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Phlebotomy > Laboratory Operations > Flashcards

Laboratory Operations Flashcards

1
Q 
The government agency of the US responsible for regulating the safety and health of workers is:
A. ASCP
B. CAP
C. JCAHO
D. OSHA
A

D. OSHA

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2
Q 
The agency that developed a label designed to communicate specific hazards associated with hazardous chemicals is:
A. ASCP
B. CAP
C. JCAHO
D. NFPA
A

D. NFPA

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3
Q 
According to the National Fire Protection Agency, which of the following classes of fires occurs with ordinary combustibles?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
A

A. A

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4
Q 
According to the National Fire Protection Agency, which of the following classes of fires occurs with flammable liquids and vapors?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
A

B. B

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5
Q 
According to the National Fire Protection Agency, which of the following classes of fires occurs with electrical equipment?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
A

C. C

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6
Q 
According to the National Fire Protection Agency, which of the following classes of fires occurs with combustible or reactive metals?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
A

D. D

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7
Q 
What is the National Fire Protection Agency's code word for action in the event of a fire?
A. EDTA
B. OSHA
C. PASS
D. RACE
A

D. RACE

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8
Q 
Which of the following mnemonics communicates the appropriate procedure to follow when using a fire extinguisher?
A. EDTA
B. OSHA
C. PASS
D. RACE
A

C. PASS

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9
Q 
Which of the following fire extinguisher contents is appropriate to use on a Class A fire?
A. carbon dioxide
B. halon
C. metal X
D. pressurized water
A

D. pressurized water

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10
Q 
What are the contents of a multipurpose (ABC) fire extinguisher?
A. carbon dioxide
B. dry chemical
C. halon
D. metal X
A

B. dry chemical

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11
Q

If a specimen tube containing patient blood breaks in a centrifuge, what is the first thing the phlebotomist should do?
A. clean up the glass
B. spray the spill with disinfectant
C. sprinkle the spill with absorbent material
D. unplug the centrifuge

A

D. unplug the centrifuge

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12
Q 
What are the three components of radiation safety?
A. alarm, confine, extinguish
B. PPE, engineering controls, education
C. stop, drop, roll
D. time, shielding, distance
A

D. time, shielding, distance

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13
Q

Labeling of hazardous materials is required by:
A. OSHA’s Bloodborne Pathogen Standard
B. OSHA’s Hazardous Communication Standard
C. Patient’s Bill of Rights
D. universal precautions

A

B. OSHA’s Hazardous Communication Standard

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14
Q 
A form provided by chemical manufacturers containing general information, safe handling, and emergency information regarding a particular chemical is called a(n):
A. incident report
B. material safety data sheet
C. procedure manual
D. warning label
A

B. MSDS

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15
Q 
An agency that establishes standards for the operation of hospitals an other health care agencies, conducts surveys, and accredits programs that meet the defined standards is:
A. ASCP
B. JCAHO
C. OSHA
D. NAACLS
A

B. JCAHO

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16
Q 
Appropriately maintaining a centrifuge is an example of what kind of safety?
A. chemical
B. electrical
C. mechanical
D. radioactive
A

C. mechanical

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17
Q 
Which of the following activities should NEVER occur in the laboratory?
A. calibration
B. eating
C. pipetting
D. quality control
A

B. eating

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18
Q 
A factor causing emotional or mental strain or tension is called:
A. basal state
B. diurnal rhythm
C. rest
D. stress
A

D. stress

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19
Q 
A patient suffering from disease or injury to the central nervous system would most likely be admitted to the:
A. geriatric unit
B. neurological unit
C. obstetrical unit
D. orthopedic unit
A

B.neurological unit

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20
Q 
A patient suffering from a mental or emotional disorder would mist likely be admitted to  the:
A. neurological unit
B. obstetric unit
C. pediatric unit
D. psychiatric unit
A

D. psychiatric unit

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21
Q 
A patient experiencing complications related to pregnancy would most likely be admitted to the:
A. obstetrical unit
B. odontalgic unit
C. oncology unit
D. orthopedic unit
A

A. obstetrical unit

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22
Q 
The field of medicine that specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of the elderly population is called:
A. geriatrics
B. oncology
C. proctology
D. rheumatology
A

A. geriatrics

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23
Q 
The field of medicine that deals with the diagnosis and treatment of joint and tissue diseases is:
A. geriatrics
B. pediatrics
C. proctology
D. rheumatology
A

D. rheumatology

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24
Q 
The medical specialty that deals with the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the eye is:
A. obstetrics
B. ophthalmology
C. otolaryngology
D. orthopedics
A

B. ophthalmology

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25
Q 
The field of medicine that deals with the diagnosis and treatment of the ear, nose, and throat is:
A. obstetrics
B. ophthalmology
C. orthopedics
D. otolaryngology
A

D. otolaryngology

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26
Q 
The department of medicine that specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders associated with male sexual and reproductive systems and renal system for both sexes is:
A. cardiology
B. dermatology
C. immunology
D. urology
A

D. urology

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27
Q 
The medical department that specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders associated with the esophagus, stomach and intestines is:
A. gastroenterology
B. proctology
C. nephrology
D. rheumatology
A

A. gastroenterology

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28
Q 
The medical department that specializes in the treatment of disorders associated with hormone production is:
A. endocrinology
B. gastroenterology
C. nephrology
D. urology
A

A. endocrinology

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29
Q 
The department that uses radioactive materials to diagnose, treat, and monitor disease processes is:
A. medical imaging
B. nuclear medicine
C. occupational therapy
D. radiation therapy
A

B. nuclear medicine

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30
Q 
The department that assists patients in becoming as independently active as possible, given the limitations of their physical or mental problems is:
A. occupational therapy
B. physical therapy
C. psychiatric therapy
D. radiation therapy
A

A. occupational therapy

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31
Q 
The department that works with the patient to eliminate his or her disability or to restore mental or physical abilities lost as a result of illness or accident is:
A. occupational therapy
B. physical therapy
C. psychiatric therapy
D. radiation therapy
A

B. physical therapy

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32
Q 
A physician who specializes in the diagnosis of disease from laboratory test results is a :
A. pathologist
B. proctologist
C. rheumatologist
D. urologist
A

A. pathologist

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33
Q 
A laboratory professional who enters the field after obtaining a bachelor's degree, including a year or more of study in medical technology, is a:
A. certified laboratory assistant
B. pathologist
C. medical laboratory technician
D. medical technologist
A

D. medical technologist

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34
Q 
A laboratory professional who enters the field after obtaining an associate's degree is a:
A. certified laboratory assistant
B. pathologist
C. medical laboratory technician
D. medical technologist
A

C. medical laboratory technician

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35
Q 
A laboratory professional trained in all aspects of blood specimen collection and transport is a:
A. pathologist
B. phlebotomist
C. medical laboratory technician
D. medical technologist
A

B. phlebotomist

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36
Q 
A laboratory professional who is responsible for the administration of a particular section of the laboratory is a(n):
A. administrative technologist
B. medical technologist
C. pathologist
D. technical supervisor
A

D. technical supervisor

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37
Q 
A technologist with an advanced degree and several years experience who is responsible for overseeing all operations including physician and patient services is a(n):
A. administrative technologist
B. medical technologist
C. pathologist
D. technical supervisor
A

A. administrative technologist

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38
Q 
What is the highest administrative position on a standard organizational chart for the clinical laboratory?
A. administrative technologist
B. medical lab technician
C. medical technologist
D. technical supervisor
A

A. administrative technologist

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39
Q 
The rupturing or destruction of red blood cells, resulting in the release of hemoglobin into the fluid portion of the blood, is called:
A. hemoconcentration
B. hemolysis
C. hemostasis
D. homeostasis
A

B. hemolysis

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40
Q 
The disease state resulting from the invasion of the body by a pathogenic microorganism is called:
A. infection
B. inflammation
C. inoculation
D. intrinsic
A

A. infection

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41
Q 
An infection acquired in a health care facility is called:
A. nosocomial
B. nosophobia
C. nosotoxicosis
D. nosotrophic
A

A. nosocomial

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42
Q 
An infection control program that includes monitoring specific patient population groups and classifications of infection is called:
A. surveillance
B. susceptibility
C. viability
D. virulence
A

A. surveillance

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43
Q

The three components of the chain of infection are:
A. source, mode of transmission, susceptible host
B. source mode of transmission, virulence
C. source, viability, virulence
D. source, viability, mode of transmission

A

A. source, mode of transmission, susceptible host

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44
Q 
An infection that can be transmitted from one person to another is called:
A. communicable
B. communicans
C. viable
D. virulent
A

A. communicable

45
Q 
The term used to communicate an organism's capability of living is:
A. viability
B. virulence
C. vicarious
D. villosity
A

A. viability

46
Q 
The ability to overcome the defense mechanisms of the host is an organism's:
A. viability
B. vicarious
C. villosity
D. virulence
A

D. virulence

47
Q 
Salmonella organisms are examples of what component of the chain of infection?
A. means of transmission
B. nosocomial infection
C. source
D. susceptible host
A

C. source

48
Q 
Which of the following is an example of a mode of transmission in the chain of infection?
A. Salmonella
B. Shigella
C. patient suffering from AIDS
D. venipuncture needle
A

D. venipuncture needle

49
Q 
Which of the following is an example of a susceptible host in the chain of infection?
A. airborne droplets
B. patient afflicted with AIDS
C. Salmonella
D. venipuncture needle
A

B. patient afflicted with AIDS

50
Q 
Human hands are examples of which component of the chain of infection?
A. mode of transmission
B. nosocomial infection
C. source
D. susceptible host
A

C. source

51
Q 
Airborne droplets are examples of which component of the chain of infection?
A. mode of transmission
B. nosocomial infection
C. source
D. susceptible host
A

A. mode of transmission

52
Q 
A patient undergoing immunosuppressive therapy prior to transplant is an example of which component of the chain of infection?
A. mode of transmission
B. nosocomial infection
C. source
D. susceptible host
A

D. susceptible host

53
Q 
Which of the following agencies first recommended universal precautions?
A. CAP
B. CDC
C. NAACLS
D. OSHA
A

B. CDC

54
Q 
Universal precautions prevent the spread of which of the following pathogens?
A. acid fast bacillus
B. blood-borne
C. respiratory
D. tuberculosis
A

B. blood-borne

55
Q 
The term "blood-borne pathogens" most commonly refers to:
A. HAV and HBV
B. HBV and HIV
C. HBV and Treponema pallidum
D. HBV and Plasmodium falciparum
A

B. HBV and HIV

56
Q 
Under universal precautions, which patients are considered potentially infectious?
A. all of them
B. none of them
C. patients infected with HBV
D. patients infected with HIV
A

A. all of them

57
Q 
A synonym for the term "barrier protection," as it applies to blood-borne pathogens, is:
A. body substance isolation
B. category-specific isolation
C. isolation procedures
D. personal protective equipment
A

D. personal protective equipment

58
Q 
Which of the following PPE is required if splashing of blood and body fluids is likely?
A. handwashing
B. masks
C. needle recapping
D. respirators
A

B. masks

59
Q

Which of the following practices is prohibited under universal precautions?
A. handwashing using an alcohol rinse solution
B. handwashing using a foam solution
C. recapping needles
D. wearing masks

A

C. recapping needles

60
Q 
Under universal precautions, when should a PBT change gloves?
A. after every patient
B. after every second patient
C. after every third patient
D. only when soiled
A

A. after every patient

61
Q

Under universal precautions, when should a PBT wash their hands?
A. after every patient, once gloves are removed
B. between patients, without removing gloves
C. only if the gloves are soiled
D. whenever the phlebotomist wants to

A

A. after every patient, once gloves are removed

62
Q 
Which of the following agencies mandated universal precautions, superseding all other regulatory requirements?
A. CDC
B. CAP
C. NAACLS
D. OSHA
A

D. OSHA

63
Q 
The physical transfer of a pathogenic microbe through close contact such as kissing is:
A. direct contact transmission
B. indirect contact transmission
C. vector transmission
D. vehicle transmission
A

A. direct contact transmission

64
Q 
Transfer of a pathogenic microbe via an inanimate object such as bed linen is:
A. direct contact transmission
B. indirect contact transmission
C. vector transmission
D. vehicle transmission
A

B. indirect contact transmission

65
Q 
The transfer of a pathogenic microbe through sneezing or coughing is called:
A. direct contact transmission
B. indirect contact transmission
C. droplet transmission
D. vector transmission
A

C. droplet transmission

66
Q 
Transfer of a pathogenic microbe via contaminated food or drugs is:
A. direct contact transmission
B. indirect contact transmission
C. vector transmission
D. vehicle transmission
A

D. vehicle transmission

67
Q 
Transfer of a pathogenic organism via an insect or animal is:
A. direct contact transmission
B. indirect contact transmission
C. vector transmission
D. vehicle transmission
A

C. vector transmission

68
Q 
The practice of separating patients with communicable infections from other patients and limiting their contact with health care workers and visitors is called:
A. ischemia
B. isolation
C. nosocomial
D. virulence
A

B. isolation

69
Q 
Which of the following isolation systems, established by the CDC, is based on a diagnosis of a communicable disease, and includes a category titled "AFB Isolation"?
A. category specific isolation
B. disease specific isolation
C. protective isolation
D. universal precautions
A

A. category specific isolation

70
Q 
Which of the following isolation systems does not require a diagnosis of communicable disease?
A. category specific isolation
B. disease specific isolation
C. protective isolation
D. reverse isolation
A

B. disease specific isolation

71
Q 
A patient has an infection that is highly contagious and can be transmitted by direct contact and via airborne transmission.  What isolation category would the patient be placed in?
A. contact
B. enteric
C. respiratory
D. strict
A

D. strict

72
Q 
Before a PBT enters the room of a patient in strict isolation, the PBT should wear:
A. gloves, gown, and eyewear
B. gloves, gown, and mask
C. gown, mask, and eyewear
D. mask and gloves only
A

B. gloves, gown, and mask

73
Q 
A patient is admitted to the hospital with chickenpox.  What category of isolation would the patient be placed in?
A. contact
B. enteric
C. none
D. strict
A

D. strict

74
Q 
A patient is admitted to a hospital with influenza.  What category of isolation would the patient be placed in?
A. contact
B. enteric
C. none
D. strict
A

A. contact

75
Q 
If a patient is in strict isolation, what color is the sign on the patient's door?
A. blue
B. brown
C. green
D. yellow
A

D. yellow

76
Q 
If a patient is in respiratory isolation, what color is the sign on the patient's door?
A. blue
B. brown
C. green
D. yellow
A

A. blue

77
Q 
If a patient is diagnosed with Haemophilus influenzae, what isolation category would he or she be placed in?
A. contact isolation
B. drainage/secretion
C. respiratory
D. strict
A

C. respiratory

78
Q 
A patient is diagnosed with an infection that may be spread by droplet contact or through the air.  Which isolation category would the patient be placed in?
A. contact
B. drainage/secretion
C. enteric
D. respiratory
A

D. respiratory

79
Q 
A patient is placed in enteric isolation.  What color is the sign on the patient's door?
A. blue
B. brown
C. green
D. yellow
A

B. brown

80
Q

A phlebotomist approaches a patient’s isolation room. To determine the appropriate protective clothing to wear into the patient’s room, the phlebotomist should:
A. ask the patient’s doctor
B. ask the patient’s nurse
C. consult the sign on the patient’s door
D. consult the Laboratory Procedure Manual

A

C. consult the sign on the patient’s door

81
Q 
If a patient has an intestinal infection that can be spread by ingestion of the pathogen, which isolation category would the patient be placed in?
A. contact
B. enteric
C. respiratory
D. strict
A

B. enteric

82
Q 
If a patient is diagnosed with Salmonella infection, what isolation category would the patient be placed in?
A. contact
B. enteric
C. respiratory
D. strict
A

B. enteric

83
Q 
If a patient is placed in AFB isolation, what color is the sign on the patient's door?
A. brown
B. gray
C. orange
D. yellow
A

B. gray

84
Q

Which of the following personal protective equipment must a phlebotomist wear into a patient’s room in AFB isolation?
A. gown and gloves
B. gloves and mask
C. gown, gloves, and mask
D. gown, gloves, and particulate respirator

A

D. gown, gloves, and particulate respirator

85
Q 
If a patient is in AFB isolation, what diagnosis has been made?
A. H. influenzae
B. salmonellosis
C. shigellosis
D. tuberculosis
A

D. tuberculosis

86
Q 
A patient is diagnosed with a highly transmissible disease that does not warrant strict isolation.  What isolation category would the patient be placed in?
A. contact
B. drainage/secretion
C. enteric
D. respiratory
A

A. contact

87
Q 
If a patient is diagnosed with a condition requiring drainage and secretion isolation, what color would the sign on the patient's door be?
A. blue
B. brown
C. green
D. yellow
A

C. green

88
Q 
A patient, burned over 75% of his body, develops an infection.  What isolation category would he/she be placed in?
A. blood and body fluids
B. drainage/secretion
C. enteric
D. strict
A

B. drainage/secretion

89
Q 
Which category of isolation was replaced by universal precautions?
A. AFB isolation
B. blood and body fluids
C. contact isolation
D. enteric precautions
A

B. blood and body fluids

90
Q 
If a patient is undergoing immunosuppressive therapy prior to transplant, what isolation category would he be placed in?
A. contact
B. enteric
C. protective
D. strict
A

C. protective

91
Q 
What procedure should be followed to dispose of trash and linens from an isolation room?
A. disinfection
B. double bagging
C. handwashing
D. reverse isolation
A

B. double bagging

92
Q 
Chemical compounds used to remove or kill microorganisms on work surfaces or instruments are called:
A. aerosols
B. antiseptics
C. disinfectants
D. phloxine B
A

C. disinfectants

93
Q 
Chemicals that may be used on human skin to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms, but not necessarily kill them, are:
A. aerosols
B. antiseptics
C. disinfectants
D. phenols
A

B. antiseptics

94
Q 
Which of the following is an antiseptic?
A. chloramine
B. formaldehyde
C. hypochlorite solution
D. 70% isopropyl alcohol
A

D. 70% isopropyl alcohol

95
Q 
Which of the following compounds is a disinfectant?
A. 70% isopropyl alcohol
B. 1% phenol
C. hexachlorophene
D. quaternary ammonium compounds
A

B. 1% phenol

96
Q 
Laboratory acquired infections are often transmitted via:
A. respirator contact
B. skin contact
C. vector transmission
D. vehicle transmission
A

B. skin contact

97
Q

To prevent the spread of laboratory acquired infections by ingestion, phlebotomists on duty should never:
A. handle a stick of gum
B. open centrifuges before they have stopped spinning
C. pop off the stoppers of evacuated tubes
D. rub their eyes

A

A. handle a stick of gum

98
Q

The phlebotomist enters a patient’s room and realizes that the patient is not there. The phlebotomist should:
A. notify the doctor
B. notify the nurse
C. wait in the room for the patient to return
D. write “can’t get” on the requisition

A

B. notify the nurse

99
Q

If a patient refuses to have his blood drawn, the phlebotomist should first:
A. ask the nurse to try and enlist the patient’s cooperation
B. politely leave the room
C. remind the patient that his or her physician ordered the test
D. write “can’t get” on the requisition

A

C. remind the patient that his or her physician ordered the test

100
Q

A patient refuses to have his blood drawn. The phlebotomist reminds the patient that his physician ordered the test, the patient still refuses; the phlebotomist should next:
A. ask the nurse to try and enlist the patient’s cooperation
B. politely leave the room
C. remind the patient that his or her physician ordered the test
D. write “can’t get” on the requisition

A

A. ask the nurse to try and enlist the patient’s cooperation

101
Q 
The document adopted by the American Hospital Association in 1973 that protects the patient's right to refuse treatment is:
A. OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogen Standard
B. the Patient's Bill of Rights
C. the Right to Know Act
D. universal precautions
A

B. the Patient’s Bill of Rights

102
Q 
If a phlebotomist forcibly collects a blood specimen from a patient after the patient has refused the test, the phlebotomist can be charged with:
A. battery
B. malpractice
C. negligence
D. slander
A

A. battery

103
Q 
The safety rules recommended by the CDC to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens are called:
A. epidemiology
B. isolation
C. protective isolation
D. universal precautions
A

D. universal precautions

104
Q 
Which of the following documents legally mandates precautions to minimize occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens?
A. OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogen Standard
B. the Patient's Bill of Rights
C. Phlebotomist Code of Ethics
D. universal precautions
A

A. OSHA’s Bloodborne Pathogen Standard

105
Q 
Acquired immune deficiency syndrome is associated with:
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HIV
A

D. HIV

106
Q 
The use of body language in communication is called:
A. kinesics
B. proxemics
C. sign language
D. unprofessional
A

A. kinesics

107
Q 
A method of nonverbal communication involving a person's use and concept of space is called:
A. body language
B. kinesics
C. proxemics
D. unprofessional
A

C. proxemics

108
Q

Page 104

A

Question 558

Phlebotomy (4 decks)

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