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Bio 101 Practical II > LAB PRACTICAL > Flashcards

LAB PRACTICAL Flashcards

1
Q

What are the reactants of photosynthesis?

A

6H2O + 6CO2

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2
Q

What are the products of photosynthesis?

A

C6H12O6 + 6O2 (byproduct)

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3
Q

What is the energy source for photosynthesis?

A

Sun light

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4
Q

Light is the result of a(n) ______ traveling in the pattern of a(n) _______.

A

Photons, wavelength

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5
Q

Where in the chloroplast does the light INDEPENDENT reaction occur?

A

Stroma

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6
Q

Where in the chloroplast does the light DEPENDENT reaction occur?

A

Thylakoids

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7
Q

What is the biological function of a stomata?

A

Allows for gas exchange

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8
Q

Why did chlorophyll A move the least amount along the chromatography paper?

A

Because it had a higher molecular weight

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9
Q

What is the function of the cuticle (waxy layer that surrounds leaf)?

A

Protects the leaf

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10
Q

PICTURE IDENTIFY THE PORTION OF THE MODEL WHERE MESOPHYLL CELL (PALISADE)

A

Mesophyll Cell — Palisade

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11
Q

What is the primary pigment used by photosynthesis?

A

Chlorophyll A

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12
Q

What is the ecological role of photosynthesis?

A

To convert light energy into chemical energy (food)

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13
Q

What is the purpose of phenol red pH indicator used to detect the presence of CO2 in water?

A

CO2 combined with water forms carbonic acid - phenol red turns yellow in an acidic solution and red in a basic solution - so when plants take up the CO2, the solution becomes more basic.

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14
Q

What is the net photosynthetic equation?

A

6 CO2 + 6 H2O —> C6H12O6 + 6 O2

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15
Q

What (supposedly) happened to CO2 levels in the containers full of germinated beans?

A

CO2 is a product that was released and is supposed to be reused in cellular respiration.

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16
Q

What molecule is the chief product of cellular respiration?

A

ATP

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17
Q

What is the cellular respiration equation?

A

C6H12O6 + 6O2 —> 6 H2O + 6 CO2 —- the breakdown of glucose to form ATP

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18
Q

Define Aerobic Respiration

A

the breakdown of glucose using O2 to form ATP by the 3 pathways of glycolysis, krebs cycle, and electron transport chain

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19
Q

What organic molecule is being split during the process of glycolysis?

A

Glucose

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20
Q

What element is known as the final hydrogen/electron acceptor?

A

O2

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21
Q

Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?

A

Cytoplasm

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22
Q

PICTURE************** Name the internal portion of the structure labled A.

A

Matrix

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23
Q

What occurs within the matrix of the mitochondria?

A

The Krebs Cycle

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24
Q

What is the name of the fold of the membrane within the mitochondria?

A

Cristae

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25
Q

What occurs along the cristae of the mitochondria?

A

Electron Transport Chain

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26
Q

PICTURE***************** What is the name of the entire structure?

A

Mitochondria

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27
Q

What are the substrates for cellular respiration?

A

C6H12O6 (glucose) + 6O2 (molecular oxygen)

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28
Q

What are the products of cellular respiration?

A

6H2O (water) + 6CO2 (carbon dioxide)

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29
Q

Where do the substrates for cellular respiration come from?

A

It can come from food which is made by autotrophs by taking in light energy (sun) then having photosynthesis occur which then produces glucose.

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30
Q

What molecule is being broken down to produce CO2 during fermentation?

A

Glucose

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31
Q

Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?

A

Cytoplasm

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32
Q

Where in the cell does the krebs cycle occur?

A

the matrix of the mitochondria

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33
Q

Where in the cell does the electron transport chain occur?

A

Along the cristae of the mitochondria

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34
Q

If you are in a sealed room, what would you think will happen with the O2 concentrations in the room over time?

A

The O2 will decrease because we (humans) breathe it in and use it for our bodies.

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35
Q

If you are in a sealed room, what would you think will happen with the CO2 concentrations in the room over time?

A

The CO2 will increase because it is what we release as a waste as humans by exhaling.

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36
Q

Cellular respiration is controlled by enzymes, so if you lowered the temperature, would you expect a different rate of production? Would the difference be a lower rate or increased rate?

A

Yes, lower rate.

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37
Q

Which of the five nucleotides is found only in DNA?

A

Thymine

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38
Q

Which of the five nucleotides is only found in RNA?

A

Uracil

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39
Q

How many nucleotides can be found with both RNA and DNA?

A

3 - adenine, cytosine, guanine

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40
Q

What type of bond forms between the 2 stands of DNA?

A

Hydrogen Bond

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41
Q

What is the term for a linear piece of DNA which contains multiple genes?

A

Chromosome (they’re linear in humans)

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42
Q

Genes hold information to build what other type of molecule?

A

Protein

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43
Q

A particular codon will code for what monomer?

A

nucleotide

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44
Q

What type of RNA contains the anti-codon?

A

tRNA

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45
Q

Which type of RNA is a structural component of a ribosome?

A

rRNA

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46
Q

For the non-sense strand: AGCTTA what is the the sense strand of DNA?

A

TCGAAT

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47
Q

For the non-sense strand: AGCTTA what is the mRNA molecule?

A

UCGAAU

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48
Q

For the non-sense strand: AGCTTA what is the tRNA molecule?

A

AGCUUA

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49
Q

Define chromosome.

A

structure that contains genes

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50
Q

Define gene.

A

a stretch of a chromosome which codes for a particular protein

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51
Q

Define genome.

A

the collection of all the genes found in all of the chromosomes for a particular organism

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52
Q

Transcription results in the formation of what molecule?

A

mRNA

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53
Q

Translation results in the formation of what molecule?

A

proteins

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54
Q

For the non-sense strand of DNA: ATGCTGGACCAG what is the sense strand?

A

TAC GAC CTG GTC

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55
Q

For the non-sense strand of DNA: ATGCTGGACCAG what is the mRNA molecule?

A

UAC GAC CUG GUC

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56
Q

For the non-sense strand of DNA: ATGCTGGACCAG what is the tRNA molecule?

A

AUG CUG GAC CAG

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57
Q

What is a codon?

A

3 nucleotides which encode one amino acid

58
Q

Where would you expect to find the codons?

59
Q

What is an anti-codon?

A

the opposite code of that of the mRNA

60
Q

Where does one find rRNA?

61
Q

What was the purpose of salt to extract DNA from the strawberries?

A

to help the DNA appear and solidify

62
Q

What was the purpose of dish soap to extract DNA from strawberries?

A

Pulls apart lipids and proteins from the cells so DNA can be released

63
Q

Was there any protein found with the DNA after the DNA was extracted from the strawberries?

A

Proteins were found and indicated by a tan color

64
Q

What is the term for the exchange of genetic material between 2 homologous chromosomes?

A

Crossing Over

65
Q

What is being separated through the process of meiosis I?

A

Homologous Chromosomes

66
Q

What is being separated through the process of meiosis II?

A

Sister Chromatids

67
Q

What is the ploidy of the cells when meiosis is completed?

68
Q

What are the 3 main functions of mitosis (cell division)?

A
  1. Asexual Reproduction 2. Growth & Development 3. Repair & Cell Replacement
69
Q

Which phase of mitosis is the process of separating duplicated chromosomes into 2 single chromosomes?

70
Q

What is the name of the portion of a duplicated chromosome where the sister chromatids are attached to one another?

A

Centromere

71
Q

Which phase of interphase results in the replication of DNA?

72
Q

Three ____ and one egg are produced during oogenesis.

A

Polar Bodies

73
Q

PICTURE********* Identify the phase of mitosis in model.

74
Q

PICTURE********* Identify the SPINDLE FIBERS on the model.

75
Q

What is the main function of meiosis?

A

Create gametes

76
Q

What happens in G1 Phase of interphase (3)?

A
  1. Cell Grows 2. Produces Proteins 3. Does normal cell metabolism
77
Q

What happens in S Phase of interphase?

A

Cell replicates its DNA

78
Q

What happens in the G2 phase of interphase?

A

Proteins for cell reproduction are produced.

79
Q

At the end of meiosis, what do males produce?

A

4 Sperm Cells

80
Q

At the end of meiosis, what do females produce?

A

1 Ovum, 3 polar bodies

81
Q

What is the difference between diploid and haploid cells?

A
  1. Diploid - 2 sets of chromosomes 2. Haploid - 1 set of chromosomes
82
Q

What is the objective during meiosis I?

A

to separate the homologous chromosomes

83
Q

What is the objective during meiosis II?

A

to separate the sister chromatids

84
Q

Define crossing over.

A

the exchange of DNA

85
Q

Define homologous chromosomes

A

2 sister chromatids - chromosome pairs, each from one parent.

86
Q

Three ____ and one egg are produced during oogenesis.

A

Polar Bodies

87
Q

PICTURE********* Identify the phase of mitosis in model.

88
Q

PICTURE********* Identify the SPINDLE FIBERS on the model.

89
Q

What is the main function of meiosis?

A

Create gametes

90
Q

What happens in G1 Phase of interphase (3)?

A
  1. Cell Grows 2. Produces Proteins 3. Does normal cell metabolism
91
Q

What happens in S Phase of interphase?

A

Cell replicates its DNA

92
Q

What happens in the G2 phase of interphase?

A

Proteins for cell reproduction are produced.

93
Q

At the end of meiosis, what do males produce?

A

4 Sperm Cells

94
Q

At the end of meiosis, what do females produce?

A

1 Ovum, 3 polar bodies

95
Q

What is the difference between diploid and haploid cells?

A
  1. Diploid - 2 sets of chromosomes 2. Haploid - 1 set of chromosomes
96
Q

What is the objective during meiosis I?

A

to separate the homologous chromosomes

97
Q

What is the objective during meiosis II?

A

to separate the sister chromatids

98
Q

Define crossing over.

A

the exchange of DNA

99
Q

Define homologous chromosomes

A

2 sister chromatids - chromosome pairs, each from one parent.

100
Q

A person with a diploid genotype AA Bb can produce gametes with what potential genotypes?

101
Q

If rolling your tongue consists of a dominant trait, what type of genotype do you have if you can’t roll your tongue?

A

Homozygous Recessive

102
Q

The physical expression of one’s genes is known as their what?

103
Q

Define genotype.

A

All of the actual alleles that makes up an organisms genome.

104
Q

What is the basic unit of inheritance?

105
Q

What type of allele is only expressed if there are 2 copies present?

106
Q

Who is the father of classical genetics?

A

Gregor Mendel

107
Q

What is meant by the term homozygous dominant?

A

When an organism’s genotype has all the same alleles and the alleles are dominant, so they are expressed.

108
Q

Can 2 heterozygous individuals produce offspring which show the recessive trait?

109
Q

Draw a punnett square for Bb*Bb

A

B b B BB Bb b Bb bb

110
Q

What is the genotypic ratio for the Punnet Square of Bb*Bb?

111
Q

What is the phenotypic ratio for the Punnett square of Bb*Bb?

112
Q

Why would a male have more problems with X-Linked recessive traits than a female?

A

Males only receive 1 set of Sex Linked genes because the Y chromosome only contains info. on being male so they are more likely to have sex linked recessive disorders

113
Q

Define genotype

A

the actual alleles which make up an organisms genome

114
Q

Define phenotype

A

physical expression of the organisms genetics

115
Q

Define homozygous

A

a genotype where organisms have the same alleles for a particular gene

116
Q

Define heterozygous

A

a genotype where organisms have different alleles

117
Q

Define dominant alleles

A

alleles which express themselves if there is 1 or 2 copies of the allele

118
Q

Define recessive alleles

A

alleles which only express if there are 2 copies of the recessive allele present

119
Q

Define alleles

A

variations in genes

120
Q

Define codominance

A

when 2 alleles express themselves

121
Q

Define incomplete dominance

A

when an intermediate phenotype is the result of 2 different alleles

122
Q

What is the multi-regional hypothesis?

A

various populations of Homo erectus around the world evolved into modern humans

123
Q

What is the Out of Africa hypothesis?

A

a population of Homo erctus in Africa led to modern humans and eventually left Africa to the rest of the world

124
Q

How does mutation affect the gene pool?

A

It allows for allele frequency to change

125
Q

How does natural selection affect the gene pool?

A

individuals with the better phenotypes survive and reproduce and pass the alleles to their offspring, the frequency of these successful alleles will then increase in the gene pool

126
Q

How does non-random mating affect the gene pool?

A

If there is a mating preference for a certain combination of alleles, the frequency of alleles in a population will change.

127
Q

Define p^2

A

Frequency of the homozygous p genotype

128
Q

Define 2pq

A

Frequency of the heterozygote genotype

129
Q

Define q^2

A

Frequency of the homozygous q genotype

130
Q

Define Biological Evolution

A

The change in allele frequencies over time

131
Q

Define Genetic Equilibrium

A

When the 5 conditions of the Castle-Hardy-Weinber law are met: 1. No mutation 2. No gene flow 3. No new natural selection 4. Random mating 5. No genetic drift

132
Q

What does the Castle-Hardy-Weignber Equation describe?

A

Demonstrates allele frequencies within a population

133
Q

Name a trend in human evolution of the skull which is considered to be an advanced trait?

A

Larger brain - ancestors had smaller brains

134
Q

Define p

A

frequency of the p allele in a population

135
Q

Define q

A

Frequency of the q allele in the population

136
Q

Is it easier for dominant or recessive alleles to be selected out of the population?

137
Q

What phase of mitosis is this?

138
Q

What phase of mitosis is this?

139
Q

What phase of mitosis is this?

140
Q

What phase of mitosis is this?

141
Q

What part of cell division is this?

A

Cytokinesis - 2 daughter cells

Bio 101 Practical II (1 decks)

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