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SASx Laboratory Quiz Review > Lab Quiz Review > Flashcards

Lab Quiz Review Flashcards

1
Q

These are small, specialized tissue froceps used in ophthalmic surgery.

A

Bishop-Harmon Tissue Forceps

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2
Q

This monofilament, non-absorbable suture is commonly used to place skin sutures

A

Nylon

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3
Q

This suture is rarely used due to the severe inflammatory reaction it can cause

A

Catgut

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4
Q

This type of monofilament suture has many uses including closure of enterotoimies, cystotomies, & many other “-otomies”

A

Polydioxanone

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5
Q

This frequently used antiseptic skin prep has borad spectirum activity but should never be applied toopen skin or mucosa

A

Isopropyl alcohol

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6
Q

This “Jekyll & Hyde” retractor has a blunt & a forked end for increasing its utility

A

Senn Retractor

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7
Q

Because of rapid loss in tensil strength, this suture type should not be used for slower healing tissues

A

Polyglycolic acid or Polyglactin 910

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8
Q

This antibiotic can be added to a suture coating to help prevent bacterial growth in a surgical wound

A

Triclosan

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9
Q

This surgical prep has residual activity lasting hours beyond the actual contact time

A

Chlorhexidine

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10
Q

This group of surgical scrubs has a broad spectrum of activity but is deactivated in the presence of organic material.

A

Iodophors

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11
Q

This concentration of chlorhexidine solution is appropriate for preputial flushes & cleaning open wounds

A

0.05%

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12
Q

This hemostat has multiple uses including occlusion of small vessels & securing stay sutures

A

Mosquito hemostats

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13
Q

Self-inflicted injuries can occur when using this insturment to drive Steinman pins

A

Jacob’s chuck

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14
Q

These are commonly used by novice surgeons as instuments but should be kept out of the surgical field if possible

A

HANDS!!

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15
Q

This instrument comes in various shapes & sizes and is used to remove small bits of bone from the surgical field

A

A Rongeur

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16
Q

This self-retinaing retractor is used to keep the abdominal wall open during a laparotomy

A

Balfour Retractor

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17
Q

This retractor is great at retracting the bisceps femoris & vastus lateralis but watch out to not puncture the sciatic nerve!

A

Gelpi Retractor

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18
Q

This type of needle driver can also cut suture

A

Olsen Hagar

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19
Q

These suture properties are ideal for use in infected tissues

A

Absorbable & Monofilament

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20
Q

This refers to a suture’s ability to resist deformation of breakage

A

Tensile stregth

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21
Q

Cutting suture with this scissor type is a HUGE no-no

A

Mayo Scissors

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22
Q

What fracture configuration is ideal for the use of cerclage wire?

A

Long Oblique

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23
Q

How far apart from the fracture ends should cerclage wires be placed?

A

0.5 cm

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24
Q

Name the cerclage wiring technique used on short oblique fractures in conjunction with a K-wire

A

Skewer Pin

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25
Q

Which fixation technique would be ideal for treatment for an avulsion fracture?

A

Tension band

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26
Q

What two types of Salter Harris fractures might go undiagnosed on initial radiographs?

A

Type 1 and Type 5

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27
Q

What type of fixation would be best for treatment of a Grade 3A open fracture?

A

External Skeletal fixation

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28
Q

What determines bend strength of a screw?

A

Core diameter

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29
Q

An ‘incomplete’ fracture is known as what?

A

A Greenstick fracture

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30
Q

Name three ways to increase the rigidity of an external skeletal fixator construct

A

A. frame type (1-3)

B. double bar

C. interconnecting bars

D. Reduce bone-connecting bar distance

E. Pin distribution: pins close to ends of bone & fracture are most stable

F. Increased number of pins

G. Larger Diameter of pins & connecting bar

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31
Q

Name the condition that can occur when a yoing animal’s comminuted femoral fracture is treated with rigid immobilization for an extended period of time.

A

Quadriceps contracture

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32
Q

Of the four A’s that are evaluated in post-op fracture repair radiography, which term relates to the positioning of the joints?

A

Alignment

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33
Q

In biomechanics, what is the term for th epoint at which material transitions from elastic to plastic deformation?

A

Yield point

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34
Q

What does MIPO stand for?

A

Minimally Invasice Plate Osteosynthesis

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35
Q

What is the most common complication associated with ESF?

A

Pin tract morbidity, drainage, infection.

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36
Q

What percentage of the medullary canal should be filled by a Steinmann pin if it is the primary means of fixation?

A

70%

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37
Q

What fixation methods (2) cannot be used in the radius?

A

Interlocking nail & Intramedullary Pin

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38
Q

When placing cerclage wires, how should they be positioned in reference to the long axis of the bone?

A

Perpendicular.

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39
Q

Which of the following are Non-crushing tissue forceps?

A. Doyen Intestinal Forceps

B. Babock Tissue Forceps

C. Allis Tissue Forceps

D. Kelly Hemostatic Forceps

A

A. Doyen Intestinal Forceps

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40
Q

Which absorbable suture type has prolonged absorption and is often used in closure of the external abdominis rectus fascia?

A

Polydiaxonone (PDS)

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41
Q

Most absorbable suture types are broken down via what mechanism?

A

Hydrolysis

EXEPTION: Chonic gut is broken down via phagocytosis

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42
Q

Name three types of absorbable, monofilament, synthetic sutures

A
  1. Glycomer 631 (BIOSYN)
  2. Caprolactone (MONOSWIFT)
  3. Poliglecaprone 25 (MONOCRYL)
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43
Q

This non-absorbable, multifilament, synthetic, nylon-based suture type is ONLY used for skin sutures.

A

Polymerized Caprolactam (Vetafil Bengen)

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44
Q

This type of suture is often used in orthopedic applications (ex. closure of sternotomy) and has a high nickel & chromium content.

A

Stainless steel suture

45
Q

What is the ideal sutture type for all surgical procedures?

A

Trick question!! There isn’t a ‘one-size fits all’ suture type.

46
Q

Smaller suture size has higher or lower tensile strength?

A

Less tensile strength

47
Q

Why are some braided suture materials coated?

A

To decrease drag (friction) through tissue.

48
Q

T/F: Smooth suture is less traumatic to tissues but has less knot security.

A

True

49
Q

What does the capillarity of a surture material refer to?

A

Capillarity is the process by which fluid & bacteria are wicked along multifilament fibers.

Hence, multifilament sutures should not be used in contaminated/infected tissues due to increases persistence of infection.

50
Q

This is a measure of a tissue or fibers ability to resist deformation or breakage.

A

Tensile Strength

Sutures should be as strong as the tissue in which they are being placed

51
Q

The needle type & size for placing sutures is based on what two things?

A

The tissue being sutured & the depth of the wound being sutured.

52
Q

What are the 5 needle shapes?

A
  1. Half circle (most commonly used)
  2. 3/8 circle (more easily manipulated through superficial tissues)
  3. 1/4 circle (ophthalmic procedures)
  4. 5/8 circle (confined locations or deep tissues)
  5. Straight
53
Q

What are the 6 types of needle points?

A

1. Taperpoint

2. Tapercut

3. Cutting

4. Reverse cutting

5. Spatula point

6. Blunt point

54
Q

This type of needle point is used in ophthalmic procedures.

A

Spatula point

55
Q

This nedle ponit has a sharp tip hat pierces & spreads tissue without cutting. Common tissues it is used in include the intestine, subcutaneous tissue and fascia.

A

Taperpoint

56
Q

Describe the fracure below: 2 year old MN, DSH

A

Closed; Right Radius & Ulna; Transverse, comminuted; mild lateral displacement.

57
Q

Describe the fracture below: 5 month old, M, mixed breed K9

A

Closed, left tibial, avulsion fracure of the tibial tuberocity, proximal displacement

58
Q

What fixation method is recommended for the fracture depicted in the radiograph?

A

Tension Band

59
Q

Decribe the fracture: 8 month old, FS Labrador Retriever

A

Closed; Salter Harris Type 4 of the right humerus; affecting the lateral aspect of the condyle; proximal & lateral displacement

60
Q

Why would external coaptation not be recommended for the type of fracture depicted in the radiograph below?

A

Because it is an articular fracture (occuring through a joint) and displacement is not severe;

This fracture needs good anatomical reduction.

61
Q

Describe the fracture: 8 month old, MC, Yorkshire Terrier

A

Closed; Transverse, left distal radius and ulna; proximal displacement

62
Q

T/F: Distal antebrachial fractures, common in small, toy breed dogs, can often be appropriately fixed with casting.

A

False.

Distal radial/ulnar fractures in small breed dogs have higher incidence of complications (e.g. delayed healing time), hence these patients should be recommended for surgical rigid fixation.

63
Q

Fun Fact: The pineapple in not an apple nor a pine. What is it?

A

A large berry.

64
Q

T/F: Proper technique for performing a temporary tracheostomy includes strict asepsis, general anesthesia and a ventral midline appraoch?

A

True.

The “hack & slash” approach is RARELY (if ever) indicated.

65
Q

T/F: Tracheostomy tube size correlates well with endotracheal tube size.

A

False.

66
Q

T/F: Tubes used for temporary tracheostomy can be ‘homemade’ from standard endotracheal tubes.

A

True.

67
Q

When placing a temporary tracheosomy tube, transverse interannular incision should be made between tracheal rings and should be not more than % of tracheal circumference.

A

Either 3rd & 4th or 4th & 5th tracheal rings; 50%

68
Q

Temporary trachostomy tubes are secured using sutures or umbilical tape?

A

Umbilical tape

69
Q

How often should a temporary tracheotomy tube be replaced?

A

Every 24 hours

70
Q

Temorary tracheostomy tube placement procudures have a complication rate of ~50%. What are some possible complications associated with this procedure.

A

A. Tube occlusion

B. Pneumomediastinum

C. Infection

D. Coughing, gagging, vomiting

E. Aspiration pneumonia (nosocomical infections)

F. Vagally mediated bradycardia & collapse

71
Q

When should a temporary tracheostomy tube be removed?

A

When a patent airway has returned.

Note: They can be removed to challange a patient.

72
Q

Upon removal of temporary trachostomy tubes, how is the surgical wound closed?

A

Second intention

BONUS Question: Why wouldn’t we want to suture the surgical incision?

73
Q

When are thoracostomy tubes indicated?

A

For treatmetn of pleual space disease & continued post-op drainage (i.e. Pneumothorax, pyothorax, hemothorax, etc.)

74
Q

T/F: Thoracotomy tube placement is a sterile procedure.

A

True

75
Q

In treatment for pneumothorax, would you want to place a wider or smaller thoracotomy tube?

A

Smaller.

Wider tubes are for suppurative effusions

76
Q

What are teh anatomical landmarks for pre-measuring a thoracotmoy tube?

A

Start: dorsal 1/3rd of the thoracic wall at 7th-9th ICS

End: ~ point fo the elbow

77
Q

Review the procedure of how to place the thoracotomy tube.

A

HINT: there are two ways it can be done.

Don’t skip this card!

78
Q

How are thoracotomy tubes secured?

A

Purse string & finger trap suture pattern

79
Q

How is appropriate placement of a thoracotomy tube confirmed?

A

Radiography

80
Q

T/F: Minor repositioning of throacotomy tubes directly after placement are okay. The tube can be slightly withdrawn, but cannot be advanced.

A

True

81
Q

Where should thoracotomy tubes enter the thoracic cavity?

A

Between the 7th and 9th ICS

82
Q

When is removal of a thoracotomy tube indicated?

A

When air/fluid accumulation has substantially decreased.

Air: absence of pneumothorax for 12-24 horus

Fluid: production = 2mLs/kg/day

83
Q

What are some causes of pericardial effusion?

A

Neoplasia, Idiopathic, Infectous pericarditis, Coagulation disorders, trauma, congestive heart failure, etc.

84
Q

What is cardiac tamponade?

A

When intarpericardial pressure > end diastolic pressure → limited RV filling + increased systemic venous return + decreased cardiac output

(i.e. the heart can’t pump)

85
Q

This term is used to describe an exaggerated fall in arterial pressure w/inspiration due to decreased left sided heart filling.

A

Pulsus paradoxus

Pulses feel weak/absent on inspiration.

86
Q

Where should the catheter be placed when performing pericardialcentesis?

A

Right, 5th-6th ICS

87
Q

Why is ECG monitoring important when performing pericardialcentesis?

A

To monitor for arrythmias/VPCs, in the case that you may penetrate the heart muscle.

88
Q

Which surgical approach is often used for routine elective castration?

A

Pre-scrotal

89
Q

The closed castration in male dogs uses a 3-clamp technique and a double ligated pedicle. What two knots are used in this technique?

A

1st: Miller’s Knot
2nd: Transfixing knot

90
Q

Most K9 neuters use what size suture to ligate pedicles?

A

2-0, absorbable, monofilament

91
Q

T/F: When performing a K9 neuter with a pre-scrotal approach, each testicle is removed from a separate incision.

A

False. Both testicles are moved from the same incision.

92
Q

With this canine castration apprach, you are technically entering the abdominal cavity.

A

open castration

Remember: With open castration, each component of the spermatic cord is ligated separately. Do you remember the anatomy of the spermatic cord?

93
Q

What kind of post-op care is required after castration?

A

Exercise restriction, E-collar, and pain medication

94
Q

What three ligation techniques can be used in male feline castrations?

A
  1. Hemostat ligation
  2. square knot (open castrations)
  3. circumferential ligature
95
Q

How are male feline castrations closed?

A

Second intention

96
Q

What are four complications of castration?

A
  1. Scrotal bruising or hematoma
  2. Hemorrhage (due to inadequate ligation)
  3. Infection
  4. Dehiscence
97
Q

This type of bandage aids in would debridement, acting as an adherent dressing. It is indicated for highly exudative wounds, degloving injuries, bite wounds & lacerations.

A

Dry-to-Dry dressings

98
Q

What is the antiseptic commonly used in dry-to-dry dressings?

A

Polyhexamethylene biguanide

99
Q

Wet-to-dry dressings function to liquefy viscous exudate and are thus indicated for what types of wounds?

A

Wounds with necrotic tissue &/or foreign bodies; those with highly viscous exudates

100
Q

What is bacterial strike through?

A

When a bandage soaks through, allowing bacterial to move in & out of the bandage

101
Q

What are 3 disadvantages of adherent dressings?

A
  1. Bacteria flourish in moist environments
  2. Wet dressings can cause maceration of surrounding skin
  3. Bacterial strike through
102
Q

What is the purpose of non-adherent dressings?

A

Protect granulation tissue & migrating epithelium

103
Q

Equine Amnion dressings are indicated for wounds in what stage of healing?

A

These are biological dressings & are indicateed for early stages of wound healing.

104
Q

This type of biological dressing acts to reinforce wound tissue & is absorbed by the body as it is replaced with host tissue. It contains various types of collagen, hyaluronic acid, chondroitin sulphate, heparin sulphate and growth factors.

HINT: It is derived from pigs.

A

Porcine Smal Intestinal Submucosa (PSIS)

105
Q

T/F: Both standing and recumbent palpation are necessary in the orthopedic exam.

A

True.

106
Q

T/F: The affect limb should be examined first when performing an orthopedic exam.

A

False. The affected limb should be evaluated last!

107
Q

T/F: During a lameness evaluation, a whole body radiograph should be taken to aid in identifying the affected limb.

A

False. The affected limb should be isolated before radiographs are taken.

108
Q

Describe the “head bob” seen during gait analysis.

A

“Down on the Sound”

The head will go down when weight is applied to the sound limb.

109
Q

What is the difference between a gait abnormality and lameness?

A

Lameness is associated with pain, while gait abnormalities are not.

SASx Laboratory Quiz Review (9 decks)

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