Lab Quiz Review Flashcards
1
Q
These are small, specialized tissue froceps used in ophthalmic surgery.
A
Bishop-Harmon Tissue Forceps
2
Q
This monofilament, non-absorbable suture is commonly used to place skin sutures
A
Nylon
3
Q
This suture is rarely used due to the severe inflammatory reaction it can cause
A
Catgut
4
Q
This type of monofilament suture has many uses including closure of enterotoimies, cystotomies, & many other “-otomies”
A
Polydioxanone
5
Q
This frequently used antiseptic skin prep has borad spectirum activity but should never be applied toopen skin or mucosa
A
Isopropyl alcohol
6
Q
This “Jekyll & Hyde” retractor has a blunt & a forked end for increasing its utility
A
Senn Retractor
7
Q
Because of rapid loss in tensil strength, this suture type should not be used for slower healing tissues
A
Polyglycolic acid or Polyglactin 910
8
Q
This antibiotic can be added to a suture coating to help prevent bacterial growth in a surgical wound
A
Triclosan
9
Q
This surgical prep has residual activity lasting hours beyond the actual contact time
A
Chlorhexidine
10
Q
This group of surgical scrubs has a broad spectrum of activity but is deactivated in the presence of organic material.
A
Iodophors
11
Q
This concentration of chlorhexidine solution is appropriate for preputial flushes & cleaning open wounds
A
0.05%
12
Q
This hemostat has multiple uses including occlusion of small vessels & securing stay sutures
A
Mosquito hemostats
13
Q
Self-inflicted injuries can occur when using this insturment to drive Steinman pins
A
Jacob’s chuck
14
Q
These are commonly used by novice surgeons as instuments but should be kept out of the surgical field if possible
A
HANDS!!
15
Q
This instrument comes in various shapes & sizes and is used to remove small bits of bone from the surgical field
A
A Rongeur
16
Q
This self-retinaing retractor is used to keep the abdominal wall open during a laparotomy
A
Balfour Retractor
17
Q
This retractor is great at retracting the bisceps femoris & vastus lateralis but watch out to not puncture the sciatic nerve!
A
Gelpi Retractor
18
Q
This type of needle driver can also cut suture
A
Olsen Hagar
19
Q
These suture properties are ideal for use in infected tissues
A
Absorbable & Monofilament
20
Q
This refers to a suture’s ability to resist deformation of breakage
A
Tensile stregth
21
Q
Cutting suture with this scissor type is a HUGE no-no
A
Mayo Scissors
22
Q
What fracture configuration is ideal for the use of cerclage wire?
A
Long Oblique
23
Q
How far apart from the fracture ends should cerclage wires be placed?
A
0.5 cm
24
Q
Name the cerclage wiring technique used on short oblique fractures in conjunction with a K-wire
A
Skewer Pin
25
Which fixation technique would be ideal for treatment for an avulsion fracture?
Tension band
26
What two types of Salter Harris fractures might go undiagnosed on initial radiographs?
Type 1 and Type 5
27
What type of fixation would be best for treatment of a Grade 3A open fracture?
External Skeletal fixation
28
What determines bend strength of a screw?
Core diameter
29
An 'incomplete' fracture is known as what?
A Greenstick fracture
30
Name three ways to increase the rigidity of an external skeletal fixator construct
A. frame type (1-3)
B. double bar
C. interconnecting bars
D. Reduce bone-connecting bar distance
E. Pin distribution: pins close to ends of bone & fracture are most stable
F. Increased number of pins
G. Larger Diameter of pins & connecting bar
31
Name the condition that can occur when a yoing animal's comminuted femoral fracture is treated with rigid immobilization for an extended period of time.
Quadriceps contracture
32
Of the four A's that are evaluated in post-op fracture repair radiography, which term relates to the positioning of the joints?
Alignment
33
In biomechanics, what is the term for th epoint at which material transitions from elastic to plastic deformation?
Yield point
34
What does MIPO stand for?
Minimally Invasice Plate Osteosynthesis
35
What is the most common complication associated with ESF?
Pin tract morbidity, drainage, infection.
36
What percentage of the medullary canal should be filled by a Steinmann pin if it is the primary means of fixation?
70%
37
What fixation methods (2) cannot be used in the radius?
Interlocking nail & Intramedullary Pin
38
When placing cerclage wires, how should they be positioned in reference to the long axis of the bone?
Perpendicular.
39
Which of the following are Non-crushing tissue forceps?
## Footnote
A. Doyen Intestinal Forceps
B. Babock Tissue Forceps
C. Allis Tissue Forceps
D. Kelly Hemostatic Forceps
A. Doyen Intestinal Forceps
40
Which absorbable suture type has prolonged absorption and is often used in closure of the external abdominis rectus fascia?
Polydiaxonone (PDS)
41
Most absorbable suture types are broken down via what mechanism?
Hydrolysis
EXEPTION: Chonic gut is broken down via phagocytosis
42
Name three types of absorbable, monofilament, synthetic sutures
1. Glycomer 631 (BIOSYN)
2. Caprolactone (MONOSWIFT)
3. Poliglecaprone 25 (MONOCRYL)
43
This non-absorbable, multifilament, synthetic, nylon-based suture type is ONLY used for skin sutures.
Polymerized Caprolactam (Vetafil Bengen)
44
This type of suture is often used in orthopedic applications (ex. closure of sternotomy) and has a high nickel & chromium content.
Stainless steel suture
45
What is the ideal sutture type for all surgical procedures?
Trick question!! There isn't a 'one-size fits all' suture type.
46
Smaller suture size has higher or lower tensile strength?
Less tensile strength
47
Why are some braided suture materials coated?
To decrease drag (friction) through tissue.
48
T/F: Smooth suture is less traumatic to tissues but has less knot security.
True
49
What does the capillarity of a surture material refer to?
Capillarity is the process by which fluid & bacteria are wicked along multifilament fibers.
Hence, multifilament sutures should not be used in contaminated/infected tissues due to increases persistence of infection.
50
This is a measure of a tissue or fibers ability to resist deformation or breakage.
Tensile Strength
*Sutures should be as strong as the tissue in which they are being placed*
51
The needle type & size for placing sutures is based on what two things?
The tissue being sutured & the depth of the wound being sutured.
52
What are the 5 needle shapes?
1. **Half circle** (most commonly used)
2. **3/8 circle** (more easily manipulated through superficial tissues)
3. **1/4 circle** (ophthalmic procedures)
4. **5/8 circle** (confined locations or deep tissues)
5. **Straight**
53
What are the 6 types of needle points?
**1. Taperpoint**
**2. Tapercut**
**3. Cutting**
**4. Reverse cutting**
**5. Spatula point**
**6. Blunt point**
54
This type of needle point is used in ophthalmic procedures.
Spatula point
55
This nedle ponit has a sharp tip hat pierces & spreads tissue without cutting. Common tissues it is used in include the intestine, subcutaneous tissue and fascia.
Taperpoint
56
Describe the fracure below: 2 year old MN, DSH
Closed; Right Radius & Ulna; Transverse, comminuted; mild lateral displacement.
57
Describe the fracture below: 5 month old, M, mixed breed K9
Closed, left tibial, avulsion fracure of the tibial tuberocity, proximal displacement
58
What fixation method is recommended for the fracture depicted in the radiograph?
Tension Band
59
Decribe the fracture: 8 month old, FS Labrador Retriever
Closed; Salter Harris Type 4 of the right humerus; affecting the lateral aspect of the condyle; proximal & lateral displacement
60
Why would external coaptation not be recommended for the type of fracture depicted in the radiograph below?
Because it is an articular fracture (occuring through a joint) and displacement is not severe;
This fracture needs good anatomical reduction.
61
Describe the fracture: 8 month old, MC, Yorkshire Terrier
Closed; Transverse, left distal radius and ulna; proximal displacement
62
T/F: Distal antebrachial fractures, common in small, toy breed dogs, can often be appropriately fixed with casting.
**False.**
Distal radial/ulnar fractures in small breed dogs have higher incidence of complications (e.g. delayed healing time), hence these patients should be recommended for surgical rigid fixation.
63
Fun Fact: The pineapple in not an apple nor a pine. What is it?
A large berry.
64
T/F: Proper technique for performing a temporary tracheostomy includes strict asepsis, general anesthesia and a ventral midline appraoch?
True.
The "hack & slash" approach is RARELY (if ever) indicated.
65
T/F: Tracheostomy tube size correlates well with endotracheal tube size.
False.
66
T/F: Tubes used for temporary tracheostomy can be 'homemade' from standard endotracheal tubes.
True.
67
When placing a temporary tracheosomy tube, transverse interannular incision should be made between tracheal rings and should be not more than _%_ of tracheal circumference.
Either 3rd & 4th or 4th & 5th tracheal rings; 50%
68
Temporary trachostomy tubes are secured using sutures or umbilical tape?
Umbilical tape
69
How often should a temporary tracheotomy tube be replaced?
Every 24 hours
70
Temorary tracheostomy tube placement procudures have a complication rate of ~50%. What are some possible complications associated with this procedure.
A. Tube occlusion
B. Pneumomediastinum
C. Infection
D. Coughing, gagging, vomiting
E. Aspiration pneumonia (nosocomical infections)
F. Vagally mediated bradycardia & collapse
71
When should a temporary tracheostomy tube be removed?
When a patent airway has returned.
Note: They can be removed to challange a patient.
72
Upon removal of temporary trachostomy tubes, how is the surgical wound closed?
Second intention
BONUS Question: Why wouldn't we want to suture the surgical incision?
73
When are thoracostomy tubes indicated?
For treatmetn of pleual space disease & continued post-op drainage (i.e. Pneumothorax, pyothorax, hemothorax, etc.)
74
T/F: Thoracotomy tube placement is a sterile procedure.
True
75
In treatment for pneumothorax, would you want to place a wider or smaller thoracotomy tube?
Smaller.
Wider tubes are for suppurative effusions
76
What are teh anatomical landmarks for pre-measuring a thoracotmoy tube?
Start: dorsal 1/3rd of the thoracic wall at 7th-9th ICS
End: ~ point fo the elbow
77
Review the procedure of how to place the thoracotomy tube.
HINT: there are two ways it can be done.
Don't skip this card!
78
How are thoracotomy tubes secured?
Purse string & finger trap suture pattern
79
How is appropriate placement of a thoracotomy tube confirmed?
Radiography
80
T/F: Minor repositioning of throacotomy tubes directly after placement are okay. The tube can be slightly withdrawn, but cannot be advanced.
True
81
Where should thoracotomy tubes enter the thoracic cavity?
Between the 7th and 9th ICS
82
When is removal of a thoracotomy tube indicated?
When air/fluid accumulation has substantially decreased.
Air: absence of pneumothorax for 12-24 horus
Fluid: production = 2mLs/kg/day
83
What are some causes of pericardial effusion?
Neoplasia, Idiopathic, Infectous pericarditis, Coagulation disorders, trauma, congestive heart failure, etc.
84
What is cardiac tamponade?
When intarpericardial pressure \> end diastolic pressure → limited RV filling + increased systemic venous return + decreased cardiac output
(i.e. the heart can't pump)
85
This term is used to describe an exaggerated fall in arterial pressure w/inspiration due to decreased left sided heart filling.
**Pulsus paradoxus**
Pulses feel weak/absent on inspiration.
86
Where should the catheter be placed when performing pericardialcentesis?
Right, 5th-6th ICS
87
Why is ECG monitoring important when performing pericardialcentesis?
To monitor for arrythmias/VPCs, in the case that you may penetrate the heart muscle.
88
Which surgical approach is often used for routine elective castration?
Pre-scrotal
89
The closed castration in male dogs uses a 3-clamp technique and a double ligated pedicle. What two knots are used in this technique?
1st: Miller's Knot
2nd: Transfixing knot
90
Most K9 neuters use what size suture to ligate pedicles?
**2-0**, absorbable, monofilament
91
T/F: When performing a K9 neuter with a pre-scrotal approach, each testicle is removed from a separate incision.
False. Both testicles are moved from the same incision.
92
With this canine castration apprach, you are technically entering the abdominal cavity.
open castration
Remember: With open castration, each component of the spermatic cord is ligated separately. Do you remember the anatomy of the spermatic cord?
93
What kind of post-op care is required after castration?
Exercise restriction, E-collar, and pain medication
94
What three ligation techniques can be used in male feline castrations?
1. Hemostat ligation
2. square knot (open castrations)
3. circumferential ligature
95
How are male feline castrations closed?
Second intention
96
What are four complications of castration?
1. Scrotal bruising or hematoma
2. Hemorrhage (due to inadequate ligation)
3. Infection
4. Dehiscence
97
This type of bandage aids in would debridement, acting as an adherent dressing. It is indicated for highly exudative wounds, degloving injuries, bite wounds & lacerations.
Dry-to-Dry dressings
98
What is the antiseptic commonly used in dry-to-dry dressings?
Polyhexamethylene biguanide
99
Wet-to-dry dressings function to liquefy viscous exudate and are thus indicated for what types of wounds?
Wounds with necrotic tissue &/or foreign bodies; those with highly viscous exudates
100
What is bacterial strike through?
When a bandage soaks through, allowing bacterial to move in & out of the bandage
101
What are 3 disadvantages of adherent dressings?
1. Bacteria flourish in moist environments
2. Wet dressings can cause maceration of surrounding skin
3. Bacterial strike through
102
What is the purpose of non-adherent dressings?
Protect granulation tissue & migrating epithelium
103
Equine Amnion dressings are indicated for wounds in what stage of healing?
These are biological dressings & are indicateed for early stages of wound healing.
104
This type of biological dressing acts to reinforce wound tissue & is absorbed by the body as it is replaced with host tissue. It contains various types of collagen, hyaluronic acid, chondroitin sulphate, heparin sulphate and growth factors.
HINT: It is derived from pigs.
Porcine Smal Intestinal Submucosa (PSIS)
105
T/F: Both standing and recumbent palpation are necessary in the orthopedic exam.
True.
106
T/F: The affect limb should be examined first when performing an orthopedic exam.
False. The affected limb should be evaluated last!
107
T/F: During a lameness evaluation, a whole body radiograph should be taken to aid in identifying the affected limb.
False. The affected limb should be isolated before radiographs are taken.
108
Describe the "head bob" seen during gait analysis.
"Down on the Sound"
The head will go down when weight is applied to the sound limb.
109
What is the difference between a gait abnormality and lameness?
Lameness is associated with pain, while gait abnormalities are not.
