Lab exam review Flashcards

1
Q

One of the most important human pathogens

A

Group A Streptococci

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2
Q

What bacteria are most frequent in humans? What does it cause?

A

Group A Streptococci
Pharyngitis and common cause of skin infections

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3
Q

What bacteria is colonized in the genetial tract of some women

A

Group B Streptococci (GBS)

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4
Q

what can Group B Streptococci cause in newborns?

A

neonatal meningitis and sepsis

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5
Q

Why do pregnant women get a GBS swab?

A

GBS+ women can pass the bacteria to their infants during delivery (very bad)

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6
Q

What are enterococci

A

normal flora of the colon

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7
Q

what happens if enterococci are found outside of the colon?

A

They can cause urinary, Biliary or cardiovascular infections

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8
Q

What 2 subtypes of bacteria make up Group D streptococci

A

Enterococci and non-enterococci

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9
Q

What does alpha-hemolytic streptococci look like on a blood agar plate? what does that indicate

A

Green
indicates partial hemolysis

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10
Q

What does beta-hemolytic streptococci look like on blood agar plate? what does that indicate?

A

clear
indicates complete hemolysis

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11
Q

What does gamma-hemolytic streptococci look like on blood agar plate? what does this indicate?

A

red
indicates no hemolysis

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12
Q

What causes beta-hemolysis

A

production of hemolysin enzymes (Streptolysin O and streptolysin S)

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13
Q

What are plasmids and bacteriophages

A

extra chromosomal DNA elements that replicate independent of the genomic DNA

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14
Q

what do plasmids and bacterophages allow?

A

exchange of genes between strains and types of bacteria

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15
Q

what do virulence genes do?

A

encode toxins or enzymes that help bacteria overwhelm host tissues and immunity or get nutrients

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16
Q

what are the four phases of the bacterial growth curve IN ORDER

A
  1. lag phase
  2. log phase
  3. stationary phase
  4. death phase
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17
Q

What is the lag phase on the bacterial growth curve

A

vigorous metabolic activity occurs
cells do NOT divide
lasts a few minutes to many hours

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18
Q

what is the log phase of the bacterial growth curve

A

rapid cell division

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19
Q

what is the stationary phase of the bacterial growth curve

A

nutrients deplete OR toxic products cause growth to slow

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20
Q

What is the death phase of the bacterial growth curve

A

decline in the number of viable bacteria

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21
Q

How do bacteria adapt to their environment

A

controlling gene expression

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22
Q

what is the most common way of altering gene expression

A

change the amount of mRNA transcription

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23
Q

Describe the 4 phases of bacteria cell division

A
  1. cell elongates and DNA replicates
  2. cell wall and plasma membrane begin to divide - formation of a septum in the middle of the cell (cross wall)
  3. Cross wall forms completely around divided DNA
  4. cells separate
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24
Q

Describe how Glucose becomes ATP

A
  1. glucose
  2. pyruvate –> can ferment into 2 ATP + acids and alcohols
  3. Acetyl CoA
  4. Krebs cycle
  5. Electron Transport chain
    IN THE PRESENCE OF O2
  6. 38 ATP, CO2, H2O (aerobic respiration)
    OR
    IN THE PRESENCE OF INORGANIC COMPOUNDS
  7. 34 ATP (anaerobic respiration)
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25
Q

What are two bacterial enzymes for normal functions or to resist immune cells?

A

Catalase and Coagulase

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26
Q

how does catalase work?

A

converted hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen to undermine immune cells

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27
Q

how does coagulase work

A

forms a clot around the bacteria to protect it from immune cells

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28
Q

does pathogenic staphylococcus have coagulase?

A

YES

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29
Q

does non-pathogenic staphylococcus have coagulase?

A

NO

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30
Q

what acid does gram+ bacteria have that gram- does not?

A

Teichoic acid

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31
Q

T or F
gram+ bacteria have an outer membrane

A

False
only gram- bacteria have an outer membrane

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32
Q

T or F
Both gram+ and gram - bacteria have peptidoglycan AND periplasmic space

A

False
both have peptidoglycan BUT only gram- has periplasmic space

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33
Q

what are the major functions of plasma membrane proteins (5)

A
  1. selective permeability and transport of solutes
  2. electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation, in aerobic species
  3. excretion of hydrolytic exoenzymes
  4. enzymes
  5. receptors and other proteins
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34
Q

describe the cell wall of gram- bacteria from superficial to deep

A
  1. Outer membrane (LPS and protein)
  2. peptidoglycan
  3. plasma membrane
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35
Q

describe the cell wall of gram+ bacteria from superficial to deep

A
  1. peptidoglycan
  2. periplastic space
  3. plasma membrane
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36
Q

where is the cell wall located in relation to the cytoplasmic membrane

A

external

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37
Q

how does the outer membrane change depending on bacteria type

A

it may vary in thickness and chemical composition

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38
Q

what are the two layers outside the peptidoglycan layer in gram- bacteria

A

periplasmic space and outer membrane

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39
Q

what is the outer membrane made of

A

lipoprotein and lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

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40
Q

what does the outer membrane prevent

A

the passage of large macromolecules

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41
Q

how are bacteria classified into positive or negative

A

cell wall composition

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42
Q

what does the cell wall provide (3)

A

protection
plays essential role in cell divison
shape (cocci, rods or spirochaetes)

43
Q

What does gram stain bind to?

A

peptidoglycan in cell wall

44
Q

what is the staining chemical?

A

Crystal violet

45
Q

What are faculative anaerobes?

A

can grow with or without O2

46
Q

example of a faculative anaerobe found in normal gut commensal

A

E. Coli
is harmless in get but pathogenic elsewhere

47
Q

What is an obligate aerobe

A

bacteria that need O2 to grow and perform aerobic metabolism

48
Q

What obligate aerobe exists on humans

A

Staphylococcus epidermis
lives on our skin

49
Q

what are Anaerobes

A

Bacteria that do NOT need O2
most vaginal/gut flora

50
Q

what is an obligate anaerobe

A

must NOT have any O2 to prosper

51
Q

what thre shapes can bacteria be classified into

A

cocci, Bacilli, spirochetes

52
Q

describe cocci

A

small spherical shapes

53
Q

describe bacilli

A

small elongated shape

54
Q

describe spirochetes

A

long, curved, bent

55
Q

what are the 3 ways cocci can be named by their arangment

A

Diplococci, streptococci, staphylococci

56
Q

describe diplococci

57
Q

describe streptococci

58
Q

describe staphylococci

A

in grapelike clusters

59
Q

what are general characteristics of bacteria

A

most are less than 1 micrometer
most abundant organisms
most tolerant of environmental conditions

60
Q

what is only bacteria that is not less than 1 micrometer

A

Bacillus anthracis
Large gram+
ranges from 3-10 micrometers

61
Q

Describe a prokaryote

A

no nucleus, genomic DNA in single chromosome
have plasmids to carry DNA and self replicate
transcription and translation happens simultaneously from genomic DNA
cell membrane covered by thick cell wall and lipid layers

62
Q

Describe a Eukarote

A

DNA carries in several chromosomes in membrane bound nucleus
translation from mRNA takes place on ribosomes
cytoplasm is rich in organelles
single plasma membrane

63
Q

what doe the pH scale measure

A

concentration of H+ ions

64
Q

is a pH of 14 acidic or alkaline

65
Q

what is the normal pH range of urine?

66
Q

what is the normal pH range of blood

67
Q

where are ionic bonds found in the body?

A

tissues and electrolytes

68
Q

what do ionic bonds give strength to

A

teeth and bones

69
Q

where do most ions stay in the body

A

watery fluid (ie. blood)

70
Q

what is an electrolyte?

A

substace that breaks into pos/neg ions when disolved in water or body fluids

71
Q

why are electrolytes important

A

regulate nerve and muscle function
hydration
balance blood pH
blood pressure

72
Q

Describe a covalent bond

A

most common and strong chemical bond in living organisms
forms when a pair of electrons is shared between 2 atoms

73
Q

describe a double covalent bond

A

2 atoms share 2 pairs of electrons
stronger than a single covalent bond
common in molecules where atoms need more than one pair of electrons to complete outer shell (Oxygen)

74
Q

what is proteinuria/ what does it indicate? in pregnancy?

A

high protein in urine
kidney diseases
pregnancy induced hypertension

75
Q

what does high glucose in urine indicate? in pregnancy?

A

diabetes, kidney disease
GDM

76
Q

What does high ketones in urine indicate?

A

Diabetes, anorexia or low carb diet

77
Q

wha does high urobilinogen in the urine indicate?

A

Hemolytic or pernicious anemia, hepatitis

78
Q

what is urobilinogen?

A

waste product from degraded hemoglobin

79
Q

what does high billirubin in urine indicate>

A

liver disease

80
Q

what does nitrite in the urine indicate

81
Q

What does hemoglobin or RBCs in urine indicate?

A

kidney disease, infection, trauma or tumors

82
Q

what does WBC in urine indicate

A

infection along the urinary system

83
Q

what is Rh incompatability

A

if an Rh- woman carries an Rh+ fetus during her first pregnancy, Rh+ antibies can enter her blood stream during delivery.
During later pregnancies, with an Rh+ fetus IgG antibodies can cross the placenta and cause lysis of fetal RBC

84
Q

what is the formal name for lysis of fetal RBC due to Rh incompatability

A

hemolytic desiease of the newborn or erythroblastosis fetalis

85
Q

what Rh blood type is cause for concern if the other biological parent blood type is positive

86
Q

describe the structure and function of RBCs

A

no nucleus, full of hemoglobin
Oxygen and CO2 transport between lungs and tissues

87
Q

describe the structure and function of WBCs

A

nucleated, multiple types and functions related to inflammation and immune protection of tissues

88
Q

describe the structure and function of platelets

A

no nucleus
activated to allow clotting by producing clotting factors during bleeding

89
Q

describe WBC count

A

typically given as a percentage of total blood cells
usually 0.1% of blood
marker of infection

90
Q

describe hematocrit

A

fraction of whole blood volume occupied by RBC
usually 40-45% of blood volume

91
Q

What is anemia

A

RBC deficiency

92
Q

what is polycythemia

A

RBC too high

93
Q

who can type A donate to/receive from

A

Donate: Type A, AB
receive: Type A, O

94
Q

who can type B donate to/receive from

A

Donate: B, AB
Receive: B, O

95
Q

who can type AB donate to/receive from

A

Donate: AB
Receive: all

96
Q

Who can type O donate to/receive from

A

Donate: All
receive; O

97
Q

what are the 5 WBC subsets

A

Neutrophil, Lymphocyte, Monocyte, Eosinophil, Basophil (never let monkeys eat bananas)

98
Q

frequency and function of neutrophil

A

60-70%
phagocytosis and inflammation

99
Q

frequency and function of Eosinophil

A

2-4%
control allergic reaction, combat nematodes

100
Q

Frequency and function of basophil

A

2-4%
increase allergic reaction

101
Q

Frequency and fucntion of lymphocyte

A

20-40%
mediate innate and adaptive immune responses

102
Q

Frequency and function of monocyte

A

3-8%
Phagocytosis, differentiate into macrophages