Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology M-315 > Lab Practical > Flashcards

Lab Practical Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

TSA plate

A
  • trypticase soy agar
  • supplies nutrients for many types of bacteria and fungi to grow
  • in a petri plate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

NB Tube

A
  • nutrient broth

- contains nutrients supporting growth of organisms in a liquid medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Brightfield Microscopy

A

-for stained cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Phase Microscopy

A
  • for living cells

- to examine motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Telescopic Eyepiece

A

-used to align annulus diaphragm and phase ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

NA Slant

A
  • nutrient agar slant

- agar cooled on a slant so it is an angle in the tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Streak Plate

A
  • make dot
  • fan out 5-6 lines from dot, flame loop
  • fan out 5-6 lines from ends of last lines, flame loop
  • do this two more times so you have four sets of streaks
  • used to isolate pure colonies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bacterial Morphology

A
  • rod
  • coccus
  • spiral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Coccus

A
  • staphylococcal: cocci in clusters
  • streptococcal: cocci in chains
  • tetrad: four
  • diplococcus: pairs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Types of Flagellation

A
  • polar: one at one or both ends
  • lophotrichous: tuft at one end
  • peritrichous: all around cell
  • amphitrichous: tuft at both ends
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Types of bacterial movement

A
  • true motility: random movement in all directions
  • brownian: bombarded on all sides by water molecules
  • streaming: caught in convection currents; all moving in same direction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Wet Mount

A
  • drop of water and one loopful of organism
  • use phase contrast
  • too much light means can’t see
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hanging Drop

A
  • concave slide
  • used to study motility
  • 2 loopfuls on coverglass then use vaseline to fasten to depression slide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Motility Test

A
  • semisolid media .3 or .4% vs 1.5% agar which allows motile bacteria to move through media
  • contains tetrazolium dye that turns red where there is growth
  • semisolid or SIM (sulfur indole motility) media
  • proteus displays true motility with this test
  • positive tubes have red radiating out from the stab
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Simple Staining

A
  • use of a single stain to color a bacterial cell
  • common are crystal violet, methylene blue, and basic fuchsin which are basic dyes
  • used to determine morphology of cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pleomorphism

A

-irregularity of form; demonstrating several different shapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Metachromatic Granules

A

-distinct reddish purple granules within cells that show up when stained with methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Palisade Arrangement

A

-pertains to a parallel arrangement of rod-shaped cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Negative Stain

A

-cells appear as transparent objects against a dark background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Capsular Stain

A
  • all red background see white cells in clusters
  • stain with CV for 2 minutes then wash off with aqueous solution of 20% copper sulfate and blotted dry
  • under oil immersion capsules will appear as halos around cells and cells will be dark purple
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Spore Stain

A
  • purple tapered rods
  • schaeffer-fulton method: malachite green to stain spore and safranin to stain vegetative portion
  • dorner method: produces a red spore within colorless sporangium. Nigrosin used to provide dark background for contrast
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Acid Fast Stain

A
  • red with all white background
  • important in identification of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and mycobacterium leprae
  • Kinyoun acid-fast method: modification in shich the concentrations of primary stain, basic fuchsin, and phenol are increased making it unnecessary to heat cells during staining procedure
  • increased concentrations of basic fuchsin and phenol are sufficient to allow the penetration of the stain into cells and the basic fuchsin is not removed during destaining with acid-alcohol
  • acid-fast bacteria not decolorized by acid and are stained pink to red by fuchsin
  • methylene blue is applied to see non-acid fast bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Gram Staining

A
  • differential stain
  • gram positive are purple and gram negative are red
  • primary stain: crystal violet
  • mordant: gram’s iodine
  • decolorizer: alcohol
  • counterstain: safranin
  • gram positive cells have thick wall of peptidoglycan that is what forms a complex with the iodine to trap the crystal violet in the wall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Aerobes

A
  • found at top of tube
  • respire O2
  • FTM turns red at top
  • cloudy at top in TYGA
  • bacillus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Microaerophiles

A
  • found 1/3 way down in tube
  • require less O2
  • FTM turns red a little bet below the top
  • Bubbly/cloudy little below top in TYGA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Facultative

A
  • found basically anywhere along tube
  • respire O2 if present, ferment if not
  • can’t normally tell difference between these and aerotolerant but these respire at top and ferment at bottom and facultative always ferment at bottom
  • FTM turns red at top and cloudy below where it ferments
  • Bubbly throughout, cloudy at top for TYGA
  • e. coli
  • s. aureus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Aerotolerant

A
  • ferment
  • found at bottom of tube
  • can’t normally tell difference between these and facultative but facultatives respire at top and ferment at bottom and these always ferment at bottom
  • FTM has no red but is cloudy low in tube
  • bubbly througout
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Anaerobes

A
  • ferment
  • found at bottom
  • cloudy at bottom
  • only bubbly well below surface
  • clostridium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

TYGA Shake Tube

A
  • tryptone yeast glucose agar
  • used to determine oxygen requirements for organisms
  • inoculate as a liquid, roll between hands to mix then wait for it to solidify
  • cracks happen when too much oxygen is produced
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

FTM Tubes

A
  • fluid thioglycollate media
  • used to determine oxygen requirements of organisms
  • contain resazurin that turns red where oxygen is produced
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

GasPak Jar

A
  • methylene blue strip
  • anerobic jar
  • used to prepare anaerobic organisms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Brewers Anaerobic Agar

A

-contains thioglycollate and resazurin and is plated and put in GasPak jar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Psychrophiles

A

-5-20 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Psychrotrophs

A

-mesophiles that can grow in fridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Mesophiles

A
  • 20-50 C

- most bacteria including human pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Thermophiles

A
  • 50-80 C

- soil, compost piles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hyperthermophiles

A
  • > 80 C

- hot springs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Thermodurics

A

-survive but do not grow at high temps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Pigment Test

A
  • inoculate 2 NA slants with Serratia and incubate in drawer and in incubator to determine best temp for pigment production
  • 25 C is best
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Growth Test

A

-helps determine best growth requirements for orgs by incubating them at several different temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Neutrophiles

A
  • grow best at neutral pH

- staph and e. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Acidophiles

A
  • grow best at acidic pH

- saccharomyces cervisiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Alkaliphiles

A
  • grow best at basic pH

- alcaligenes faecalis or sporosarcina ureae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

pH Test

A
  • test effects of pH on bacterial growth

- determine best pH for some bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Isotonic

A

-solute concentration same inside and outside cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Hypotonic

A

-solute concentration higher inside cell, water moves into cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Hypertonic

A

-solute concentration higher outside cell, water moves out of cell–>plasmolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Osmotic Pressure Test

A
  • test 2 different bacteria at 3 salt concentrations to determine osmotic requirements
  • halotolerant?
  • e. coli and staph grew best at .5% NaCl
  • halobacterium salinarium grew best at 15% NaCl
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Osmophiles

A

-grow in environments where sugar concentrations are excessive

50
Q

Halophiles

A

-require high concentrations of salt

51
Q

Halotolerant

A

-capable of growth in moderate concentrations of salt

52
Q

Defined Media

A

-know what’s in it

53
Q

Complex Media

A
  • no idea of exact compounds present

- allows growth of many types of organisms

54
Q

Selective Media

A
  • contains a growth inhibitor for specific group of organisms
  • inhibitor is usually a dye, a specific chemical, NaCl, pH, or antibiotic
  • organisms resistant to inhibitor will grow
  • the dyes methylene blue and eosin in EMB media inhibit growth of gram positive bacteria
  • incorporation of NaCl into mannitol-salt agar prevents bacteria that can’t handle salt from growing
55
Q

Differential Media

A
  • usually contains pH indicator or in some way differentiates between physiological types of organisms
  • mannitol-salt agar changes red to yellow around colonies that ferment mannitol
  • EMB: gram negative bacteria that ferment lactose in this medium turn matallic green
56
Q

Enriched Media

A
  • compounds are added to further supplement the nutrients in complex media for fastidious organisms
  • require certain nutrients (picky)
  • ex: whole blood, serum, plasma, vitamins, and specific amino acids
57
Q

Micropipettes

A

-the red handled guys with plunger

58
Q

Pi-pumps

A

-the green and blue guys you put on end of glass pipette

59
Q

Pour Plate

A
  • inoculate bottom of empty petri dish
  • pour melted agar over inoculum swirl in gentle figure 8’s to mix
  • get large surface colonies and small elliptical subsurface colonies
60
Q

Serological Pipettes

A

-0-9 if liquid still left in tube you don’t have all of what you measured

61
Q

Measuring Pipette

A

-0-10 not lined all the way to the bottom of the tip

62
Q

Volumetric Pipette

A

-has a bulb in it that holds liquid

63
Q

Hockey Stick

A
  • used for spread plates

- glass

64
Q

Optical Density

A
  • measures turbidity related to growth
  • construct a standard curve that relates optical density to actual numbers of bacteria determined by a SPC
  • living and dead cells contribute to count
65
Q

Standard Plate Count

A
  • SPC
  • serial dilution
  • inoculate with e. coli and distribute dilutions to plates to be incubated and then counted later and then calculate cells per milliliter in undiluted culture
66
Q

Determination of Growth by Absorbance

A

-serial dilutions that are then put through a spectrophotometer to measure absorbance which can be made into a curve to calculate maximum optical density

67
Q

TGEA

A
  • tryptone glucose extract agar

- used for total counts of bacteria in hamburger

68
Q

Bacterial Count in Hamburger

A
  • inoculate 3 TGEA pour plates to check for total bacteria
  • serial dilution
  • incubate for 24 hours
  • count colonies
69
Q

MPN

A

-most probable number of coliforms present in water

70
Q

Presumptive Test

A
  • collect dirty water
  • perform dilutions into test tubes with Durham tubes inverted inside
  • both DSLB (double strength lactose broth) and SSLB (single strength lactose broth) tubes
  • incubate for 24 hours and see if gas forms in durham tubes
  • positive result if 10% or more gas is present in 24 hours presumed to be unsafe to drink
  • determine MPN by using table and selecting three consecutive sets of tubes that have at least one tube with no gas
71
Q

Confirmed Test

A
  • gas accumulates in durham tubes so they’re positive

- choose one tube that has a positive result and do a streak plate onto EMB and Endo agar

72
Q

Levine EMB Agar

A
  • eosine methylene blue
  • contains methylene blue which inhibits gram positve bacteria
  • gram negative lactose fermenters that grow on this medium will produce nucleated colonies
  • e. coli and e. aerogenes can be differentiated on basis of size and presence of green metallic sheen (e. coli are smaller and are green)
  • selective and differential medium
73
Q

Endo Agar

A
  • contains fuchsin sulfite indicator that makes identification of lactose fermentors easy
  • coliform colonies and surrounding medium appear red
  • nonfermenters are colorless and don’t affect color of medium
  • some e. coli also turns metallic
74
Q

Completed Test

A
  • inoculating nutrient agar slant and lactose broth with Durham tube
  • incubate 24 hours and lactose broth examined for gas production
  • gram stain slide made and examined
  • gram-negative non-spore forming rod that ferments lactose=coliforms present in water sample
75
Q

Enterics

A
  • gram negative, nonsporeforming, facultative anaerobic rods that ferment glucose with the production of acid and gas can grow in the intestinal tracts of warm-blooded mammals
  • three groups: salmonella, shigella, and vibrio
76
Q

Escherichia

A
  • enteric
  • number one cause of UTI in women
  • septicemia-an infection of the blood stream
  • spinal meningitis in newborns
  • abdominal and wound infections
77
Q

Salmonella

A
  • enteric
  • typhoid fever
  • gastroenteritis
  • osteomyelitis: infection in the bone
78
Q

Shigella

A
  • enteric

- bacillary dysentery

79
Q

Citrobacter

A
  • enteric

- abdominal and wound infections

80
Q

Klebsiella

A
  • enteric
  • severe enteritis in children
  • pneumonia and upper respiratory infections
  • UTI of nosocomial (hospital acquired) origin
81
Q

Enetrobacter

A
  • enteric

- abdominal and wound infections

82
Q

Serratia

A
  • enteric

- thought to be innocuous, now implicated in pulmonary infections and septicemia

83
Q

Proteus

A
  • enteric
  • number one cause of UTI in males
  • abdominal and wound infections
84
Q

MacConkey Agar

A
  • selective due to bile salts and crystal violet and differential because it contains the pH indicator, neutral red
  • tests for lactose fermentation and indicates that organism is a gram negative rod
  • streak organisms for isolated colonies
  • growth=gram negative rod
  • positive=red colonies=lactose fermenter
  • negative=colorless colonies=non-lactose fermenter
  • all pathogens (salmonella and shigella) are lactose negative
85
Q

TSI Agar

A
  • Triple Sugar Iron Agar
  • differentiates gram negative enteric bacteria
  • stab loop down to center of butt all the way to bottom (inoculation for anaerobic growth)
  • pull loop out of agar and zigzag streak up slant (inoculate for aerobic growth)
  • incubate for 24 hours at 37 C
  • time is critical after 24 hours tubes are unreliable
  • TSI contains 3 sugars-10X more lactose and sucrose than glucose; sodium thiosulfate-detects organisms that can produce H2S and phenol red-alkaline Red=K and acid yellow=A
  • first letter refers to top half and second refers to bottom stab (K/A A/A and K/K
86
Q

Reactions of TSI Stabs

A
  • K/A=only glucose fermented
  • A/A=glucose and lactose or sucrose fermented
  • K/K no sugar fermented (non fermentors)
  • gas production is detected by gas bubbles in the agar
  • so K/A + gas or A/A + gas
  • some organisms produce H2x (salmonella and shigella) produces black precipitate so K/H2S or A/H2S
87
Q

Urease

A
  • splits urea into CO2 and ammonia
  • ammonia cause pH to rise above 8.4 where phenol red, is a deeper red
  • produced by some of the gram-negative enteric bacteria (proteus, providencia, morganella) which can be differentiated from the to others by this test
  • inoculate urease test medium which is a light pink slant
  • positive turns hot pink
  • negative is light pink
88
Q

Indole

A
  • organisms that possess tryptophanase can cleave tryptophan to indole
  • use Kovac’s reagent to detect which produces cherry red color
  • use indole test medium (tryptone broth which is pale yellow) and kovac’s reagent
  • inoculate broth and incubate at 37 C for 24-48 hours
  • add 5 drops Kovac’s reagent and wait
  • positive=cherry red ring
  • negative=yellowish ring
89
Q

Citrate

A
  • test medium contains ammonium phosphate which when utilized results in release of ammonium ions and an increase in pH.
  • pH indicator Bromothymol Blue changes from green to blue above pH 7.8
  • use simmons citrate slant which is green agar
  • inoculate sland and incubate for 24 hours at 37 C
  • positive=growth and slant turns blue
  • negative=no growth
90
Q

IMViC

A
  • citrate and indole tests part of this
  • used in water analysis
  • Indole, Methyl red, Voges-Proskauer, Citrate
  • Methyl red and Voges-Proskauer are tests of fermentation products
91
Q

Non Fermenters

A
  • aerobes
  • Pseudomonas, alcaligenes, acinetobacter, and moraxella
  • opportunistic pathogens
92
Q

Pseudomonas

A
  • causes UTIs, septicemia, upper and lower respiratory tract infections and colonizes wound and burn infections
  • grown on light-colored media will produce a diffusible water soluble, green pigment called pyocyanin and a grape like odor
  • oxidase positive
93
Q

Acinetobacter

A
  • isolated less frequently but can cause same type of infections but is less resistant to antibiotics
  • Moraxella and alcaligenes are isolated even less frequently
94
Q

Oxidase Test

A
  • tests for presence of cytochrome C
  • all organisms that can grow in the presence of air have cytochromes but they may differ
  • oxidase reagent detects only C cytochrome
  • thaw oxidase reagent
  • wet very tip of q-tip
  • touch tip to bacterial colony to be tested
  • observe for color change and time reaction
  • positive=turns dark purple in less than ten seconds
  • negative=no color change or turns purple after twenty seconds
  • questionable=turns purple at 10-20 seconds
95
Q

API 20 E System

A
  • mini version of conventional tests used for identification of members of the family enterobacteriaceae and other gram-negative bacteria
  • utilizes plastic strip with 20 separate compartments each consisting of a depression/capsule and small tube that contains a specific dehydrated medium
96
Q

Enterotube II

A
  • mini multitest system developed for rapid identification of Enterobacteriaceae
  • incorporates 12 different conventional media and 15 biochemical tests into a single ready to use tube that can be simultaneously inoculated
97
Q

Host Specificity of T2 Bacteriophate

A
  • determines if T2 bacteriophage is specific for E. coli or if it will also infect enterobacter aerogenes
  • 4 tubes
  • 500 microliters E coli in two tubes and then 500 microliters of T2 into on of those tubes
  • 500 microliters of enterobacter into two new tubes and 500 microliters of T2 into one of those
  • incubate at 37 C for 24 hours
  • T2 only effectively kills E. coli
98
Q

Quantitative Top Agar Assay of T2 Phage

A
  • determines concentration of T2 bacteriophage in original broth using plaque count dilution assay
  • 3 plates of bottom agar
  • put pasteur pipette in e. coli tube
  • add e. coli and T2 to small tube of top agar and mix well with finger flicks then pour over surface of bottom agar and rock quickly to spread
  • plate 1: top agar and 2 drops e. coli
  • plate 2: top agar and 2 drops e. coli and 100 microliters of T2
  • plate 3: top agar and 2 drops of e. coli and 200 microliters of T2
  • incubate at 37 C for 24 hours
99
Q

Pasture Pipette

A

-very thin pipette with a bulb in middle

100
Q

Bacteriophages

A
  • obligate intracellular parasites
  • have capsids that protects one type of nucleic acid
  • can have a lytic or lysogenic life cycle
  • after lysis they form clear areas called plaques
  • PFU’s can be counted to determine number of viral particles in a suspension of phage
101
Q

Staphlococci

A
  • means bunch of grapes
  • gram positive
  • non motile non spore forming and able to grow in high salt
  • most are facultative anerobes
  • s. aureus most important pathogen-salt tolerant, ferments mannitol, coagulase positive which means they cause a serum to clot
  • DNase also associated with staph aureus as well as alpha toxin that causes wide, clear zone of beta-hemolysis on blood agar
102
Q

MSA Plate

A
  • mannitol salt agar
  • production of acid by s. aureus that grows on this plate lowers the pH of the medium changing the phenol red indicator to turn yellow
  • differential and selective
  • differential because of mannitol (mannitol fermentors vs. non mannitol fermentors) and selective because of salt and selects for s. aureus because it survives in high salt
103
Q

Coagulase Negative Staphylococci

A
  • s. epidermidis and s. saprophyticus differ from s. aureus
  • don’t produce coagulase or DNase or alpha toxin
  • all people have CNS on skin
  • unpigmented and appear opaque when grown on blood agar and staphylococcus 110 plates
104
Q

Beta-hemolysis

A

-complete lysis of red blood cells around a colony

105
Q

Alpha-hemolysis

A

-partial breakdown of hemoglobin inside red blood cells on blood agar plate resulting in a greenish discoloration around colonies

106
Q

Gamma-hemolysis

A

-no effect on blood cells in blood agar plate

107
Q

Nose swab

A
  • dip qtip into sterile water

- swab nose and run on mannitol salt agar plate

108
Q

Catalase Test

A
  • place drop of H2O2 on microscope slide
  • get glob of cells on loop (staph and strep)
  • insert loop into drop
  • vigorous bubbling=positive
109
Q

Coagulase Test

A
  • inoculate two tubes coagulase with staph aureus and staph epidermidis
  • incubate 37 C for 24 hours
  • thick is a positive result
110
Q

Throat Swab

A
  • used to look for hemolysis of strep
  • swab throat and streak on blood agar plate
  • examine after 24 hours
111
Q

Thermal Death Point

A
  • TDP

- lowest temperature at which a population of a target organism is killed in 10 minutes

112
Q

Thermal Death Time

A

-shortest time required to kill a suspension of cells or spores under defined conditions at a given temperature

113
Q

Lethal Effects of Temperature

A
  • plate control of culture
  • place in water bath at constant temperature for 40 minutes
  • every ten minutes plate .1 ml onto one of 4 plates and pour liquid nutrient agar into each plate rotate and cool
  • incubate at 37 C for 24-48 hours
  • results: strep faecalis is thermoduric; megaterium survives high temperatures because of endospores
114
Q

Antimicrobials

A

-compounds that kill or inhibit microorganisms

115
Q

Antibiotics

A

-are antimicrobials produced by microorganisms that inhibit or kill other microorganisms

116
Q

Zone of Inhibition

A

-if agent kills or inhibits test organism this appears around the disc where no growth occurs
0can vary with diffusibility of agent and size of inoculum, type of medium etc

117
Q

Antimicrobic Sensitivity Testing

A
  • swab entire surface of TSA plate
  • use dispenser to put down 12 discs
  • tap down discs with sterile loop
  • measure after 24 hours
  • use chart to determine resistance, intermediate, or sensitive
118
Q

Antiseptics

A

-substances that inhibit microbial growth or kill microorganisms and are gentle enough to be applied to living tissue

119
Q

Disinfectants

A

-chemical agents that are applied to inanimate objects and are usually more harsh and damaging to living tissue

120
Q

Sterilants/sporicides

A

-destroy all microbial life including endospores

121
Q

Sanitizers

A

-reduce microbial numbers to safe level but don’t completely eliminate all microbes

122
Q

Evaluation of Antiseptics

A
  • filter paper disc method
  • TSA plate and inoculate with q tip all over surface
  • dip steril disk halfway into agent
  • place disk onto correctly labeled section of agar near the edge
  • incubate 37 C for 24 hours then measure zone of inhibition

Microbiology M-315 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions