least __ sides of any container (in lieu of posting each tank in an area with more than __ tank, the area itself may be posted as approved by LAFD)
2; 1
NFPA 704 warning signs must be conspicuously posted at any location within/outside a building where haz mat are stored, processed, or used, shall be conspicuously lettered on a contrasting background with letters at least __” in height. Every sign shall name material or hazard classification
3”
NFPA 704 warning signs are required in any area where hazardous materials are stored, processed, or used shall have a sign conspicuously posted in letters no less than __” high on a contrasting background reading “No Smoking” or open flame within __ feet as required by Fire Chief
3”
25’
Establish a safe zone for MTA CNG buses at __ feet minimum
50
To stop fuel flow to engine of CNG buses, turn BLACK handle __ turn to stop fuel flow to engine
1/4
On MTA CNG buses, slide both battery disconnect switches to “OFF” position to disable __ and __ volt electrical power to all bus components.
12; 24
In Drop Method, cut inside and parallel to purlins ____ inside of purlins to avoid hitting metal hangers
4-6”
When extending a center rafter louver against construction: Make head cut as long as extended hole, make parallel cut approximately ___ long
3-1/2’
Outside/inside cuts on a center rafter louver should be ___ inside rafter
2-3”
Head cut on a center rafter louver should locate a minimum of __ rafters
3
When dicing, do not span __ rafter(s)
2
During dicing, after chainsaw operator makes ___ cut, puller can start pulling boards
3rd
In a 45-degree Inspection Cut, when the saw makes contact with a rafter, roll over the rafter and continue the cut for approximately __
6-10”
Normal and most common size of plywood type sheathing is _____
4’ x 8’
Nailing blocks will usually be found every ___
4’
Center rafter cut uses __ cuts
4
__ of the 100 average deaths to firefighters are due to flashover
85
Effective ventilation will accomplish __ main objectives
4
There are __ categories of RIC
2
When __ or more Rapid Intervention Companies are assigned, IC shall consider assigning a Rescue Group Supervisor
2
__ individuals must be on scene to initiate interior firefighting operations
4
Evacuation signal is short blasts of air horn for __ + __ pause for a total of __
10 sec;
10 sec;
50 sec
According to Book 101, MFC will advise IC of elapsed time on incident clock every __
15 minutes
Most commonly used mutual aid frequency is OES White ____
2 & 3
RIC Kit includes a __ intermediate pressure hose and __ drop bag line
10’
150’
Of the 4 individuals initially on scene at an incident, only __ of __ backup personnel outside the IDLH may be engaged in other duties
1 of 2
IC shall, as a minimum, designate at least __ RIC upon the arrival of additional resources above the original structure assignment
1
Nozzle fan search method is used with a drop bag with knots every __
6’
4 basic methods used to tether between personnel utilize a __ nylon strap
12’
Members should consider changing to 1-hour bottles if time permits, but changing over shall be carefully conducted so that only ___ is always available to initiate rapid rescue during the change over process. When Task Force is assigned RIC, only 1 company at a time should change over to 1-hour bottles
1/2 of the company
Apparatus radio is __ watts
35
Metro-rail channels available in repeat are:
2, 4, 6, 7, 12, 15, 16, 17
F-tel phones are located at each standpipe outlet every ___ in Metro-Rail tunnels
250’
Metro-Rail cross passages are located every ___
750’
Depending on type of vehicle, it will take ____ for air to reach brakes after you press the foot pedal
1/4 to 1 second
Average weight of a triple is __ tons, weight has increased due to 500 gallon tanks
16
Average weight of a truck is __ tons
24
Average height of a triple is ___
10’
Average height of a truck is ____
10’-6”
Average width of newer trucks & triples is _____
9’-9”
Average length of a triple is ___
27’
Average length of a truck is ___
52’
Excessive rear overhang on older trucks, approximately ___ from tiller wheel
15’
Excessive front overhang on some triples is as much as ____ from front wheel hub
7’-4”
Modern apparatus have more powerful engines of approximately ___ HP
445
Southern California Rapid Transit District has introduced into service a fleet of __ new methanol powered buses
30
Methanol DOT ERG Number: __
28
Methanol is produced by one of __ methods
3
Methanol is not gasohol. Gasohol is gas with ____% methanol or ethanol
1% to 10%
Vapor density of methanol is ___. ___ times density of air
1.11;
1.1
Methanol will mix with water, unlike diesel/gas. Mixture of methanol and water is still flammable when diluted with approximately __ parts water to __ part methanol
5; 1
Evaporation of liquid at room temperatures creates a potentially explosive methanol-air mixture when methanol content reaches ___ volume
6.0%
Methanol-air mixtures containing more than __% volume do not flash because they are too rich to burn
36%
A fire hazard exists if the storage temperature of methanol in contact with air approaches the flash point of __ C (__ F)
11 C / 52 F
Methanol-water mixture is still a flammable liquid by OSHA definition (flash point ___ F) with as little as __% methanol by volume or __% by weight
100 F
21%
25%
Luminosity of burning pure methanol is about _____ of a comparably sized gas fire
1/3000
AFFF/ATC: For larger spills/fires of methanol. S&M has ___ gallons in supply available
700
New SCRT district bus fleet will be comprised of __ types of buses
2
Max vehicle lengths of SCRT methanol buses:
35’ & 40’
Max vehicle height of SCRT methanol buses:
9’-11”
Max vehicle width of SCRT methanol buses:
8’-6”
Engine crankcase capacity of SCRT methanol buses:
25 quarts
Transmission capacity of SCRT methanol buses:
36 quarts
Steering system capacity of SCRT methanol buses: ___ quarts w/o wheelchair lift, ___ quarts w/ lift
6.5; 10.5
Rear axle capacity of SCRT methanol buses: __ pints
22 pints
Fuel tank capacity of SCRT methanol buses:
285 gallons
Components of methanol buses on-board fire/explosion suppression system include __ dual-spectrum infrared sensors mounted in the engine compartment, __ directed discharge nozzles at top and bottom of engine compartment, and __ __ lb Halon _____ cylinders mounted beneath the chassis
3;
2;
2;
20 lb;
1301
Infrared sensors in SCRT methanol buses recognize light wave lengths of methanol fire flames and trigger release of 1st cylinder of Halon into engine compartment. After __ second delay, 2nd Halon cylinder will discharge
15
Search and rescue using a 1” line procedure may be used by any combination of __ or more companies
2
For search and rescue with a 1” line, load 1” line and instruct engineer to pump ____ psi
200 to 250
150’ of 1” line, with 200 psi engine pressure and spray tip removed from a ___ shut off butt will deliver ___ gpm
5/8”
65 gpm
There are estimated to be over ____ marijuana dispensaries in LA
1,000
Humidity in marijuana grow operations can reach ___%
100%
Sub-standard electrical services and wiring in marijuana growing operations can use up to __ times the power of an average residence. Ballasts used to run high intensity grow lights can maintain a charge for up to __ minutes after being disconnected
10;
15
Atmosphere less than ____% oxygen is oxygen deficient
19.5%
All members within ___’ of a structure used for illegal marijuana cultivation shall wear full PPE & SCBA
30’
LAFD resources will encounter marijuana grow operations in one of ___ ways
2
IC’s standard operation shall include the concept of risk management per NFPA ____
1500
A Mayday can be initiated by a member when their life is in danger and situation cannot be corrected in __ seconds
30
If after __ “Mayday” attempts on the Tac channel the member does not receive acknowledgement, they shall activate the Emergency Alert Button and declare the Mayday again verbally
2
Once a member is or realizes someone else is in a “Mayday” situation, it is imperative to give simple but pertinent info using __ “Ws” method
3
Survival breathing technique is performed by extending exhalation __ times that of inhalation
2
When possible, member in distress shall point light at a __ degree angle and shine it outward where a rescuer may see it
45
IC initiates Emergency Traffic tones for __ seconds
3
It has proven more efficient/effective by conducting a PAR/CAR in __ Division(s) or Group(s) at a time
1
When conducting outside drills, officers are responsible for maintaining coverage within their respective first-in districts, as well as the company’s readiness to respond within __ seconds for EMS, and __ seconds for fire suppression or other related incidents
60;
80
In large or complex first-in districts where extended travel times may exceed __ minutes or more, responsible Officers shall put in place contingency plans to avoid any unduly delayed responses in their districts
10
All requests for entry to downtown high-profile, high-risk target buildings/facilities shall be made by Station Commander __ hours in advance
24
Upon arrival to a downtown high rise for training, the Commanding Officer should enter through main entrance with no more than __ members and coordinate entry of their company
2
A size-up consists of __ operations and focuses on __ areas
3; 4
Mill/timber construction members may be ___ for strength
8x8
A single lightweight truss structural member can span __
70’
Standard for lightweight construction is ____ and ____
2x3s and 2x4s
Conventional construction utilizes a minimum of ____
2x4s
The ability to accurately estimate the amount of time that a structure can be considered structurally strong is dependent on __ factors
3
Gable rafters are ____
2x6 or larger
Gable rafter spacing is
16-24”, up to 36” on steep pitch
Gable ridge borad is ___
1x6 OR lack of resulted in 2x6 rafters butted together
Gable roof decking is __ for newer roofs instead of ____
3/8” or 1/2” plywood;
1x4 or 1x6 spaced sheathing
Lightweight gable roof uses ____ wood trusses held together by metal gusset plates
2x3 or 2x4
Most common metal gusset plates are __ gauge with __ penetration
18; 3/8”
__ gauge “roof truss clips” may be found nailed to the bottom chord every ___ trusses
18;
3-5
Common on-center spacing for lightweight gable truss rafters is __
24”
Hip roof ridge board is ___
2x6 or larger
Hip roof rafters are ___. Rough cut ___ or ___ are used on older structures with steep pitched roofs
2x6 or larger;
2x3 or 2x4
Hip roof rafters are ___ on-center or up to ___ on steep-pitched roofs
16-24”;
36”
Bridge truss roofs are used in commercial buildings built during the ______
1930s & 40s
Bridge truss members are ___
2x12
Bridge truss rafters are ____
2x6 or larger
Bridge truss / bowstring arch / tied truss sheathing is _____
1x6 straight (pre-33) or diagonal (post-33), plywood if modified for Earthquake Ordinance
Bowstring arch roofs are used on small/large commercials built in the ____
1930s/40s/50s
Bowstring arch truss members are ___, some have multiple beams forming __ truss arch(es)
2x12 or 2x14;
1
Bowstring arch rafters are
2x6 or larger
Lamella arch framing is ___ with steel plates/bolts at junctions
2x12
Lamella arch decking is ___
1x6
Tied truss top chords are laminated _____
2x12s or large members
Tied truss rafters are ____
2x10 or larger
Tied truss tie rods are ___ in diameter
5/8”
Sawtooth rafters are ___ or larger with wood and/or metal supports for bracing
2x8
Sawtooth sheathing sloping portion is covered with ___ sheathing, or __ in newer roofs
1x6;
1/2” plywood
Sawtooth roofs are constructed the same today as it was during the ______
1930s/40s
Conventional flat roof rafters are ___
2x6 or larger
Conventional flat roof sheathing is ___ or ____ in newer applications
1x6;
3/8” - 5/8” plywood
Wooden I beam chords are ____ but ___ are common
2x4s; 2x3s
Wood I beam stem may be ____ or chip-board
3/8” plywood
Wooden I beam spacing is ___ on-center
24”
Nailing blocks are placed perpendicular to top chords ___ apart
4’
Open web roof steel web are ___ cold rolled steel tubing with ends pressed flat into semicircular shape
1-2”
Open web steel pins up to ___ are driven through chord members and flattened ends of web member
1”
Open web spacing is ___ on-center
24”
Open web spans are up to ___ using a single ____ or two ____ as top and bottom chord members
70’
2x4;
2x3s
Metal gusset plate trusses are ___ held by metal gusset plate connectors
2x4s
Metal gusset plate spans may be up to ___ found in flat roofs
80’
Metal gusset plate decking is __, dwellings us ___
1/2” plywood
3/8” or 1/2” plywood
Panelized roof beam size is ___
6x36
Panelized roof beam spacing is ____
12’ to 40’
Panelized roof beams may be bolted together to provide lengths well in excess of ___
100’
Purlins are ___ in size
4x12
Purlins are ___ on-center
8’
Panelized 2x4 joists are __ on-center
24”
Panelized beam span supports of __ hollow steel pipe may be found
4”
Open web bar joist top/bottom chords are ___ steel
1/8”
Open web bar joist web supports are solid __ steel bar
5/8”
Large buildings may have open web bar joists used as girders spaced up to __
45’
Open web bar joists are spaced __ apart to accept corrugated metal decking covered by alternating layers of tar and tar paper
8’
Open web bar joist decking of ___ with ___ joists are gaining popularity
1/2” plywood
2x4
Steel begins to lose its strength at ____ degrees
1000
Ligthweight concrete roof is an air entrained mixture of sand, cement, and occasionally pea gravel pumped over ____ wire mesh to a thickness of ___
4x4 or 6x6;
3-4”
Metal beams can expand __ per 100’ which can push out walls
9”
Concrete tilt-up buildings can be up to __ stories in height
5
Brick buildings before _____ are “an accident looking for a place to happen” but after ____ are very stable
1930s
1930s
Pre-33 URM building exterior walls are __ thick
13”
Pre-33 URM building parapets can be __ above the roof line and __ or more if used as a facade
3’
5’
Post-33 brick building exterior walls were required to be __ thick
9”
What year was the Long Beach Earthquake?
1933
What year was the Tehachapi Earthquake?
1959
What year was the Sylmar Earthquake?
1971
Post-1959, a ___concrete bond beam cap was required to be laid on top of lowered parapet walls along public ways and exits
4-6”
Post 1959 parapet walls should not be higher than __ including the bond beam cap
16”
Post 1959 exterior walls drilled at the roof rafter level and a steel anchor bar/rod was installed every __ and attached to the existing roof rafter
4’
URM buildings will share all or a portion of __ trademarks
6
Every ___ row of bricks, one row will have been laid “on-end”, referred to as the “king row” for additional strength
4th to 7th
Earthquake Ordinance Modifications include metal straps across the width of the roof and attached to opposing walls. Usually __ the length of the building back from the front and rear walls and ___ from walls
1/3;
3-4’
There are __ important areas of facades
4
Bungalow & Balloon Construction was common during the ____
1920s, 30s, 40s
Bungalow & Balloon Construction was primarily utilized in single family dwellings and multi-story habitational occupancies up to __ stories
4
Bungalows commonly used rough cut __ studs/rafters
2x4
Bungalow construction used _____ rafters for roof structural members and a ridge that is __ (or ___ butted together)
2x3 or 2x4;
1x6
2x4
Curtain construction can be about __% faster than conventional construction
60%
What are the 3 time periods to classify buildings?
Pre-1933
1933 to late 1950s
1950s to present
Impact of lightweight construction on fireground decisions, must address __ areas
4
The ___ company on-scene of a high rise incident shall be Fire Attack
1st
Fire Attack at a high rise incident is responsible for checking __ floor(s) below the fire floor for the suitability of Staging
2
It has proven effective to have Staging monitor __ radio channel(s)
2
1 for Logistics to order equipment/supplies and 1 for Tac/Command channel to IC/Ops for additional resources
Base shall be established a minimum of ___ away from a high rise incident structure at a high rise
Normal 1st alarm assignment for a reported fire in a high rise structure is:
__ fire companies (__ trucks and __ engines)
__ airborne engine company component (task force)
__ BLS RA(s)
__ ALS RA(s)
__ EMS Battalion Captain(s)
__ BC
5; 2 & 3
1
1
1
1
1
Squad in specific 1st-in districts
In a high rise incident, a minimum of a __ member initial fire attack team shall ascend to the reported floor
4
Supplying water to the building standpipe system at a high rise fire will be the responsibility of the ___ arriving 200 series engineer, except when the ______ arriving companies are single engine companies, in which case the engineer of the ___ arriving company has the responsibility for water supply
1st;
1st and 2nd;
2nd
Staging at a high rise incident should be established utilizing a company from the ___ alarm assignment
1st
Base at a high rise incident may be established by available engineers from the ___ alarm assignment, or by a greater alarm company
1st
At a high rise incident,
__ BC assumes IC
__ BC may be assigned Division Supervisor
__ AC will relieve IC
1st;
2nd;
1st
There are __ main objectives of overhaul
5
Firefighting gear provides protection from products of combustion in __ forms
2
Respiratory protection (SCBA)
Skin absorption (turnouts)
IC responsible for documenting all hazards/risks, areas involved, and any mitigation measures using ICS ____ Incident Action Plan Safety Analysis
215A
Complete Overhaul: Minimal PPE may be considered when occupancy has been well ventilated for a minimum of ___
1 hour
Overhaul piles shall be established in a location that will minimize any inconvenience to the public, and at a minimum of __ feet away from any part of a structure
10
Firefighters are __% more likely to be diagnosed with cancer than the general population
14%
Cancer accounts for roughly __% of LODD
60%
Use a minimum of __ member(s) to restrain a patient successfully - __ for each upper extremity and __ for both lower extremities
3;
1;
1
Patients suffering from positional asphyxia are found to be profoundly hyperthermic on arrival to the hospital, with body temperatures often exceeding ___ F
105
It is vital to attempt to ID and reverse the __ causes of agitation that may be reversible in the field
2;
hypoglycemia and hypoxia
A taser delivers a brief _____ V jolt of electricity
50,000
Restrained extremities shall be evaluated for pulse quality, nerve, and motor function and documented every __ minutes on the F-902M
15
“First responders who use a personal device to capture photographic images of a deceased person is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by a fine not exceeding $_____ per violation”
$1,000
Average triple apparatus weighs
20 tons
Aerial ladder truck is roughly __ times the length of a triple apparatus
2
NFPA ____ is the Standard on Operations and Training for Technical Rescue Incidents
1670
There are __ types of technical rescue incidents
7
ICS was developed in response to problems encountered in a series of major wildland fires in southern California in ____
1970
Moderate duration US&R incidents are ___ hours long
6 to 8
Normal acceptable span of control is from __ to __, with __ being ideal
3 to 7;
5
Rescue Team and Back-up Rescue team may be an entire company or __ person/people depending on the US&R incident
1
Rigging Crew, Cutting Crew, or Ventilation may be __ or more individual(s) or an entire company in a US&R incident
2
In US&R incidents, a rescuer is connected by air hose, up to a maximum of ___ feet in length, to the air manifold.
300
US&R Task Force is located in each division at stations:
3, 5, 27, 85, 88, 89
Heavy Rescue ___ is dispatched to all US&R incidents.
56
The 1st arriving unit at a technical rescue should provide edge protection for trenches, evacuations, or below grade confined spaces using ___ lumber when available
2x8 or 2x10
Nearly __% of all confined space deaths are potential rescuers associated with secondary entries
60%
The on-scene assessment of a confined space rescue is divided into __ areas
3
OSHA records show that __% of all confined space injuries/deaths are related to atmospheric condition
90%
Confine space refers to any atmosphere that may expose workers to risk of death, incapacitation, impairment of ability to self-rescue, injury, or acute illness from any of the following:
- Flammable gas, vapor, or mist in excess of __% of its LEL
- Combustible dust at or exceeding its LEL (approximately __’ of visibility)
- Atmospheric oxygen less than ____% or greater than ____%
10%
5’
19.5% / 23.5%
PPE provides protection against __ groupings of hazards in technical rescues
2
Physical and environmental
There are __ main categories of respiratory protection in technical rescues
2
SCBA & Supplier Air Respirators
__ factors limit the use of SCBAs in confined space
3
size, usable quantity of air, and weight
At high rise operations, plan for early relief, __ minutes, for fire control personnel
10 to 15 minutes
At a high rise incident, Staging is normally __ floors below the fire, should be announced on fireground tactical channel
2
At a high rise incident, Air Ops Helispot should be at least __ from involved building. Normally helicopters should remain a minimum of ___ feet from the involved building while in flight and away from the command post
1/2 mile
500 feet
Operations Section Chief at a high rise supervises __ things
10
Fire Attack
Staging
Search/Rescue
Rapid Intervention
Air Ops
Medical
Evacuation
Ventilation
Salvage
Overhaul
At a high rise, the __ company on scene is Fire Attack and the __ company on scene is Lobby. Lobby Officer becomes IC
1st;
2nd
Fire Attack at a high rise should retain __ copy of building inventory sheet and __ set(s) of keys
1; 1
At a high rise incident, Fire Attack Officer shall evaluate the __ floors below the reported fire floor for its use as staging and communicate to IC
2
At a high rise incident, when more than __ company(s) is assigned to rapid intervention operations, a BC should be assigned as the Rapid Intervention Group Supervisor
1
At a high rise incident, occupant evacuation of the fire floor and __ floor(s) above and below has been sufficient
2
At a high rise incident, once occupants have been evacuated, police assistance should be requested to assist in directing evacuees to a safe location, at a minimum ___ feet from the affected structure
200
At a high rise incident, __ companies should be kept at Base for each company in Staging
2
At a high rise incident, Ground Support Unit should consider __ member per __ floor(s) and __ officer per __ members
1 member per 2 floors
1 officer per 4 or 5 members
High rise buildings designed for human occupancy are of __ types
2
A high rise building is defined as a building over __’ in height, measured from ground level access to the floor level of the highest floor intended for occupant use
75’
Class III Combination Standpipe System: Is a combined standpipe/sprinkler system with an on-site water supply and pump. Outlets are all ____” and required to have an ___” reducer
2-1/2”
1-1/2”
Buildings constructed since 1974 and over 75’ must have at least __ approved means of egress from each floor
2
Buildings constructed before 1974 must have at least __ approved exit(s) from each floor
2
Buildings constructed before 1974 must have some type of smoke control. This may be openable windows, tempered glass breakout panels on at least __ sides, or a modified HVAC system capable of exhausting smoke outside the building without spreading it onto additional floors
2
Pre-1960 will have a Class I Dry Standpipe (____”), with water supplied by fire department pumpers, and a Class II Standpipe (____”) supplied from the domestic water system
2-1/2”
1-1/2”
Buildings 1960-1974 that exceed 150’ in height will have a Class III Combination (Wet) Standpipe System with ______ outlets, an on-site fire pump to maintain a working pressure in the system.
2-1/2” and 1-1/2”
Buildings constructed before 1974 must have a building communication system if building is ____ or more in height. This is a __-way(s) communication system
150’
1-way
Department’s Fire and Safety Education Unit administers a program, required under Title __ of CA Administrative Code, where occupants of all high rise buildings are trained in emergency pre-fire planning & evacuation.
19
High rise buildings are required to have a minimum of __ fire drill(s) annually
1
Danger to building occupants at high rise fires could develop from __ sources
3
High rise buildings are designed with __-hour fire resistance between floors and around vertical openings
2
Some high rises house more than ____ people during peak time periods
5,000
For a working fire, relocate occupants from the fire floor and at least __ floors above and below to a safe location, preferable below the fire
2
In most high rise situations, we can provide for occupant safety and Fire Department access by clearing __ floors
5
When evacuations are underway at a high rise prior to fire department arrival, beginning at the ___ floor, firefighters must make their way to each landing and attempt to control existing occupants
2nd
When evacuations are underway at a high rise prior to fire department arrival, occupants __ floors above/below should be assisted to remaining stairwell which shall be designated as the evacuation stairwell
2
Info about occupants in assembly area of a high rise incident will be especially important for those occupants who vacated the fire floor and __ floors above
2
Firefighters in PPE, breathing apparatus, high-rise hose packs, and forcible entry equipment require approximately __ per floor to ascend stairs
1 minute
Fire reported on or below the __ floor, stairwell shall be used
6th
Officer in charge of Fire Attack Team at a high rise should give an assessment of conditions found in the stairwell every ___ floors, and if elevators are used, during the precautionary stops every __ floors
4 or 5 floors;
5 floors
Book 100 - When preparing to advance __ lines simultaneously, flake __ up and __ down the stairs to minimize chance of them becoming entangled
2;
1;
1
Standpipe pressure in a high-rise is controlled by __ means
3
pressure regulating devices, pressure restricting devices, or orifice plates
Pressure regulating devices control pressure: Volume of an outlet can increase to supply more than __ line, as long as gpm does not exceed set limit which is normally ___ gpm
1;
300
Orifice plate controls pressure by restricting volume and is limited to its design requirements for supply ___ gpm
200
Fire can “wrap around” center core buildings, can be prevented by coordinating __ hose lines, __ to attack the fire and __ to prevent the fire from wrapping around the core
2;
1;
1
If 1 business occupies __ or more consecutive floors at a high rise, __ of which is the fire floor, you should be alert for the possibility of an additional stairwell
2;
1
Flashover point for petrochemical synthetics in high rises may be as low as ___ F
700
Department members shall not test voltage systems exceeding ____ volts. TB 92
1,000
Voltage tester may be used to test AC or DC voltages ranging from ____ volts. TB 92
1 to 999
Voltages of ___ volts or more will be indicated by a pulsating buzzer warning. TB 92
500
Voltage tester is powered by __ __ battery TB 92
1 9V
TB 92 - Voltage tester automatic voltage range is ____
1 to 999 volts
TB 92 - Voltage tester battery life is approximately ____ tests until “low battery” sign appears
3,000
TB 92 - If input voltage to be tested is greater than __ volts (AC/DC) the tester switches on automatically. If less, push 2 test prods together and push “test” button, which also provides for a manual battery test
4
TB 92 - A ___ second audible signal will sound when tester reads a stabilized voltage which is when the hold button should be activated
2.5 second
TB 92 - Anytime a member has any indication that the voltage to be tested is ___ volts or more, goggles & rubber electrical gauntlets with leather gloves shall be worn
600
TB 92 - For voltages of ___ or less, firefighting gloves shall be worn
600
TB 92 - Any voltage over __ V should be considered energized
10
TB 136 - LAX is the ___ busiest airport in the world and ranked ___ in cargo with ____ tons of air cargo handled annually
5th;
11th;
2.1 million
TB 136 - Over ______ passengers travel through LAX annually.
61.5 million
TB 136 - __ passenger and __ cargo carriers serve LAX
80; 20
TB 136 - LAX has __ terminals with more than ___ aircraft parking spaces
9; 140
TB 136 - LAX consists of _____ acres with __ east/west runways
1500;
4
TB 136 - Runways __ L/R and __ L/R are north of Century Blvd
Runways __ L/R and __ L/R are south of Century Blvd
6, 24
7, 25
TB 136 - Aircraft landing eastbound are landing on Runways ___, westbound use ____
6 or 7;
24 or 25
TB 136 - Approximately ____ takeoffs/landings daily at LAX
1800
TB 136 - __ major categories of aircraft crashes
2
Airbus A380 has __ decks, cargo with __ passenger cabin decks above. Higher level will have more survivability. TB 136
3; 2
Data shows that when passengers exit via the aircraft emergency chutes, an __% injury rate will occur with no hazard present. TB 136
8%
Additional resources for an airport emergency:
__ ALS RA
__ BLS RA
__ TF
__ BC
__ EMS
__ Haz Mat TF
__ US&R TF
__ Heavy Rescue
15 ALS
5 BLS
8 TF
4 BC
5 EMS
1 HazMat TF
1 US&R TF
1 Heavy Rescue
Criteria for requesting additional resources at an airport incident includes having over ___ passengers. TB 136
200
Ops __ is the call sign for the LAX Airfield Supervisor. TB 136
44
LAX has __ Security Access Points. TB 136
5
LAX airport has over ___ other Airfield Operational Area access points on tenant leasehold property. TB 136
120
Numbering convention for LAX gates (TB 136)
___ series on north side
___ series on east side
___ series on south side
___ series on west side
100;
200;
300;
400
At LAX, Alert __ incidents indicate the aircraft is showing warning lights or minor malfunction. TB 136
2
At LAX Alert __ incidents involve major malfunctions, crash, or crash is imminent. TB 136
3
Initial response for Alert 2 LAX Incident. TB 136
ARFF 80/180/280/380, E 51, BC 4
Initial response for Alert 3 LAX Incident.
TB 136
ARFF 80/180/280/380, E 51, TF 95, RA 95, TF 5, EMS 4, BC 4
Fire service has __ primary incident objectives during the initial stages of a low-impact aircraft crash where potential for survivors exist. TB 136
3
At an airport incident, ARFF 180 positions the apparatus approximately __ off the nose of the aircraft. TB 136
50 yards
It will take approximately __ hours before Information Technology Agency (ITA) and LAWA can complete the setup with telephone/data lines at Fire Station 5. TB 136
3
Aircraft landing speeds exceed ___ knots/hr. TB 136
150
Airbus A380 can carry up to ___ passengers plus flight crew. TB 136
800
IC should consider the need to establish __ medical groups at airport incidents. TB 136
2
At airport incidents, only __ Transportation Control Officer will be assigned regardless of the number of Medical Groups. TB 136
1
Medical Supply Cache and Emergency Backboard Trailer, with __ backboards, is stored in a hanger immediately west of Fire Station 80 and north of USCB LAX Air Station. TB 136
90
Perimeter around aircraft at a LAX incident should be ___. TB 136
300’
Title __ of CA Administrative Code provides requirements for operation of elevators under fire and emergency conditions. Book 100
24
Automatic elevators having a total travel of more than ___ (or more than ___ after _________) may be recalled to lobby by sensing devices or by a 3-positon key operated “Emergency Service” switch in the lobby. Book 100
50’
25’ after 10/6/1975
Minimum of __ “Emergency Service” switch(es) per bank of elevators is required. Book 100
1
All automatic elevators having a travel of __ feet or more above the lowest grade level may be recalled to lobby by smoke detectors or by a 3-position “Emergency Service” switch in lobby. Book 100
70
Elevator ascent only when reported location is above the ___ floor. Book 100
6th
Elevators should not be taken closer than __ floor(s) below reported fire floor or __ floor(s) below the lowest indicated alarm floor location. Book 100
2; 2
If building equipped with split bank, do not use an elevator that services the fire floor is a lower bank reaches within __ floor(s) of the fire floor. Book 100
5
If Light Force is 1st on scene and assumes fire attack, __ member(s) may be assigned to operate the elevator and __ members can assume Fire Attack. Book 100
1; 4
No more than __ personnel, with equipment, shall be permitted in any 1 elevator at a time during Phase __ operations to prevent exceeding weight capacity of elevator and allow for maneuverability should need for forcible exit be required. Book 100
6;
Phase II
The elevator operator shall make precautionary stops every __ floors to test and confirm elevator is properly operating in Phase __ mode. Book 100
5;
Phase II
Elevators after ________ must have a separate “Call Cancel” button for use by emergency personnel. Book 100
10/15/1985
Elevators installed since ____ are required to be recalled to the lobby. Book 100
1986
Buildings post ____ are required to employ a stairshaft ventilation system. Book 100
1974
Stairwell pressurization fans must provide not less than __ CFM while maintaining a positive pressure of not over __ lbs on interior doors. Book 100
50 CFM
25 lbs
Pressure generated by a fire can be up to __ times atmospheric pressure. Book 100
3
Pre-____ high rises are required to have openable windows. Book 100
1960
Post-1960 high rises are required to have tempered glass on at least __ sides of the building (At corners and at __ intervals or less). Book 100
2 sides
50’
Post-1974 high rises are required to have tempered glass on __ sides of the building (At corners and at __ intervals or less). Book 100
4;
50’
Tempered glass windows in high rises are identified by __” luminous or reflective decals in lower corner “For Fire Department Use”. Book 100
3”
Post-____, the requirement of smoke control systems in high rises eliminated requirement of the installation of tempered glass. Book 100
1996
For ventilation purposes, stairshafts can be placed into __ categories. Book 100
2
Open to interior only and provide roof access, open to exterior and provide roof access
Natural airflow within building stairshafts is virtually static in buildings up to __ stories. Buildings over __ stories will naturally flow minimal air in an upward direction. Book 100
25; 25
Pre-1960 firefighting systems consisted of __ things. Book 100
3
Natural air currents of ____ mph, can be created by simply opening a door at the bottom and roof of a stairshaft in a high rise. Book 100
3 to 6
Water turbine blowers produce significantly less noise and will provide more than __ times the CFM of air per minute that a like-sized gas blower. Book 100
2
High-rises after ____ are required to employ an emergency smoke control system comprised __ things. Book 100
1974;
3
Pressurize stairshaft, mechanical smoke removal system, and tempered glass or openable windows
There are __ types of water systems, depending on year of construction. Book 100
3
Cross ventilation operations are effective up to __ floors. More than __ may require additional blower in the pressurized stairshaft to supply additional air. Book 100
25; 25
There are __ types of standpipe systems. Book 100
4
Class I, II, III, and Combined
At a high rise, portable blowers should be placed ___ feet back from doorway and angled back at least __ degrees, regardless of size. Book 100
4 to 6 feet
5 degrees
Pre-1960 had a height limit of ___ or approximately __ stories due to threat of earthquakes. Book 100
150’; 13
Class I Standpipe Systems are found in __ types of buildings. Book 100
3
Pre-60 4+ stories
1960-1974 4+ stories and not exceeding 150’
Post-1974, 4+ stories and not exceeding 150’
Dry Standpipe risers are __ diameter pipe depending on building height. Book 100
4-6”
Dry standpipe risers must flow ___ gpm per riser. Book 100
500
Dry standpipe risers will have __ 2-1/2” inlets at the FDC, depending on building height and if standpipes are interconnected. Book 100
2 to 4
Dry standpipe outlets are provided at every floor level and roof landing of required enclosed stairways, fire escapes, and smoke towers, except ___ floor. Book 100
1st
Dry standpipe outlets are based on requirement that every point within the structure must be reachable by a ___’ stream of water from a nozzle attached to ___’ of hose. Book 100
30’ stream to 100’ of hose
Pre-_____ outlets of Dry and Wet Standpipe Systems are straightaway gate or globe valves. Book 100
1960
Class II (wet) standpipe systems are required in buildings __ or more stories in height (__ or more after _____). Book 100
3;
4, 1983
Class II standpipe systems have __ outlets. Book 100
1-1/2”
Pre-1960 wet standpipe risers are ___ depending on height and year. Book 100
1-1/2” or 2-1/2”
Wet standpipe water flow requirements at roof outlets for:
Pre-1948
1948-1959
1960-1970
1970-present
20 gpm @ 8 psi
35 gpm @ 12 psi
35 gpm @ 15 psi
35 gpm @ 30 psi
What year were height restrictions removed from buildings? Book 100
1960
After ____, standpipes were required in the stairshafts. Book 100
1960
Code changes in 1960 were broken down into requirements for buildings that did not exceed ____’ in height and those that exceeded ___’ in height. Book 100
150’, 150’
Post-1960 under ___’ had same requirements as pre-1960 except that standpipes were required to be in the stairshafts instead of exterior. Book 100
150’
Buildings post-____ over ___ in height are required to have Combination Standpipe Systems. Book 100
1960; 150’
Combination standpipe system outlets are ____. Book 100
1-1/2” (2-1/2” with 1-1/2” reducer) with hose/nozzle for occupants and 2-1/2” outlets for Fire Department
2-1/2” outlets of combination standpipe systems may have 100’ of single-jacketed, unlined 2-½” hose with a 1” tip attached to 2-½” outlets on each floor above the ___ floor (chart says ___ floor and above). Book 100
5th
Combination standpipe systems require __ separate sources of water. Book 100
2
For combination standpipe systems, since water is supplied from the domestic system, __ back flow (clapper) valves are required. Book 100
2
Combination standpipe risers are __ and must flow ____ per riser. Book 100
6”;
1000 gpm
At the __ floor and above, some 2-1/2” outlets of combination standpipe systems have 100’ of 2-1/2” unlined, linen hose and a 1” straight stream tip, marked “Fire Department Use Only”. Book 100
5th
Combination standpipe risers have a required flow of ___ gpm at each 2-1/2” outlet. Book 100
300
Combination standpipe outlets _______ over 150’, the ____ outlets have globe valves with orifice plates. Book 100
1960-1974;
2-1/2” and 1-1/2”
Orifice plates in combination standpipe systems are calibrated to supply ___ gpm at __ psi through 100’ of 2-1/2” hose with a 1” tip. Book 100
200 gpm; 45 psi
Combination standpipe risers will have __ inlets OR if there are 3 or more standpipes will have __ inlets. Book 100
4; 6
Combination standpipe outlets ______ under 150’ are gate or globe valves. Book 100
1960-1974
On a 1-1/2” wet standpipe system as part of a combination standpipe system, if the static pressure on 1-1/2” outlet exceeds ___ psi, a pressure reducing valve must be installed to reduce nozzle pressure to __ psi. Book 100
70; 50
___ outlets are not required in combined sprinkler standpipe systems. Book 100
1-1/2”
To produce __ psi nozzle pressure through 100’ of 1-½” hose flowing __ gpm, requires ___ psi at the outlet. Book 100
50 psi
52 gpm
68.5 psi
In 1974, the ___ requirement for high-rise buildings was reduced to buildings over ___. Book 100
150’ to 75’
High-rise definition: Any building over ___ in height measured to the floor of the top floor level designed for occupant use from the lowest level of Fire Department access. Book 100
75’
Buildings post-1974, over ___ in height, will have a Combined Sprinkler-Standpipe System, directly connected to a water supply and equipped with 2-½” outlets for use by Fire Department. Book 100
150’
In 1974 - Major change in Building Code required buildings over __’ to be fully sprinklered. Code still requires buildings over ___’ to have a Combination Standpipe System, and those that don’t exceed ___’ are only required to have a Dry Standpipe System (in the stairshafts). Adding the sprinkler requirement to these 2 requirements yields __ different configurations of buildings built after 1974. Book 100
75’
150’
150’
3
Combined sprinkler standpipes are required to flow ____ gpm per riser and have __ inlets (250 gpm each) or if 3 or more risers then __ inlets are required. Book 100
1000 gpm
4;
6
Combined sprinkler standpipes water supply may come from a looped system for economic reasons except during _____. Book 100
1983-1988
Exception to the “looping” requirement from 1983-1988 was due to City adopting the Uniform Building Code in ____. Book 100
1983
Buildings 1983-1988 will be found not looped and sprinklers supplied by only __ riser(s). Book 100
1
Buildings post 1974 exceeding ___’ have a Pressure Reducing Valve (PRV) system to reduce standpipe pressure to working pressure. Book 100
75’
Pre-set pressures on Pressure Regulating Devices are required to provide __ psi flowing ___ gpm. Book 100
80-125 psi
300 gpm
Tests have shown pressure only varies slightly when using ___ lines off a pressure regulating device outlet. Book 100
1 or 2
Post-1974 buildings over ___’, wet standpipe outlets with hose are not required provided there are 2-½” to 1-½” reducers with cap/chain on the 2-½” outlets. Book 100
75’
When more than __ standpipe is provided in buildings 75’-150’ from 1974 to present, they shall be interconnected at the bottom. Book 100
1
Pressure Restricting Devices are found in buildings 75’-150’, 1974 to present when static pressures are ___ psi. Book 100
135 to 150 psi
Beginning ____, new high-rises were required to have an on-site water supply to act as a safety in the event of an earthquake. Book 100
1974
For sprinklered buildings, 75’ to 150’, on-site water must supply calculated fire flow requirements of most demanding rectangular area of the building for ___ minutes, plus an additional ___ gpm for the total standpipe. Book 100
30 minutes;
100 gpm
Post-1974 buildings 150’ to 275’, on-site water is calculated on standpipe demand and sprinkler demand is ignored. Requirements are ___ gpm for 1st riser plus ___ gpm for each additional riser, for ___ minutes. Book 100
500 gpm
250 gpm
30 miniutes
Post-1974 buildings over 275’, the minimum on-site water requirement is ______, and increases up to ______ max. Book 100
45,000 gallons
105,000 gallons
Code requires on-site water to be maintained automatically and requires __ methods to fill the tank. Book 100
2
1 method to fill on-site water tanks is a minimum __ diameter pipe to fill in not more than __ hours or after 1983 a __ pipe to fill in __ hours. Book 100
2” in 12 hours
6” in 8 hours
Buildings less than 75’, 1974 to present have the same requirements as buildings under ___ from _____ to ____. Book 100
150’
1960 to 1974
Buildings under construction __ or more stories shall have not less than __ standpipe for use during construction and shall be installed when progress is not more than ___’ in height above grade. Book 100
6;
1;
50’
For buildings under construction, where height requires installation of a Combination Standpipe (exceeds ___’ in height), fire pumps and water main connections shall be provided to serve the standpipe including temporary inlets, normally _____. Book 100
150’
2” to 2-1/2”
For buildings under construction, where height requires installation of a combination standpipe, up to ___ this will be a dry standpipe, once it exceeds that height, a temporary manually started fire pump shall be installed. Book 100
150’
Standpipes for buildings under construction shall be extended as construction progresses to within __ floor(s) of the highest point having secure decking or flooring. Book 100
1
Purpose of fire pump test valves is to permit a periodic test of the building fire pump which is required to pump ___% of its rated capacity. Book 100
150%
A vertical shaft turbine pump is a centrifugal pump with __ or more impellers discharging into __ or more bowls. Book 100
1; 1
Pressure maintenance pumps should be sized to make up the allowable hourly leakage rate within __ minutes or __ gpm, whichever is larger. Book 100
10 minutes; 1 gpm
Jockey pump should be set to operate at a pressure of __ psi higher than main pump starting pressure. Book 100
5-10 psi
Emergency power was not required in buildings between _____. Book 100
1960-1974
Prior to 1974 there was generally only __ fire pump. Book 100
1 electrical
Since 1974, buildings over 275’ are required to have __ fire pump(s), __ electric and __ diesel. Book 100
3;
1 electric & 2 diesel
Each diesel fire pump engine shall be provided with __ storage battery units. Each shall have the capacity to maintain cranking speed throughout a __-minute cycle (ie 15 seconds crank, 15 seconds rest, in ___ consecutive cycles). Book 100
2;
12-minute
6
Diesel engine overspeed shutdown devices shall shut down the engine at a speed approximately ___% above rated engine speed and must be manually reset after overspeed shutdown. Book 100
20%
Diesel engine governors must be capable of regulating the engine speed within a range of ___% between shutoff and maximum load condition of the pump. Book 100
10%
Diesel engine fuel supply shall be a minimum __-hour for new high-rises post 1974 and __-hour for existing high rise 1960-1974. Book 100
8-hour
4-hour
Policy in LA is STOP pressure __ psi below system pressure and START __ psi below system pressure. Book 100
10 psi;
50 psi
Run-out timers for fire pumps is normally set for ___ minutes for electric and ___ minutes for diesel pumps. Book 100
7-10 minutes
30 minutes
4-position selector switch on engine drive controllers has __ manual start push buttons for manually cranking the engine. Book 100
2
Overcrank lamp on a fire pump engine controller: If engine fails to start at end of __ crank attempts (__ 15-second crank periods separated by __ 15-second rest periods) the overcrank lamp will be lit and alarm will sound. Book 100
6; 6; 5
Fire pump engine drive controller loss of ___ volts results in loss of charger output. Book 100
115
Engine drive controllers on fire pumps have __ green lights. Book 100
3
For sequential starting of fire pumps, if water requirements call for more than 1 pumping unit to operate, units shall start at intervals of __ seconds. If pressure in system stays at START pressure for ___ seconds, then 2nd pump will start, if stays there for ___ seconds the 3rd pump will start. Book 100
5 to 10 seconds;
4 to 6 seconds;
6 to 8 seconds
The automatic transfer switch on fire pumps has __ pilot lights. Book 100
2
Acceptance test for fire pump controllers shall perform not less than __ automatic and __ manual operations during the acceptance test and shall be operated for a period of at least __ minutes at full speed during each of the tests. Book 100
10; 10; 5
For annual tests of fire pump assembly, pumps required to pump ___% of rated capacity and at a pressure of not less than ___% of its rated pressure for a minimum of ___ minutes. Book 100
150%
65%
15 minutes
Vane type water flow switches minimum flow rate for alarm is ___ gpm (equal to __ sprinkler head) and operates in __ seconds. Book 100
4 to 10 gpm;
1;
20 to 60 seconds
Vane type water flow switches have an automatic retard to prevent false alarms and is adjustable from __ to approximately __ seconds. Book 100
0 to 90
Vane type water flow switches have __ switches. Book 100
2
Valve tamper switches will activate within __ turns when valve is operated from full open towards closed position. Book 100
2
Commercial High-Rise Sprinkler Retrofit Program was created in ____ to amend LA Building Code, its purpose directed toward upgrading fire and life safety systems in “existing” nonresidential high-rise buildings, referring to structures over ___’ constructed prior to July ____ (office, industrial, or commercial type buildings). Book 100
1988;
75’;
1974
Commercial High-Rise Sprinkler Retrofit Program requires upgrades such as fully sprinklered and have a firefighting water system to at least __ stairwell. Book 100
1
___ buildings in LA that were affected by this 1988 Commercial High-Rise Sprinkler Retrofit Program, __ were granted a variance. Book 100
356; 40
Selected buildings to remain vacant above the 1st floor may be exempt from compliance and could be given extensions of up to __ years for the Commercial High-Rise Sprinkler Retrofit Program. Book 100
11
In completed retrofit buildings, __ types of PRVs that firefighters will come in contact with. Book 100
2
High-Rise Unit of FPB limits duration of time a portion of a system can be taken out of service (between ___ hours). Book 100
4 to 6 hours
There are over __ elevator manufacturers. Book 29
60
There are __ types of elevators. Book 29
2
Drum type cable elevators consists of a car attached to __ or more cables that pass around a winding drum to a moving counterweight. Book 29
1
There are __ types of traction equipment on traction elevators. Book 29
2
High speed direct traction/gearless type traction AND geared traction type
Drum type cable elevators are restricting to ___’ lifts and slow speeds due to limitations in the length/diameter of the winding drum. Book 29
150’
Hydraulic elevators are generally limited to __-story buildings. Some less modern hydraulic elevators may travel over __ stories using cables and counterweights. Book 29
6; 6
Equipment room for hydraulic elevators is normally located at the lower level of a building but can be at any floor or ___ feet away from the elevator shaft. Book 29
50 to 100 feet
Freight elevators can be as large as ____ and have a carrying capacity of up to __ tons. Book 29
12’ x 14’
3 tons
Modern elevators use __ sets of door for operation and passenger ingress/egress. Book 29
2
Gib blocks are __” wide x __” high x __” thick and installed every __”. Book 29
3” x 1” x 1/2”
18”
A centrifugal force governor is provided on most elevators to guard against overspeeding (when a car travels in excess of __% of top speed, governor will activate a safety stop device). Book 29
20%
For elevator rescues, turn off power for a least __ seconds and then back on again. Book 29
30
On hydraulic (and some cable), hoistway doors will open if elevator is __” above or below floor level. Book 29
6”
On some cable elevators, hoistway door will open if elevator is __” above or below floor level. Book 29
18”
Hydraulic elevators generally have __ valves. Book 29
3
1 to raise, 1 to lower, and 1 that will level the car to a floor landing
Discontinue bleeding hydraulic fluid from a hydraulic elevator by rotating valve clockwise until seated when car is level or within __” of floor landing. Book 29
6”
For lowering cable elevators, __ member(s) should be on the floor where passengers will be removed and __ member(s) in equipment room with __ claw tools and a pipe wrench (or large channel locks). Book 29
1;
2;
2
When a lowering a cable elevator car, once it is level or within __” of the floor landing, discontinue rotation of the shaft. Book 29
18”
Side emergency exits on elevators are usually at least __” wide and __’ high, will open inward, and are either hinged or removable. Book 29
16” x 5’
Elevator access panels from blind floors may be every __ floor(s) or __’ apart. Book 29
3;
80’
As a result of Sylmar and Northridge earthquakes, over ____ elevators were put out of service. Book 29
1,000
An escalator traveling between ___ feet per minute can carry as many as ____ passengers per hour. Book 29
90 to 120 FPM
5,000
The blind section is the part of an elevator shaft that for __ or more consecutive floors has no hoistway doors to access the floors. Book 29
3
All cable elevators are counterbalanced and hydraulic elevators over __ stories need to be counterbalanced as well. Book 29
6
An express elevator has no hoistway doors to access __ or more consecutive floors. Book 29
3
The pick-up arm clutch, vane, cam, or bayonet is located on the hoistway door and actuates a door roller that operates a door latch. They are generally __” long on hydraulic elevators and __” long on cable elevators. Book 29
14”
36”
Total loss due to a structure fire is a result of __ factor(s). Book 100
2
Direct and indirect loss
A 2” line at 200 gpm adds nearly ____ lbs per minute of weight to a structure. Book 100
1,670
A 2-1/2” line at 325 gpm adds nearly ____ pounds per minute of weight to a structure. Book 100
2,800
Skyline Elevator Rescue Kit consists of __ components. TB 111
4
Skyline Elevator pick bag
Equipment room bag
Step stool
Skyline pole
Elevator pick bag consists of __ items. TB 111
13
Side Picks - Small, Medium, Large
Top Picks - Standard, Thin, Tall
Kone Picks - Left, Center, Right, Hook
ThyssenKrupp Pick
Otis Rake Pick
Bi-parting Freight Pick
Elevator Rescue Paddle
1 Klein screwdriver with ⅜” tip and 8” shank
Pelican flashlight 3410M
2 door wedges (red)
2 Stratton wedges (black)
2 pieces of salvage cord
3 AA batteries
When picking above the elevator car, it is necessary for __ member(s) to remain at the floor level the car is stalled on. TB 111
1
Side picks are most commonly used on __ manufacturers. TB 111
6
GAL, Mitsubishi with linkage, Old Otis, Otis with linkage, Fujitec, and Westinghouse door locks
Old Otis interlock is located at the top portion of the hoistway door. Pickup rollers are usually located ____ from the leading edge of the door. On center opening doors, the pickup rollers are located ____ from the center-opening split of the doors. TB 111
8”-12”
8”-12”
Top picks are used with __ manufacturers. TB 111
6
GAL, Schindler, Mitsubishi w/o linkage, Dover, older ThyssenKrupp with no plate, and some Westinghouse door locks
The kone pick may enter the interlock box which has up to ___ volts AC when energized. TB 111
230
On ThyssenKrupp elevators, there is a small slot in the plate which is located approximately ___ from the leading edge of the door. TB 111
3” to 4”
Elevator rescue paddle consists of __ parts. TB 111
3
Handle, shaft, paddle
Elevator equipment room bag consists of __ items. TB 111
13
14” Pro Tool Bag
Milwaukee 18” aluminum pipe wrench
Crescent 16” tongue and groove pliers
2 pairs of gloves
Pelican flashlight 3410M
Zak tool (shove knife)
Pry tool (EOD robotics)
Klein 5-in-1 multi-bit screwdriver
2 Stratton wedges (black)
2 master locks w/ keys
2 Lockout Hasp 1-½”
OSHA Lockout tags
“Do Not Operate” tags
Skyline pole bag consists of __ items. TB 111
6
Pole Bag
4’-8’ extension poling tool
4’ poling tool
Skyline Pole hook
Pelican 1910 flashlight
AAA batteries
