LAB OPERATIONS Flashcards

1
Q

SI and derived units quantity: mass

-name
-symbol

A

-kilogram
-kg

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2
Q

SI and derived units quantity: Amount of substance

-name
-symbol

A

-mole
-mol

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3
Q

SI and derived units quantity: length

-name
-symbol

A

-meter
-m

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4
Q

SI and derived units quantity: luminous intensity

-name
-symbol

A

-candela
-cd

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5
Q

SI and derived units quantity: electric current

-name
-symbol

A

-ampere
-A

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6
Q

SI and derived units quantity: time

-name
-symbol

A

-second
-s

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7
Q

SI and derived units quantity: thermodynamic temperature

-name
-symbol

A

-kelvin
-K

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8
Q

SI and derived units
selected derived units: volume

-name
-symbol

A

-liter
-L

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9
Q

SI and derived units
selected derived units: substance concentration

-name
-symbol

A

-molarity
-M

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10
Q

SI and derived units
selected derived units: catalytic activity

-name
-symbol

A

-Katal
-Kat

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11
Q

SI and derived units
selected derived units: pressure

-name
-symbol

A

-pascal
-Pa

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12
Q

SI and derived units
selected derived units: Temperature

-name
-symbol

A

-degree celsius
-°C

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13
Q

SI unit factor: 10^-18

-prefix
-symbol

A

-atto
-a

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14
Q

SI unit factor: 10^-15

-prefix
-symbol

A

-femto
-f

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15
Q

SI unit factor: 10^-12

-prefix
-symbol

A

-pico
-p

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16
Q

SI unit factor: 10^-9

-prefix
-symbol

A

-nana
-n

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17
Q

SI unit factor: 10^-6

-prefix
-symbol

A

-micro

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18
Q

SI unit factor: 10^-2

-prefix
-symbol

A

-centi
-c

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19
Q

SI unit factor: 10^-3

-prefix
-symbol

A

-mili
-m

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20
Q

SI unit factor: 10^-1

-prefix
-symbol

A

-deci
-d

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21
Q

SI unit factor: 10^1

-prefix
-symbol

A

-deka
-d

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22
Q

SI unit factor: 10^2

-prefix
-symbol

A

-hecto
-h

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23
Q

SI unit factor: 10^3

-prefix
-symbol

A

-kilo
-k

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24
Q

SI unit factor: 10^6

-prefix
-symbol

A

-mega
-M

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25
Q

SI unit factor: 10^9

-prefix
-symbol

A

-giga
-G

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26
Q

Factor of the SI unit prefix: atto

A

10^-18

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27
Q

Factor of the SI unit prefix: femto

A

10^-15

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28
Q

Factor of the SI unit prefix: pico

A

10^-12

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29
Q

Factor of the SI unit prefix: Nana

A

10^-9

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30
Q

Factor of the SI unit prefix: micro

A

10^-6

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31
Q

Factor of the SI unit prefix: mili

A

10^-3

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32
Q

Factor of the SI unit prefix: centi

A

10^-2

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33
Q

Factor of the SI unit prefix: deci

A

10^-1

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34
Q

Factor of the SI unit prefix: deka

A

10^1

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35
Q

Factor of the SI unit prefix: hecto

A

10^2

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36
Q

Factor of the SI unit prefix: kilo

A

10^3

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37
Q

Factor of the SI unit prefix: mega

A

10^6

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38
Q

Factor of the SI unit prefix: giga

A

10^9

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39
Q

temperature conversion formula:
F - C

A

C= (F-32)/1.8

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40
Q

temperature conversion formula:
C - F

A

F= 1.8(C+32)

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41
Q

temperature conversion formula:
K - C

A

C = K-273.15

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42
Q

The number of mole of solute per liter of soution

A

molarity

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43
Q

number of moles of solute per kilogram solvent

A

molality

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44
Q

number of equivalent weights of solute per liter of solution

A

normality

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45
Q

amount of solute per 100 total units of solution

A

percent solution

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46
Q

how does percent solution is expressed

A

% w/v, w/w, v/v

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47
Q

done when the analyte concentration is too high and exceeds the detection limit of the method

A

dilution

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48
Q

done when a weaker reagent concentration is needed than the stock substance available

A

dilution of stock solution

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49
Q

amount of something relative to another, expressed as part per part or part per whole

A

ratio

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50
Q

what are the measure of center?

A

-mean
-median
-mode

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51
Q

what is the other term for measures of center?

A

central tendency

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52
Q

it is the average of data

A

mean

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53
Q

midpoint of a data set after the values have been rank-ordered

A

median

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54
Q

most frequently occurring value in a data set

A

mode

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55
Q

what is/are the measures of spread

A

-standard deviation (s)
-coefficient or variation
-range

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56
Q

what is the most common measures of center?

A

mean

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57
Q

what is the most common measurement of spread

A

standard deviation

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58
Q

it is the distribution of data points around the mean

A

standard deviation

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59
Q

it is the best indicator of precision

A

coefficient of variation

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60
Q

relationship of coefficient of variation and precision

A

inversely proportional

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61
Q

it is the difference between the highest and lowest value

A

range

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62
Q

it is the best indicator of uncertainty

A

standard deviation

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63
Q

what is the normal shape of the curve produced by gaussian distribution

A

bell-shaped curve

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64
Q

delta points are distributed symmetrically around the mean with most values close to the center

A

gaussian distribution

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65
Q

what is the impirical rule of gaussian distribution

A

68-95-99.7% rule

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66
Q

95%confidence interval formula

A

x̄ ± 2SD

x̄ = mean

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67
Q

pair of medical decision points that span the limits of results expected for a defined healthy population

A

reference interval

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68
Q

it is done to confirm the validity of an existing or published reference interval for an analyte

A

verifying a reference interval

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69
Q

verifying a reference interval requires how many study individuals

A

120

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70
Q

reference interval is based on

A

95% confidence interval

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71
Q

what is the confidence interval of the formula
x̄± 2SD

A

95%

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72
Q

what are the steps of method evaluation

A

1 - precision study
2- recovery study

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73
Q

rule of precision study

A

run 2 control materials twice a day over a 10 day- period

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74
Q

precision study scheme

A

2 x 2 x 10 scheme

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75
Q

this involves spiking a sample with a known amount of analyte and determining how much of it can be detected by the method in the presence of other compound in the matrix

A

recovery study

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76
Q

examples of inferential statistics

A

-t test
-f test
-linear regression

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77
Q

it compares the means of two groups of data

A

t test

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78
Q

this test compares the standard deviations of two groups of data

A

F test

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79
Q

this test compares the accuracy of two methods

A

t test

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80
Q

this test compares the precision of 2 procedure

A

f test

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81
Q

this is used in comparison -of-methods test and bias studies

A

linear regressions

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82
Q

in linear regression, what does x axis contains

A

-independent variable
-standard/reference methods

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83
Q

in linear regression, what does y axis contains

A

-dependent variable
- test or new method

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84
Q

in linear regression, what is the change that represents the proportional error

A

slope

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85
Q

in linear regression, what is the change that represent constant error

A

y-intercept

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86
Q

in linear regression, this represents the strength of the relationship between the two methosd

A

correlation coefficient

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87
Q

this is the ability of a method to detect the smallest concentration of an analyte

A

analytical sensitivity

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88
Q

this is the ability of a method to detect only the analyte of interest

A

analytical specificity

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89
Q

it is the ability of a test to detect a given disease or condition

A

diagnostic sensitivity

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90
Q

it is the ability of a test to detect the absence of a given disease

A

diagnostic specificity

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91
Q

it is the proportion of individual with the disease who have a positive test result

A

diagnostic sensitivity

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92
Q

it is the proportion if individuals with no disease who have a negative test result

A

diagnostic specificity

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93
Q

it is the proportion of individuals with positive result who truly have the disease

A

positive predictive value

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94
Q

it is the proportion of individuals with a negative result who truly do not have the disease

A

negative predictive value

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95
Q

most widely used approach to quality management in the healthcare

A

PDCA cycle

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96
Q

PDCA cycle

A

plan - do - check - act

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97
Q

it provides both a management philosophy or organizational development and a management process for improvement of quality in all aspects of work

A

total quality management

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98
Q

what are the TQMs Q framework

A
  • quality planning
    -quality laboratory process
    -quality control
    -quality assessment
    -quality improvement
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99
Q

in tqm, this is necessary to standardize the remedy, establish measures for performance monitoring, and ensure that the performance achieved satisfies quality requirements

A

quality planning

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100
Q

in tqm, this includes the processes, policies, practices, and procedures that define how all aspects ow work are done

A

quality laboratory process

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101
Q

in tqm, it involves the statistical control procedures as well as nonstatistical checks

A

quality control

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102
Q

in tqm, this. is concerned with broader measured of laboratory performance including TAT, patient identification, specimen collection, and test utility

A

quality assessment

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103
Q

this is based on statistics and quantitive measurements that is applied in the laboratory to reduce the frequency of test error or the number of DPMOs

A

six sigma

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104
Q

in tqm, this provides a structured problem-solving process to help identify the root cause of a problem and a remedy for that problem

A

quality improvement

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105
Q

what are indicators of six sigma

A

-improved performance
-improved quality
-improved bottom line
-improved customer and employee satisfaction

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106
Q

what are the steps of six sigma

A

DMAIC

-define
-measure
-analyze
-improve
-control

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107
Q

it is designed to reduce waste, increase efficiency, improve customer satisfaction

A

Lan

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108
Q

lean is often used in clinical laboratory to improve _____

A

turn around time (TAT)

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109
Q

what are the categories of waste in lean

A

DOWNTIME
-defects
-overproduction
-waiting
-non-utilized talent
-transport
-inventory
-motion
-excess processing

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110
Q

lean-six sigma belt color:

understands the basics of Lean-Six sigma (with training)

A

yellow belt

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111
Q

lean-six sigma belt color:

team members who contribute approximately 20% of their time to QI projects

A

green belt

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112
Q

lean-six sigma belt color:

team leaders who dedicate as much as 100% of their time to QI projects

A

black belt

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113
Q

lean-six sigma belt color:

black belt with at least 2 years of experience, they are lean-six sigma advisers/coaches

A

master belt

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114
Q

the process by which the lab ensures quality results by closely monitoring preanalytical, analytical, and postanalytical phases of testing

A

quality assessment/ quality assurance

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115
Q

an algorithm in which a current laboratory result is compared with results obtained on a previous specimen from the same patient

A

delta check

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116
Q

this ensures reliability

A

quality control

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117
Q

reliability formula

A

accuracy + precision

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118
Q

it is the ability to maintain accuracy and precision over an extended period of time during which equipment, reagents, and personnel may change

A

reliability

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119
Q

it is the closeness of the result to the true or actual value

A

accuracy

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120
Q

this is the ability to produce a series of results that agree closely with each other

A

precision

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121
Q

precision is commonly expressed in the terms of ______

A

coefficient of variation

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122
Q

precision is also called as

A

reproducibility/repeatability

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123
Q

this is important for the daily monitoring of accuracy and precision of analytical methods

A

internal quality control

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124
Q

internal quality control involves at least __ levels of _____, every _____

A

2 controls
24 hours

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125
Q

internal quality control’s initial control limits are established by analyzing controls for at least ___ consecutive ________

A

20
days or runs

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126
Q

other name of internal quality control

A

intralab qc

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127
Q

this qc involves testing blind samples sent periodically by regulatory agencies to participating labs

A

external quality assessment

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128
Q

other name of external QA

A

interlab QA

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129
Q

what is being done in interlab QA

A

proficiency testing

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130
Q

this is important for maintaining the long term accuracy of analytical methods

A

external QA

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131
Q

NEQAS

A

National external quality assessment scheme

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132
Q

who gives NEQAS

A

NRLs

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133
Q

What is the NRL for CC

A

Lung center

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134
Q

Standard deviation index result that means poor performance during NEQAS

A

> 2.0

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135
Q

random error is

A

imprecision

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136
Q

systematic error is

A

bias / inaccuracy

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137
Q

this error is due to chance or unpredictable cause

A

random error

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138
Q

this is a recurring error inherent in test procedure

A

systematic error

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139
Q

this error is usually a one-time error

A

random error

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140
Q

this error affects all result which may be a constant or proportional

A

systematic error

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141
Q

this error is indicated by shift or trend

A

systematic error

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142
Q

it is the abrupt change in the distribution of control values

A

shift

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143
Q

it is the gradual change un the distribution if control values

A

trend

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144
Q

this pattern in qc that accumulate on one side of the mean for 6 consecutive days

A

shift

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145
Q

this qc pattern continue to increase or decrease over a period of 6 consecutive says passing through the mean

A

trend

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146
Q

main cause of shift

A

calibration error

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147
Q

main cause of trend

A

deterioration if reagent

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148
Q

these are highly deviating control values caused by random or systematic error

A

outliers

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149
Q

what is being plotted in CUSUM’s chart

  1. y-axis
  2. x-axis
A
  1. mean
  2. run numbers
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150
Q

this is an effective method for comparing both within-lab and between-lab variability

A

tonks-youden plot

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151
Q

other name of tonks-youden

A

twin plot

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152
Q

used for the interlaboratory comparison of monthly means by plotting the mean value for one sample on the y-axis and the mean value of another on the x-axis

A

tonks-youden plot

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153
Q

this is the most commonly used QC chart

A

shewhart levey-jennings chart

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154
Q

what is the hierarchy of controls from most effective to least effective

A
  1. elimination
  2. substitution
  3. engineering controls
  4. administrative controls
  5. PPE
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155
Q

it is the hierarchy of control that physically remove the hazard

A

elimination

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156
Q

it is the hierarchy of control that replace the hazard

A

substituion

157
Q

it is the hierarchy of control that isolate people from the hazard

A

engineering control

158
Q

it is the hierarchy of control that change the way people work

A

administrative control

159
Q

it is the hierarchy of control that protects the worker with equipment

160
Q

it is the most important means of preventing the spread of infection

A

handwashing

161
Q

duration of hands rubbing during handwashing

A

15-20 seconds

162
Q

it can be used when hands are not visibly contaminated

A

alcohol-based cleansers

163
Q

bsc that sterilizes only the air to be exhausted

164
Q

bsc that does not protect the work surface

165
Q

bsc that is most commonly used in microbiology

166
Q

other name for bsc class 2

A

vertical laminar flow

167
Q

bsc that sterilize air that flows over the infectious material as well as air to be exhausted

168
Q

bsc: 70% circulated air; 30% exhausted into the room

A

class 2 A1

169
Q

difference of bsc a2 from a1

A

higher intake air velocity of 100 linear feet per meter (lfm)

170
Q

bsc: 30% recirculated; 70% exhausted outside of the buillding

A

class 2 b1

171
Q

bsc: 100% exhausted outside of the building

A

class 2 b2

172
Q

bsc that is completely enclosed with glove ports

173
Q

bsc that provides the highest level of personnel protection which is commonly used for extremely hazardous organisms

174
Q

decontamination solution

A

5.2% NaOCl (sodium hypochlorite)
10% chlorine bleach

175
Q

bleach to water ratio

176
Q

wavelength of UV

177
Q

wavelength of visible light

A

400-700 nm

178
Q

wavelength of infrared

179
Q

wavelength of microwaves

180
Q

wavelength of low frequency

181
Q

radiation type seen in germicidal lamps used in BSCs

182
Q

radiation type seen in general illumination

A

visible light spectrum

183
Q

radiation type seen in heat lamps, lasers, and vein selectors

184
Q

radiation type seen in microwave energy beam used to accelerate tissue staining

185
Q

radiation type seen in radiofrequency coil in icp-ms

A

low frequency

186
Q

a major source of information about chemicals written by manufacturers

A

safety data sheet (SDS)

187
Q

how many sections SDS consist of

188
Q

NFPA hazard diamond color: health hazard

189
Q

NFPA hazard diamond color: fire/flammable

190
Q

NFPA hazard diamond color: reactivity/instability

191
Q

NFPA hazard diamond color: specific

192
Q

NFPA hazard diamond category: white

193
Q

NFPA hazard diamond category: yellow

A

reactivity/stability

194
Q

NFPA hazard diamond category: blue

A

health hazard

195
Q

NFPA hazard diamond category: red

A

flame/flammable hazard

196
Q

nfpa flame hazard basis of rating the degree

A

flash point

197
Q

fire hazard rating: 4

A

below 70 F

198
Q

fire hazard rating: 3

A

below 100 F

199
Q

fire hazard rating: 2

A

below 200 F

200
Q

fire hazard rating: 1

A

above 200 F

201
Q

fire hazard rating: 0

A

will not burn

202
Q

NFPA health hazard rating: 4

203
Q

NFPA health hazard rating: 3

A

extremely danger

204
Q

NFPA health hazard rating: 2

205
Q

NFPA health hazard rating: 1

A

slightly hazardous

206
Q

NFPA health hazard rating: 0

A

normal material

207
Q

NFPA reactivity rating: 4

A

may detonate

208
Q

NFPA reactivity rating: 3

A

shock and heat may detonate

209
Q

NFPA reactivity rating: 2

A

violent chemical change

210
Q

NFPA reactivity rating: s1

A

unstable if heated

211
Q

NFPA reactivity rating: 0

212
Q

NFPA: ☢

A

radioactive

213
Q

NFPA: OXY

214
Q

NFPA: ALK

215
Q

NFPA: COR

216
Q

this is used for materials that give off harmful vapors which provides personnel protection only

217
Q

duration of flushing the skin or eye with large amount of water when contact occurs

A

15 minutes

218
Q

actions to take in the event of fire

A

RACE
rescue
alarm
contain
extinguis/evacuate

219
Q

steps in operating a fire extinguisher

A

(PASS)
pull pin
Aim nozzle
Squeeze trigger
Sweep nozzle

220
Q

fire hazard class: ordinary combustibles

221
Q

fire hazard class: flammable liquids

222
Q

fire hazard class: electrical equipments

223
Q

fire hazard class: flammable metals

224
Q

fire hazard class: arsenal or materials that are liable to result in detonation

225
Q

fire hazard class: combustible cooking media in commercial cooking equipment

226
Q

fire hazard class: wood, paper, cloth

227
Q

fire hazard class: motors,, switches, computers

228
Q

fire hazard class: grease gasoline, paints, oils

229
Q

fire hazard class: magnesium, sodium, potassium, lithium

230
Q

fire hazard class: vegetable/animal oils and fats

231
Q

fire hazard class that use this extinguisher: pressurize water

232
Q

fire hazard class that use this extinguisher: dry chemical

233
Q

fire hazard class that use this extinguisher: carbon dioxide

234
Q

fire hazard class that use this extinguisher: Halon

235
Q

extinguisher for: class D

A

Metal X or sand

236
Q

which fire class that cannot be extinguished and is allowed to burn but nearby materials should be protected

237
Q

serum and plasma preparation:
-centri
-duration

A

1000-2000 rcf
10 mins

238
Q

it is the preferred specimen for most cc test

239
Q

analytes that has higher value in serum that plasma

A

glucose, K, PO4, HCO2, Albumin, CK, AST, ALP

240
Q

analytes that has higher value in plasma than serum

A

TP, Ca, LD

241
Q

separate the serum or plasma from cells with ______ of collection

242
Q

samples should be analyzed within _____

243
Q

what to do If sample was not analyzed within 4 hrs

A

refrigerate for 48 hrs or freeze at -20C for linger storage

244
Q

analyte that has greater value in plasma that wb

245
Q

percent of how high glucose value is at plasma that wh

246
Q

Aanalyte with higher value in capillary blood than venous blood

247
Q

veins that are in antecubital fossa which can be site for puncture ( most preferred to least)

A

median cubital > cephalic > Basilic

248
Q

length of tourniquet from the puncture site

A

3-4 inches

249
Q

reapplication of tourniquet should be after

250
Q

if blood pressure cuff is used, instead of tourniquet, it should be inflate to ______

A

40-60 mmHg

251
Q

commonly used routine antiseptics

A

70% isopropyl alcohol

252
Q

antiseptic used during venipuncture for blood culture specimen

A

double antiseptic procedure

  1. 70% alcohol
    2 iodophor / povidone iodine/ chlorhexidine
253
Q

antiseptic used for veni specimen to be used in ethanol assay

A

benzalkonium chloride

254
Q

angle between needle and vein for syringe and ets

A

15-30 degrees (if ranged)
15 degrees (if not ranges)

255
Q

angle between needle and vein for butterfly infusion set

A

<15 degree

256
Q

this venipuncture method is not not recommended by CLSI due to safety and specimen quality issue

A

needle and syringe

257
Q

this venipuncture method is the most preferred by clsi

A

evacuted tube system

258
Q

this venipuncture method is used for infants and children, hand veins, and difficult-draw situation

A

butterfly/ winged infusion set

259
Q

this veni method consit of double headed-needle, adapter, and color coded-evacuated tubes

A

evacuated tube system

260
Q

color code of needle gauge:
20

261
Q

color code of needle gauge:
21

262
Q

color code of needle gauge: 22

263
Q

color code of needle gauge: 23

264
Q

color code of needle gauge: 25

265
Q

what is the needle gauge of hub/wing/needle cap that is color: black

266
Q

what is the needle gauge of hub/wing/needle cap that is color: yellow

267
Q

what is the needle gauge of hub/wing/needle cap that is color: blue

268
Q

what is the needle gauge of hub/wing/needle cap that is color: green

269
Q

what is the needle gauge of hub/wing/needle cap that is color: orange

270
Q

what is the gauge that is used for large volume tubes or large volume syringes used in patients with normal size veins

271
Q

what is the standard needle gauge for routine veni on patients with normal veins

272
Q

what is the needle gauge used for older children and adult patients with small veins or for syringe draw on difficult vein

273
Q

what is the needle gauge used for infants and children, difficult vein, or hand veins of adults

274
Q

what is the needle gauge used to collect blood from scalp or tiny veins of permature infants

275
Q

what needle gauge is the most prone to hemolysis

276
Q

what is the preferred needle length that provides better control

277
Q

needle length for n/s and ets

A

1 - 1.5 inc

278
Q

needle length for butterfly infusion set

A

0.5 - 0.75 inch

279
Q

what are the anticoagulant additives

A

-edta
-citrate
-oxalate
-heparin

280
Q

what is the mechanism of action: EDTA

A

chelation of calcium

281
Q

what is the mechanism of action: Citrate

A

chelation of calcium

282
Q

what is the mechanism of action: oxalate

A

precipitation of calcium

283
Q

EDTA whole blood is used in what tests

A

-HbA1c
- therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM)

284
Q

what is the mechanism of action: heparin

A

inhibition of thrombin

(heparin activates anti-thrombin 3 which is responsible for thrombin inhibition)

285
Q

color of EDTA

A

lavander, pink, tan, pearl

286
Q

EDTA plasma is use in what tests

A

lipids and lipid profiles

287
Q

color of citrate tube

A

-light blue
-black

288
Q

color of oxalate tube

289
Q

color of heparin tube

290
Q

test that uses heparinized arterial blood

A

-ABG
-ammonia

291
Q

test that uses heparinized plasma

A

most cc test
special cc test

292
Q

what are the additives of clot activator tubes

A

-silica
-thrombin

293
Q

color and material of silica containing tube

A

red plastic

294
Q

how long will is the clotting time of the specimen using silica tube

295
Q

how long is the clotting time when using thrombin tube

296
Q

what is the color of thrombin tube

297
Q

what test does silica and thrombin tube used

A

stat serum test

298
Q

component of serum separator tube (SST)

A

gel + silica

299
Q

component of plasma separator tube

A

gel + heprin

300
Q

what are the antiglycolytic agents used in evacuated tubes

A

-sodium fluoride
-ioadoacetate

301
Q

what is the tube color of sst

A

gold with red black spot

302
Q

what is the color of pst

A

light green / green with gray spots

303
Q

what is the effect of sodium fluoride to BUN and Uric acid

A

falsely decrease

(due to inhibition of urea and uricase caused by NaF)

304
Q

what is the color of sodium fluoride tube

305
Q

when (test) does antiglycolytic agent containing tube used

A

-glucose
-lactate
-ethnol

306
Q

what to tube should be use when test includes urea and Uric acids

A

iosoacetate

307
Q

what are the factors that affect evacuated tube quality

A
  • ambient tempt
  • altitude
  • humidity
    -light
308
Q

ets venipuncture modification in high temperature

A

decrease the draw volume

309
Q

ets venipuncture modification in low temperature

A

increase the draw volume

310
Q

this factor affect CTAD tube

311
Q

ets venipuncture modification in high altitude

A

low or decrease draw volume

312
Q

hight/altitude considered to be significant in doing venipuncture

313
Q

that humidity level does make the migration of water vapor inside a tube

A

high humidoty

314
Q

what test used capillary puncture

A

-newborn screening
-POCT
- DM monitoring

315
Q

what are the site of capillary puncture

A

-lateral plantar of the heel
-3rd or 4th fingers
-big toe
-erlobe

316
Q

recommended lenght of lancet blade for heel stick

317
Q

when does arterial puncture performed

A

-BGA
- absence of palpable vein

318
Q

what is the order of site puncture (in order of preference_

A

Radial > Brachial > femoral

319
Q

what should be done before doing radial artery puncture to ensure there is adequate blood flow from artery

A

modified allen test

320
Q

what is the second most common venipuncture complication

321
Q

what are the types of glass materials

A

-borosilicate
-aluminosilicate
-high silica
-soft glass
-flint glass
-low actinic glass

322
Q

this type of glass can tolerate heating and sterilization for lengthy periods

A

borosilicate

323
Q

borosilicate is subject to

A

scratching and cloud with strong alkali

324
Q

example of borosilicate glass

A

-pyrex
-kimax

325
Q

this glass material can better resist scratching and alkali attack

A

alluminosilicate

326
Q

aluminosilicate is ____ stronger than _____

A

-6X
-borosilicate

327
Q

give an example of aluminosilicate

328
Q

this glass material has high heat, chemical, and electrical tolerance and excellent optical properties

A

high silica

329
Q

give example of high silica glass

330
Q

other term for soft glass

A

boron-free glass

331
Q

this glass material has low thermal resistance but can still be used with strong acids and alkali

A

soft glass

332
Q

other term for flint glass

A

soda-lime glass

333
Q

this is the most inexpensive type of glass material

A

flint glass

334
Q

this glass has low thermal resistance and releases alkali causing errors in certain determinations

A

flint glass

335
Q

this glass reduces light transmission and used to contain photosensitive substances

A

low actinic glass

336
Q

what is the other term for low actinic glass

A

amber-colored glass

337
Q

what is the type of plastic material that is excellent in temperature tolerance and chemical resistance

338
Q

what are the types of plastic materials that are autoclaveable and has high heat resistance

A

-teflon
-polypropylene
-polycarbonate

339
Q

what is the type of plastic material that is resistant to most chemicals which can withstands high temperatures

A

polycarbonate

340
Q

what type of plastic material is stronger than polypropylene

A

polycarbonate

341
Q

what type of plastic material is being utilized in the making of pipet tips and plastic test tubes

A

polypropylene

342
Q

what lab equipments utilizes polycarbonate

A

-centrifuge tubes
-graduated cyllinder

343
Q

which is more chemical resistant (polycarbonate/polypropylene)

A

polypropylene

344
Q

what type of substance/acid that polyethylene is not resistant to?

A

concentrated acids

345
Q

this type of plastic material is used for the storage of alkaline solution

A

polyethylene

346
Q

this type of plastic material is rigid, cleat, and is used for test tubes and graduated tubes

A

polystyrene

347
Q

this type of plastic material is soft and flexible but porous, and is frequently used for tubing

A

polyvinyl chloride

348
Q

what are the designs of glass pipettes

A

-to contain
-to deliver

349
Q

this design of glass pipette holds but does not deliver the exact volume

A

to contain

350
Q

QC parameter for centrifudge

A

-timer
-speed (tachometer)
temperture

351
Q

QC frequency of centrifuge

352
Q

it has the highest degree of purity suitable for use in most analytical procedures

A

analytic reagent grade`

353
Q

this chemical is for specific procedures such as chromotography, AASl