Lab Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Cataracts

A

Increased opacity of the lens

One of the most common eye disorders

Cloudy pupils indicate cataracts

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2
Q

Hyperopia

A

Farsightedness

Rays of light enter the eye and focus behind the retina

People are able to see distant objects but not close ones

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3
Q

Myopia

A

Nearsightedness

Rays of light enter the eye and focus in front of the retina

People are able to see close objects but not distant objects

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4
Q

Strabismus

A

Condition in which both eyes do not focus on an object simultaneously

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5
Q

Glaucoma

A

Increased intraocular pressure

Obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor causes this

With out treatment this leads to blindness

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6
Q

Retinopathy

A

Non inflammatory eye disorder resulting from changes in retinal blood vessels

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7
Q

Presbyopia

A

Impaired near vision in middle age and older adults

Caused by loss of elasticity of the lens

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8
Q

Normal size of the pupil

A

3 to 7 mm in diameter

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9
Q

How to test pupillary reflexes (light and accommodation)

A

Ask the patient to look straight ahead bring the penlight from the side of his or her face directing the light into their pupil. It should constrict and the opposite pupil constrict con sensually

Accommodation the patient gazes at a distant object (far wall) and then at a test object (finger or pencil) held 4 inches from the bridge of their nose the pupils should converge and accommodate by constricting when looking at close objects

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10
Q

PERRLA

Use if assessment of pupillary reaction is normal in all test

A

Pupils equal, round, reactive to light, and accommodation

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11
Q

Normal responses that determine a patients level of consciousness

A

Responds to questions quickly and expresses ideas logically

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12
Q

Glasgows coma scale

A

Use when a patient has a lower consciousness. Check to see if the patient has any sensory losses before starting. The higher the score the better the persons neurological function.

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13
Q

Delirium

A

Is an acute mental disorder that occurs among hospitalized patients most often presents itself within the first 48 to 72 hours of hospital admission. Characterized by Confusion disorientation and restlessness. Often labeled with “sundown syndrome” because patients get worse at night. Condition often reverses when it’s correctly assessed and treated.

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14
Q

Jaundice

A

Increased deposits of bilirubin in tissues

Yellow orange discoloration

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15
Q

Erythema

A

Red discoloration can indicate circulatory changes

Often accompanies an increase in temp

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16
Q

Pallor

A

Decrease in color of skin. Often accompanies a decrease in skin temp and reflects a decrease in blood flow

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17
Q

You can identify stage one of a pressure ulcer by?

A

Noting warmth over an area of erythema

18
Q

Turgor

A

Degree of elasticity of skin

19
Q

What do edema and dehydration do to turgor?

A

Diminishes turgor. Skin stays pinched and shows tenting. The person with poor skin turgor does not have resilience to normal wear and tear. Which predisposes the patient to skin breakdown

20
Q

Petechiae

A

Non blanching pin point size red or purple spots on skin caused by small hemorrhages in the skin layers.

21
Q

Edema

A

Area of skin becomes swollen or edematous from a build up of fluid in the tissues. Skin appears stretched and shiny

22
Q

Pitting edema

A

When pressure from an examiners fingers leaves an indentation in the edematous area.

23
Q

Skin lesions

A

Refers broadly to any unusual findings of the skins surface

24
Q

Papule

A

Circumscribed solid elevation in skin

25
Q

Atrophy

A

Thinning of skin with loss of normal skin furrow appears shiny and translucent

26
Q

Cyanosis

A

A slightly bluish or grayish discoloration in skin

27
Q

Vesicle

A

Circumscribed elevation of skin filled with serous fluid

28
Q

Pustule

A

Circumscribed elevation of skin similar to Vesicle but filled with pus

29
Q

Macule

A

Flat non palpable change in skin color smaller than 1 cm

Freckle Petechiae

30
Q

What location should the nurse use to listen for clients apical pulse?

A

The fifth intercostal at left midclaviular line

31
Q

The second heart sound (s2) occurs when?

A

The aortic and pulmonic valves close

32
Q

The first heart sound (s1) is heard when?

A

There is rapid ventricular filling

33
Q

Macular degeneration

A

Blurred central vision caused by progressive degeneration of the center of the retina

Most common vision impairment of individuals over 50. Most common cause of blindness in older adults there is no cure

34
Q

Stage 4 pressure ulcer

A

Ulcer is full thickness tissue loss with exposed bone tendon or muscle. Slough or Eschar may be present. It often includes undermining and tunneling

35
Q

Stage 3 pressure ulcer

A

Full thickness skin loss (fat visible) ulcer is full thickness tissue loss subcutaneous fat may be visible but bone or tendon or muscle are not visible. Some slough may be present

36
Q

Stage 2 pressure ulcer

A

Partial thickness skin loss or blister. Partial thickness loss of dermis presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red pink wound bed without slough. It may also present as intact or open ruptured serum filled or serosangineous filled blister. Presents shiny or dry shallow ulcer with out slough or bruising

37
Q

Stage 1 pressure ulcer

A

Intact skin presents with non blanchable erythema of localized area discoloration of the skin warmth edema hardness or pain may be present. May be difficult to detect in patients with darker skin tones

38
Q

Braden scale

A

Is a valid tool used for pressure ulcer risk assessment. Lower total score indicates a higher risk for pressure ulcer development

39
Q

When assessing pulse strength 2+

A

Expected normal

40
Q

Capillary refill is normal if less than

A

2 seconds