Labs Flashcards

1
Q

Generally, when should you order lab tests?

A

When it will possibly change the treatment or clinical outcome

(for a reason)

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2
Q

What 2 organ systems would it be considered “too late” when the physical exam reveals an abnormality?

A

Liver and Kidney

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3
Q

What time should you put on a lab order if you want the results right away?

A

STAT (always in ER/ICU)

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4
Q

What time should you put on a lab order if you want the results by next shift?

A

No time

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5
Q

What time should you put on a lab order if you want the results at a specific time?

A

State the exact time

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6
Q

True or False: when writing a lab order, “now” is mutually acceptable as “STAT”

A

False

“now” should never be written

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7
Q

Which lab consists of the following items?

WBC, RBC, Hb, Platelets, Differential on WBCs, Indices, and Hct

A

CBC

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8
Q

This is a listing of the absolute and the percentage of the specific types of WBCs

A

Differential

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9
Q

What 2 main reasons should you order a CBC?

A

Detecting Disease

Monitoring disease

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10
Q

What are the 6 WBC types that are found on the differential for a CBC?

A

Neutrophils

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Eosinophils

Basophils

Bands (immature WBCs)

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11
Q

What are “segs”?

A

Neutrophils (their nucleus is segmented)

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12
Q

What is a “left shift”?

A

The trend towards less mature WBC’s or towards an increase in neutrophils.

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13
Q

What would infection, inflammation, anoxia, drugs, or stress/pain do to WBC production?

A

↑ production and release of immature cells

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14
Q

What are thee 6 etiologies for neutrophilia?

A

Metabolic disorders

Acute infection

Drugs/toxins

Hematological disorders

Acute inflammation

Tissue necrosis

(MAD HAT)

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15
Q

Viral infections, some bacterial infections, chronic inflammatory disorders, and blood diseases will raise which WBC?

A

Lymphocytes

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16
Q

Bacterial infections, viral infections, hematological disorders, and collagen vascular disease will raise which WBC?

A

Monocytes

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17
Q

Parasitic diseases, allergic disease, skin disorders, and malignancies will raise which WBC?

A

Eosinophils

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18
Q

Define the following acronyms:

MCHC MCV MCH RDW

A

MCHC- mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration

MCV- mean corpuscular volume

MCH- mean corpuscular Hb

RDW- RBC distribution width

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19
Q

What are the 3 broad topics that describe a decrease in RBC count?

A

Microcytic hypochromic anemia

Normocytic normochromic anemia

Macrocytic anemia

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20
Q

What are the 2 broad topics that increase the RBC count?

A

Polycythemia vera (PV)

Secondary polycythemia

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21
Q

What will a B12 or folate deficiency do to MCV?

A

increase it

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22
Q

What are the 2 main conditions that cause a ↓ MCV?

A

Iron deficiency anemia

Hemolytic anemia

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23
Q

Infections or myeloproliferative disorders will cause what change in platelet count?

A

↑ platelets

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24
Q

What 2 general things can cause a decreased platelet count?

A

↓ production (marrow depression)

↑ destruction (autoimmune)

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25
What will toxins and drugs do to reticulocyte count?
↓ reticulocytes
26
What 2 things will ↑ reticulocyte count?
Hemolytic anemia Acute blood loss
27
What will anemia, blood loss, fluid retention, or edematous states (CHF) do to [Hb]?
↓ Hb
28
If a patient has blood loss, anemia, or state or hydration, what measurement can you use to evaluate it?
Hct
29
Generally, which lab test screens for Renal + Electrolytes?
BMP
30
What does a BUN:Cr \> 20 indicate?
Prerenal azotemia (Dehydration causes ↑ BUN reabsorption, which ↑ this ratio)
31
What does a BUN:Cr from 10-15 indicate?
Renal state (normal)
32
What does a BUN:Cr \<20 indicate?
Postrenal azotemia (Obstruction ↓ BUN reabsorption, which ↓ this ratio)
33
What is the difference between azotemia and uremia?
Azotemia- ↑ BUN and Cr in blood (lab Dx) Uremia- ↑ urine in blood, refers to end-stage kidney disease/renal failure. (all uremic pts are azotemic, but not all azotemic pts are uremic)
34
What is the formula to determine creatinine clearance when only the serum creatinine is known? Males and Females
Male: (Kg)\*(140-age)/72\*(serum Cr) Female: (Kg)\*(140-age)\*(0.85)/72\*(serum Cr)
35
What is the main reason to order a serum Cr level?
Assess GFR (renal fxn)
36
What is a common cause of hypercalcemia based on elevated PTH?
Primary hyperparathyroidism with an adenoma
37
What is the most common cause of hypocalcemia?
Hypoalbuminemia
38
What is the eqn to adjust serum Ca under a depressed albumin?
Adjusted Ca = (serum Ca) - (serum albumin) + 4.0
39
What metabolic state causes decreased CO2?
Metabolic acidosis
40
Respiratory alkalosis, renal disease (pyelonephritis), severe dehydration, and DI can cause an increase in which ion?
Cl-
41
What 3 things can cause a loss of Cl-?
Renal loss (loop diuretics) GI loss Metabolic alkalosis (vomiting HCl)
42
Diabetes, Acute pancreatitis, endocrine dysfxn, and drugs can cause what change in [glucose] in the blood?
Hyperglycemia
43
What mg/dl of fasting blood sugar do you need to be diagnosed with diabetes mellitus?
\> 126 mg/dl
44
What mg/dl of random blood sugar do you need to be diagnosed with diabetes mellitus?
\> 200 mg/dl
45
This is the test for diabetes that uses a specific glucose pill that is given every 30 minutes and recorded as a curve. (not done anymore)
Glucose tolerance test
46
What are the 4 times in the day that you should check blood sugars with a home glucometer?
6am 11am 4pm 9pm
47
What is the most important electrolyte to measure?
K+
48
What 4 things can cause hypokalemia?
GI loss (vomiting, diarrhea) Move to intracellular (alkalosis, insulin) Urine loss (diuretics) Decreased intake
49
What are the 3 reasons to have hyperkalemia?
Renal failure IV therapy Thrombocytosis/leukocytosis
50
What are the 2 reasons to cause isotonic hyponatremia?
Hyperproteinemia Hyperlipidemia
51
What are the 2 reasons to cause hypertonic hyponatremia?
Hyperglycemia Medication
52
What are the 2 reasons to cause hypotonic hyponatremia?
Renal loss with diuretics Edema with CHF
53
What is added to the BMP to make a CMP?
Liver markers
54
This is the test that is a nonspecific indicator of illness over time, where albumin decreases and alpha2globulin increases.
A/G ratio
55
This is quantitively the most significant protein synthesized by the liver.
Albumin
56
What can subacute and chronic debilitating diseases, liver disease, malabsorption, and malnutrition do to albumin levels?
↓ albumin
57
What 4 liver conditions can lead to an elevated serum Alkaline Phosphatase (AP)?
Cholestasis CHF Obstructive and Hepatocellular processes
58
What 2 bone conditions can lead to an elevated serum Alkaline Phosphatase (AP)?
Metastatic malignancy Hyperthyroidism
59
What can a late MI or pregnancy do to AP levels?
↑ them
60
What does ALT and AST stand for?
ALT- alanine aminotransferase AST- aspartate aminotransferase
61
What can liver disease, CHF, infectious mononucleosis, and acute pancreatitis do to aminotransferase levels?
↑ aminotransferases
62
Antibiotics, antiepileptics, statins, NSAIDS, sulfonylureas, substances of abuse, and herbs may increase what "enzymes" in the blood?
Liver enzymes
63
What is the 1 condition in each of the following areas that may increase AST? Liver Heart Skeletal muscle RBC's
Liver- Hepatitis Heart- acute MI Skeletal muscle- Trauma RBC's- Hemolytic anemia
64
Liver disease, congenital hyperbilirubinemia, hemolytic anemia, and malnutrition may increase levels of what marker in the blood?
Bilirubin
65
Chronic infection, dehydration, collagen-autoimmune disease, and hemolysis may increase what marker in the blood?
Proteins
66
What is the most sensitive marker for acute MI and is independent of renal fxn?
Troponin I
67
What underlying condition may cause troponin T levels to be inaccurate in the diagnosis of an MI?
Renal insufficiency
68
What is the newest reason to obtain a total CPK level?
Rhabdomyolysis with statins
69
What 3 areas is LDH-1 distributed?
Heart Erythrocytes Renal Cortex
70
What 2 conditions can you use LDH-1 to diagnose?
Acute MI Hemolytic anemia
71
What 2 areas is LDH-3 distributed?
Lung Lymphocytes
72
LDH-3 is good for determining what conditions?
Acute Pulmonary Infarction (PI?) Lymphocytosis
73
What 2 areas is LDH-5 distributed?
Liver Skeletal muscle
74
LDH-5 is good for determining what conditions?
Hepatitis SkM injury
75
What cardiac serum marker exhibits the following characteristics? Rise- 0.5-2hr Peak- 5-12hr Return to normal- 18-30hr
Myoglobin
76
What cardiac serum marker exhibits the following characteristics? Rise- 3-8hr Peak- 9-30hr Return to normal- 2-3d
CPK-MB
77
What cardiac serum marker exhibits the following characteristics? Rise- 3-6hr Peak- 10-24hr Return to normal- 5-15d
Troponin I
78
What cardiac serum marker exhibits the following characteristics? Rise- 8-18hr Peak- 2-3d Return to normal- 6-10d
LDH-1
79
Who is recommended to have an LDL level \<160?
Everyone
80
Who is recommended to have an LDL level \< 130?
Those with \> 1 risk factor
81
Who is recommended to have an LDL level \< 100?
Those with identified CAD, DM, any atherosclerotic disease, or multiple CAD risk factors
82
Who is recommended to have an LDL level \< 70?
Those with identified CAD or DM
83
What is the main reason to get an ESR?
Minor tissue inflmmation
84
What is the test used to diagnose DM, and estimates the glucose control for the previous 2-3 months?
HbA1c
85
What is the method to get blood cultures?
2 different sites at 2 different times (15 mins apart)
86
Out of the 3 following Syphilis tests, which one is confirmatory? RPR VDRL FTA-ABS
FTA-ABS
87
What condition in each of the following areas causes an increased serum amylase? Pancreas Salivary GI Liver
Pancreas- pancreatitis Salivary- Parotitis GI- Perforated bowel Liver- hepatitis, alcoholism
88
What marker is superior to total amylase for specificity and sensitivity for acute pancreatitis?
Lipase
89
Which lab do you use to monitor warfarin (coumadin) effect?
PT
90
What drug do you monitor with the PTT?
Heparin
91
What are the 2 commonly ordered thyroid tests?
TSH, free T4
92
How often should you order cardiac enzymes/markers for an evolving MI?
Q6 hours x 3
93
How often should you order liver enzymes for a patient on statins?
After 1 month and then q 3-4 months
94
With treatment, how often will insurance pay for HbA1c checks?
q 3 months
95
How often should you obtain HIV RBA viral load and CD4 counts?
q 1-3 months
96
When should you order PSAs?
Yearly at 50 Yearly with family Hx at age 40
97
The CEA marker is indicative for what cancer?
Colon CA
98
The CA125 marker is indicative for what cancer?
Ovarian
99
The AFP marker is indicative for what cancer?
Hepatocellular CA
100
Review: Which panel includes kindey and electrolytes?
BMP
101
What is the only liver fxn test?
Albumin
102
Review: Which panel includes kindey, electrolytes, and liver?
CMP
103
Review: Which panel includes only liver markers?
Hepatic Function Panel
104
Review: Which panel includes CO2, Cl-, K, and Na?
Electrolyte panel
105
What does this stick diagram measure?
BMP
106
Fill in this stick diagram
107
What does this stick diagram measure?
BMP
108
Fill in this stick diagram
109
What does this stick diagram measure?
CBC
110
Fill in the stick diagram