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Forensic Bio Lab > Lab Exam > Flashcards

Lab Exam Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Forensic Entomology

A

Study of insects and other arthropods in forensic contexts

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2
Q

3 general areas in which forensic entomologists practice

A

Stored-product entomology, urban entomology, medicolegal entomology

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3
Q

Medicolegal entomology

A

Study, analysis, and interpretation of insects associated with the corpse

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4
Q

PMI

A

Post-mortem interval, time since death

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5
Q

Use of insects in medicolegal entomology

A

PMI, areas of wounds, movement of body after death

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6
Q

Why is forensic entomology regional in nature?

A

Insect growth and development relies on biochemical processes that depend on moisture/humidity and temperature, as well as environmental data

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7
Q

Where is the insect pinned on the pinning block?

A

Top step

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8
Q

Where is the first label pinned on the pinning block?

A

Second step from top

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9
Q

What is on the first insect specimen label?

A

Date of collection, locality, name of collector, identification of insect

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10
Q

Where is the second label pinned on the pinning block?

A

Bottom step (3rd from top)

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11
Q

What goes on the second insect specimen label?

A

Method of collection, food source if raised in lab, area of body it was collected from

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12
Q

When is the det label added?

A

Last

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13
Q

Det Label

A

Determination label, produced by professional insect taxonomist that verifies genus and species

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14
Q

How are immature/soft bodied insects labelled?

A

One on the outside of the label and one on the inside in case the outer one falls off and to transfer the inside one with the contents

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15
Q

How are immature/soft bodied insects stored?

A

In a vial with 70-80% ethanol

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16
Q

What goes on immature/soft bodied insect vial labels?

A

Date of collection, locality, name of collector, identification of insect (if possible). Can include area of body, length of maggot when collected, and if maggot was blanched in boiling water to keep from shrinking in alcohol

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17
Q

Necrophagous Insects

A

Attracted to and feed on the carrion

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18
Q

Omnivorous Insects

A

May be attracted to the carrion as a food source for their larval stages, adults may feed on other insects present

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19
Q

Predaceous Insects

A

Attracted to the carrion due to the large numbers of other insects present to feed on

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20
Q

Adventitious Insects

A

Not necessarily attracted to the carrion at all but may be found in association with it if it is in their habitat

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21
Q

Diptera Pinning Position

A

Through centre of thorax

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22
Q

Coleoptera Pinning Position

A

Through upper right elytra and abdomen

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23
Q

Hymenoptera Pinning Position

A

Through centre of thorax

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24
Q

Hemiptera Pinning Position

A

Through right hand thorax

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25
Q

Odonata Pinning Position

A

Through centre of thorax

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26
Q

Beetle vs Fly Larvae

A

Beetles have prolegs, flies do not

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27
Q

Locard’s Principle

A

Whenever there is contact between two objects/people/etc., there is an exchange of material

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28
Q

How to Examine Leaf Fragments

A

Margin/teeth type, venation (primary, secondary, and tertiary)

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29
Q

Why is the underside used in an epidermal leaf peel?

A

So you can obtain an impression of the stomata pattern and venation of the epidermis

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30
Q

How do the acetone and acetate work together in a leaf peel?

A

Acetone adheres the acetate to the leaf. The acetone soften/melts the acetate and allows it to conform to the epidermal pattern of the leaf

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31
Q

How can you tell the difference between a leaf and a leaflet?

A

Leaf has a bud at the base and leaflet does not. Leaf has circular or semicircular base to surround the bud but leaflet does not.

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32
Q

Which tree is an exception to the leaf vs leaflet rules?

A

Sycamore tree has hollow petiole that encloses next year’s bud

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33
Q

Alternate Leaf Attachment

A

One leaf at each node (every other on each side)

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34
Q

Opposite Leaf Attachment

A

Two leaves at each node (one on each side at each spot)

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35
Q

Whorled Leaf Attachment

A

3 or more leaves at each node

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36
Q

Decussate Leaf Attachment

A

Each leaf attached at 90 degrees (not 180) from those above and below (opposite or alternate, but switches directions at each)

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37
Q

Aerial Net

A

A fine mesh net used to catch flying insects

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38
Q

Pan Trap

A

Plastic pan that can be counter sunk into the ground, 1/2 full of water/salt/soap mixture, to catch crawling and flying insects. Often yellow to attract dipterans and hymenopterans.

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39
Q

Pitfall Trap

A

Cup counter sunk in ground to catch crawling insects. A funnel on top to prevent them from getting out. 1/2 full of water/salt/soap/EtOH mixture.

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40
Q

Window Trap

A

Large piece of glass/plexiglass or even an old window suspended between trees with an eavestrough attached to bottom with water/salt/soap/EtOH mixture. Fly into window, stunned and fall into trap and are killed.

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41
Q

Aspirator

A

An arrangement of tubes and stoppers allowing small flying insects in particular to be sucked into a holding tube by the collector, using their own inhalation; screens or cotton gauze prevent inhalation of insect by collector.

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42
Q

Killing Jar

A

Jar with a screw cap and a wick or plaster of Paris that are soaked in ethyl acetate to kill insects when closed in the jar.

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43
Q

Insect Pins

A

Specialty coated straight pins that will not rust due to insect fluids

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44
Q

Pinning Block

A

A stepped block with a hole drilled in each step which will allow the appropriate spacing of insect and labels on a pin

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45
Q

Spreading Board

A

Used to mount moths, butterflies, dragon flies, or anything with large wings that are to be mounted in an open position

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46
Q

How to Use Spreading Board

A

Wings are spread on the wooden side platforms while the body of the insect is pinned in the groove down the middle of the board.

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47
Q

Pinning with Points

A

Insects too small to pin are glued to the point of a small triangular or tear dropped shape of archival quality card stock, and the mounting pin is placed through the wide end of the point.

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48
Q

Blow Fly vs Flesh Fly Maggots

A

Blow fly spiracles on surface, flesh fly spiracles are depressed

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49
Q

Calliphoridae

A

Blow Fly

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50
Q

Sarcophagidae

A

Flesh Fly

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51
Q

Admedial (Botany)

A

Toward the midline of the lamina

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52
Q

Apex (Botany)

A

Usually the upper ~25% of the lamina

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53
Q

Apical (Botany)

A

Toward the apex of the leaf

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54
Q

Basal (Botany)

A

Toward the base of the leaf

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55
Q

Base (Botany)

A

Usually the lower ~25% of the lamina

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56
Q

Concave (Botany)

A

Curving toward the center of the lamina or tooth

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57
Q

Convex (Botany)

A

Curving away from the center of the lamina or tooth

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58
Q

Costal Vein (Botany)

A

Primary and secondary veins that extend from the base of the leaf or from a primary
toward the leaf margin

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59
Q

Exmedial (Botany)

A

Away from the midline of the lamina

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60
Q

Intercoastal Area (Botany)

A

The region bounded by two costal veins

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61
Q

Lamina (Botany)

A

Blade of leaf. The expanded, flat part of a leaf or leaflet

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62
Q

Margin (Botany)

A

Edge of the lamina/blade

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63
Q

Midvein

A

Medial primary vein, in pinnate leaves this is the only primary

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64
Q

Node (Botany)

A

The place where a leaf is (or was) attached to the axis (stem)

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65
Q

Petiole

A

The stalk of a leaf

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66
Q

Petiolule

A

The stalk of a leaflet in a compound leaf

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67
Q

Primary Vein (Botany)

A

The widest vein of the leaf and any others of like width and/or course, usually originate at or just above the petiole

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68
Q

Rachis

A

The prolongation of the petiole of a pinnately compound leaf upon which leaflets are attached

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69
Q

Secondary Vein (Botany)

A 
The next narrower class of veins after the primary, originating from the primary
or primaries
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70
Q

Sessile

A

A leaf or leaflet that is lacking a petiole or petiolule

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71
Q

Tertiary Vein (Botany)

A 
The next narrower class of veins after the secondaries, originating from the
secondaries or primaries
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72
Q

Vein Course (Botany)

A

Path of the vein on the leaf

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73
Q

Munsell Colour System

A

Series of colour charts for soil horizon colour classification

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74
Q

Munsell Hue

A

Colours. Range from red to yellow

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75
Q

Munsell 10Y

A

Very yellow

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76
Q

Munsell 10R

A

Very red

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77
Q

Munsell 5YR

A

Half way between yellow and red

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78
Q

Munsell 7YR

A

More yellow than red

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79
Q

Munsell 2 YR

A

More red than yellow

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80
Q

Munsell Value

A

Scale from white to black, brightness of the colour

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81
Q

Munsell Chroma

A

Intensity of the colour, scale from grey to vibrant

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82
Q

What does Munsell 5YR:3/4 mean?

A

5YR: Hue

3: Value
4: Chroma

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83
Q

How are the Munsell colours written?

A

Hue: Value/Chroma

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84
Q

What is the soil profile of a podzol from top to bottom?

A

F1, F2, A1, A2, B1, B2, C

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85
Q

Soil Profile Top to Bottom

A

O layer (or F), A layer, B layer, C layer

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86
Q

F1 Soil Layer

A

Top litter layer, nothing broken down, whole leaf shapes, some fermentation, fungus

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87
Q

F2 Soil Layer

A

More decomposition but still littery, pine needle layer

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88
Q

A1 Soil Layer

A

Darker due to humus leaching down from F2

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89
Q

A2 Soil Layer

A

Elluvial, iron leached down and out, ashy colour

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90
Q

B1 Soil Layer

A

Illuvial, iron has washed in from above, orange brown from iron

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91
Q

B2 Soil Layer

A

Less orange brown

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92
Q

C Soil Layer

A

Unweathered and parent material

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93
Q

What type of soil is in Sudbury?

A

Podzol, or podzolic soil

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94
Q

What is podzol?

A

Hydromorphic soil, meaning there is a downward movement of water and ions and consequent leaching of constituents

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95
Q

How do you see soil profiles?

A

Core method or dig a pit with nice crisp vertical sides

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96
Q

Spheroidal Peds

A

Less than 1 cm diameter, granular or crumb

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97
Q

Granular vs Crumb Peds

A

Both small and spheroidal but granular is solid/hard/can’t crush easily, crumb can squish easily

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98
Q

Platy/Plate-Like Peds

A

In kaolin (non swelling clay), cracking in horizontal plane. Usually in subsoil, sometimes the result of particles leading down.

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99
Q

Prism-Like Peds

A

Honey comb shapes in strongly swelling clay. Prismatic or columnar.

100
Q

Prismatic vs Columnar Peds

A

Both look like honey comb pattern on top, but columnar is flat on top while prismatic is pointy when viewed from side

101
Q

Block-Like Peds

A

More than 1 cm diameter so slightly bigger than crumbs, more in subsoil. Blocky angular or blocky subangular

102
Q

Angular vs Subangular Blocky

A

Angular is more cube-like and subangular is more clumpy

103
Q

Coarse Sand

A

0.2-2 mm

104
Q

Fine Sand

A

0.02-0.2 mm

105
Q

Silt

A

0.002-0.02 mm

106
Q

Clay

A

Less than 0.002 mm

107
Q

Ped

A

A crumb of soil, the aggregate formed by particles

108
Q

Exceptions to Soil Peds

A

Sand is a single grain of soil, or when all grains are stuck together in a massive structure

109
Q

Gravel & Stones

A

Bigger than 2mm, little analysis

110
Q

Fine Earth

A

Less than 2mm, analysis of characteristics

111
Q

Why is a black light used to examine soils?

A

For fluorescence

112
Q

What makes a soil basic?

A

Lime (CaO) or metallic carbonates

113
Q

What makes a soil acidic?

A

Nitrates or sulfates

114
Q

How is the pH of soil measured?

A

Colours of universal indicator (acidic red to basic purple)

115
Q

Red Soil pH

A

Very acidic (0-3)

116
Q

Orange Soil pH

A

Moderately acidic (3-4.5)

117
Q

Yellow Soil pH

A

Slightly acidic (4.5-6.5)

118
Q

Green Soil pH

A

Neutral (6.5-7.5)

119
Q

Green-Blue Soil pH

A

Slightly basic (7.5-9.5)

120
Q

Purple Soil pH

A

Very basic (9.5-14)

121
Q

Range of Particle Sizes

A

If two samples come from the same location, they should have the same range of particle sizes

122
Q

How should soil colour be analyzed?

A

When the soil is wet, on a white background. Good to look at dry also.

123
Q

Forensic Serology

A

Study of blood and other bodily fluids in a legal context

124
Q

Presumptive Blood Tests

A

Tells you if it’s blood but not whether it is human. Hemastix, Phenolphthalein (Kastle-Meyer), Bluestar Forensic (luminol)

125
Q

Karl Landsteiner

A

Austrian biologist and physician that discovered that sometimes blood agglutinates when mixed with other blood, so he identified the ABO and Rh blood classification system

126
Q

Blood Typing Systems

A

ABO, MN, PGM, AK, ADA, G-6-D, 6-PGD, MAP, EsD, Hp

127
Q

Blood Type Product Rule

A

Chances of someone having those blood types

[100/% of pop with y blood type] x [100/% of pop with z blood typ)] … = 1/# of people

128
Q

Control Blood Tests

A

Do on known blood sample and known not blood sample to know what a negative and a positive test result look like and to ensure that the test is working properly

129
Q

How can you determine if blood is human?

A

Hexagon OBTI testing (the one that looks like a pregnancy test)

130
Q

How does ABO blood typing determined?

A

Aggultination indicates a positive result. Clumping in A is A blood, clumping in B is B blood, clumping in both A and B is AB blood, clumping in none is O blood, clumping in D is Rh+ and no clumping in D is Rh-

131
Q

How is ABO blood typing done?

A

A drop of blood in each of A, B, and D wells, then add 1-2 drops of anti-A, anti-B, and anti-D to the respective wells, positives will agglutinate

132
Q

How to Use Hemastix

A

1 drop of deionized water to pad end of test strip, rub damp bad onto “blood”, wait 60 seconds, note colour change. Colour change orange through blue indicates blood, no colour is a negative result (no blood or not enough to detect with this test).

133
Q

How to do Phenolphthalein Blood Test

A

Moisten swab with 1-2 drops deionized water and rub onto “blood”. 1-2 drops of alcohol on swab, 1-2 drops of phenolphthalein on swab, make sure no colour change yet, 1-2 drops of hydrogen peroxide onto swab, note colour change. Pink indicates blood, no colour is negative.

134
Q

How does Hexagon OBTI Test detect human blood?

A

Detects hemoglobin

135
Q

What can give a positive Hexagon OBTI test?

A

Human, primate, ferret, and skunk blood

136
Q

How to do Hexagon OBTI Test

A

Collect blood sample on swab, break swab off into tube, close tube and shake gently. Place test on level surface, break tip off tube and drop 2 drops into the S sample well. Wait 5 mins for result and wait 10 to confirm negative.

137
Q

Hexagon OBTI Test

A

Looks like pregnancy test, to determine if blood is human

138
Q

How is a positive Hexagon OBTI test determined?

A

Control line and test line. Only control line is negative, 2 lines (even if the second one is weak) is positive. No lines means the test did not work.

139
Q

How do you know if the Hexagon OBTI test is working?

A

Blue control line

140
Q

What if there is one line on the Hexagon OBTI test?

A

Only control line, not test line. Wait 10 mins and if still only one line, it is negative.

141
Q

What if there is no lines on the Hexagon OBTI test?

A

The test didn’t work, try again with a new test

142
Q

Where should you stab lancet for blood typing?

A

Side of fingertip pad of warm ring finger after shaking blood in arm down to hand

143
Q

What blood type is the universal donor?

A

O-

144
Q

Parts of Pelvis Used for Sex Determination

A

Sub-pubic angle, pubis body width, greater sciatic notch, pelvic cavity shape

145
Q

Parts of Skull Used for Sex Determination

A

Upper edge of eye orbit, shape of eye orbit (but more for race), zygomatic process, nuchal crest (occipital bone), external occipital protuberance, frontal bone, mandible shape, ramus of mandible

146
Q

Parts of Femur Used for Sex Determination

A

Vertical (maximum) diameter of femoral head, bicondylar width, max length

147
Q

Parts of Humerus Used for Sex Determination

A

Transverse diameter of humeral head, vertical diameter of humeral head, max length, epicondylar width

148
Q

Male vs Female Sub-pubic Angle

A

F more than 90 degrees, M 90 degrees or less

149
Q

Male vs Female Pubis Body Width

A

F ∼40 mm, M 25-30 mm

150
Q

Male vs Female Greater Sciatic Notch

A

F less than 68 degrees, M more than 68 degrees

151
Q

Male vs Female Pelvic Cavity Shape

A

F circular and wide (only shows coccyx), M heart shaped (can see sacrum too)

152
Q

Male vs Female Upper Edge of Eye Orbit

A

F sharp, M blunt

153
Q

Male vs Female Shape of Eye Orbit

A

M round, F square, but more used for race

154
Q

Male vs Female Zygomatic Process

A

M expressed beyond external auditory meatus, F not

155
Q

Male vs Female Nuchal Crest (Occipital Bone)

A

F smooth, M rough and bumpy

156
Q

Male vs Female external Occipital Protuberance

A

Present on M, not on F

157
Q

Male vs Female Frontal Bone

A

F round and globular, M low and slanting. Look at whole head for more round or foot-ball shaped skull.

158
Q

Male vs Female Mandible Shape

A

F rounded V shape, M squared U shape

159
Q

Male vs Female Ramus of Mandible

A

F slanted, M more straight (like 90 degrees)

160
Q

Male vs Female Vertical (maximum) Diameter of Femoral Head

A

F less than 43.5mm, M more than 44.5 mm, in between is indeterminate

161
Q

Male vs Female Bicondylar Width of Femur

A

F is less than 74 mm, M is more than 76 mm, in between is indeterminate

162
Q

Male vs Female Max Length of Femur

A

F is less than 405 mm, M is more than 430 mm, in between is indeterminate

163
Q

Male vs Female Transverse Diameter of Humeral Head

A

F 37-39 mm, M 42.7-44.7 mm

164
Q

Male vs Female Vertical Diameter of Humeral Head

A

F 42.7 mm, M 48.8 mm

165
Q

Male vs Female Max Length of Humerus

A

F 305.9 mm, M 339 mm

166
Q

Male vs Female Epicondylar Width of Humerus

A

F 56.8 mm, M 63.9 mm

167
Q

Parts of Skeleton Used for Race Determination

A

Nasal index, nasal spine, nasal selling/guttering, prognathism, shape of eye orbits, femur curvature

168
Q

How to Calculate Nasal Index

A

nasal width mm/nasal height mm

169
Q

Nasal Index & Race

A

Caucasoid less than 0.48, Negroid more than 0.53, Mongoloid in between

170
Q

Nasal Spine & Race

A

Caucasoid prominent, Mongoloid somewhat prominent, Negroid very small

171
Q

Nasal Silling/Guttering & Race

A

Caucasoid sharp ridge, Mongoloid rounded ridge, Negroid no ridge

172
Q

Prognathism & Race

A

Caucasoid straight, Mongoloid variable, Negroid prognathic

173
Q

Prognathic

A

Lower jaw (mandible) sticks out past upper jaw (maxilla)

174
Q

Shape of Eye Orbits & Race

A

Caucasoid rounded/somewhat square, Mongoloid rounded/somewhat circular, Negroid rectangular

175
Q

Femur & Race

A

Caucasoid - fingers can fit under curvature of femur, Negroid - cannot

176
Q

What is the age when pubis and ischium are almost completely united by bone?

A

7-8

177
Q

What is the age when the ilium, ishium, and pubis bones are joined together?

A

13-14

178
Q

What is the age when the two lowest segments of sacra vertebrae become joined together

A

18

179
Q

What is the age when the ilium, ishium, and pubis bones become fully ossified with no evidence of epiphyseal unions (indicated by cartilaginous lines)?

A

20-25

180
Q

What is the age when all segments of the sacrum are united with no evidence of epiphyseal unions?

A

25-30

181
Q

What is the age when the greater trochanter of the femur first appears?

A

4

182
Q

What is the age when the lesser trochanter of the femur first appears?

A

13-14

183
Q

What is the age when the head, greater trochanter, and lesser trochanter first join the shaft of the femur?

A

18

184
Q

What is the age when the condyles first join the shaft of the femur?

A

20

185
Q

What is the age when the head and tuberosities of the humerus join to become a single large epiphysis?

A

6

186
Q

What is the age when the radial head, trochlea, and external condyle of the humerus blend and unite with the shaft?

A

16-17

187
Q

What is the age when the internal condyle unites with the shaft of the humerus?

A

18

188
Q

What is the age when the upper epiphysis unites with the shaft of the humerus?

A

20

189
Q

What do forensic odontologists do?

A

Use teeth, x-rays, and antemortem dental records to identify human remains and examine bite mark injuries

190
Q

What teeth do humans have?

A

On each side and upper and lower (so x4) from medial to lateral: central incisor, lateral incisors, canine (cuspid), 1st premolar (1st bicuspid), 2nd premolar (2nd bicuspid), 1st molar, 2nd molar, wisdom tooth (3rd molar)

191
Q

What are the incisors for?

A

Cutting into food

192
Q

What are the canines for?

A

Tearing food

193
Q

What are the molars for?

A

Grinding food

194
Q

When do the adult central incisors erupt?

A

7-8

195
Q

When do the adult lateral incisors erupt?

A

8-9

196
Q

When do the adult canines erupt?

A

11-12

197
Q

When do the adult first premolars erupt?

A

10-11

198
Q

When do the adult second premolars erupt?

A

10-12

199
Q

When do the adult first molars erupt?

A

6-7 years

200
Q

When do the adult second molars erupt?

A

12-13 years

201
Q

When do the adult third molars erupt?

A

There is no baby ones/they are not shed, they erupt at 17-21 years

202
Q

X on Tooth Chart

A

Missing tooth

203
Q

x on Tooth Chart

A

Broken tooth

204
Q

O on Tooth Chart

A

Crown

205
Q

OΠO on Tooth Chart (Π above Os connecting them)

A

Bridge

206
Q

● on Tooth Chart

A

Filling

207
Q

Teeth Numbering

A

Upper teeth 1-16, lower teeth 17-32. Start at patients top right and go around in circle to end at bottom right

208
Q

Arch Width (Odontology)

A

Distance from one cuspid across to the cuspid on the other side of the same set

209
Q

Shape of Dental Arch

A

C shaped, oval shaped, U shaped

210
Q

Labiolingual Position

A

Where tooth is aligned on jaw

211
Q

Rotational Position (Odontology)

A

Whether tooth is twisted, how much, which direction

212
Q

Intertooth Spacing

A

Spacing between teeth

213
Q

What should be noted about bite marks?

A

Arch width, shape of dental arch, labiolingual position, rotational position, inter tooth spacing, tooth width & thickness, curvatures of biting edges, wear patterns, unusual dental anatomy

214
Q

Albedo

A

Reflection coefficient (SW^/SWv)

215
Q

Why is the thermocouple on the end of a metre stick?

A

To ensure that the temperature measured is unaffected by proximity to a heat source like the people doing the experiment

216
Q

Why is there a higher vapour density right above the rat?

A

Higher humidity because it is essentially a bag of water that is losing water. It is also more resistant to water loss with its fur.

217
Q

Why would there be no temperature change with height?

A

Ground is not heating, sun is not strong, there are clouds blocking the sun

218
Q

The ground as an energy exchange surface

A

It absorbs energy from the sun. The sun is heating the ground more than anything else. It is like a stovetop.

219
Q

Relative Humidity vs Vapour Density

A

Relative humidity is dependent on temperature, which is relative. Vapour density is absolute.

220
Q

Why is the ground warmer than the air?

A

It is more insulated so it holds its temperature longer than the constantly changing air.

221
Q

Why is PCR favoured over RFLP-based DNA fingerprinting?

A

PCR is more sensitive so smaller amounts of DNA can be used. It is also faster.

222
Q

Why is Taq polymerase used in PCR?

A

It remains stable at near-boiling temperatures

223
Q

Why do we apply high heat to the DNA mixture for PCR?

A

To denature it, to disrupt the H bonds between strands and separate them

224
Q

Why do we cool the DNA mixture for PCR after high heat?

A

Annealing, primers bind to the separated DNA strands

225
Q

Why do we heat the DNA mixture to an intermediate heat after cooling in PCR?

A

Extension, taq polymerase adds nucleotides to the primers to complete new strands

226
Q

How is DNA fingerprinting done?

A

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

227
Q

What does chewing cheeks and rinsing with water do? (DNA)

A

Scrape off and harvest old cheek cells

228
Q

What does detergent do? (DNA)

A

Lysis. Dissolve the cheek cell phospholipid bilayer membranes, like dishwashing detergent removes oils and fats from dishes

229
Q

Lysis Buffer

A

Solution containing the detergent to lyse cells

230
Q

What does protease and heat to 50 degrees do?

A

Breaks down proteins so that they can no longer bind to the DNA

231
Q

What are the salt and cold alcohol used for? (DNA)

A

Precipitate the long thin DNA strands. Alcohol makes them less soluble.

232
Q

Why must labels be made in pencil?

A

Alcohol can wash away ink

233
Q

Carrion Beetle Larvae

A

Armoured

234
Q

Skin Beetle Larvae

A

Hairy

235
Q

Scarab Beetle Larvae

A

White grubs. Look more maggoty with prolegs, lumpy with legs.

236
Q

Class Arachnida

A

Spiders, scorpions, mites, ticks

237
Q

Subclass Apterygota vs Pterygota

A

A has no wings, but Ptery are winged insects

238
Q

Order Odonata

A

Dragonflies

239
Q

Order Hemiptera

A

True bugs

240
Q

Order Coleoptera

A

Beetles

241
Q

Order Lepidoptera

A

Butterflies and moths

242
Q

Order Diptera

A

True flies

243
Q

Order Hymenoptera

A

Bees, wasps, ants

244
Q

5 pine needles

A

White Pine

245
Q

What will cause Bluestar Forensic to give a false positive?

A

Certain household detergents, chlorine, some paints, varnishes, and copper. Some iron-metabolizing plants and soils with iron.

246
Q

How can you tell a false positive with Bluestar Forensic?

A

Intensity, colour, and duration are different

Forensic Bio Lab (1 decks)

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