Lab 5 code management Flashcards

1
Q

What is code yellow

A

missing patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is code green

A

Evacuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is code orange

A

Mass casualty event has occurred alerts everyone to prepare for a lot of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is a code brown

A

hazardous spill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is a code grey

A

System failure ie water electricity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is a code silver

A

means there is an active attacker in the hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what rate should you perform chest compressions at

A

100-120 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

to what depth should you compress an adults chest while performing compressions

A

compress at least 2 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the breaths to compression ratio

A

30 compressions: 2 breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 5 rights of clinical reasoning

A

Right Cues
Right action
Right patient
Right reason
Right time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the steps of the clinical reasoning cycle

A

-Consider the patient situation
-Information collection
-Process information
-Identify the problem
-Establish goals
-Take action
-Evaluate outcomes
-Reflect on process and new learning
Consider the patient, take a good look,
Collect all the info, like reading a book.
Process the data, think what it shows,
Identify the problem, see where it goes.
Establish your goals, clear and precise,
Take action now, don’t think twice.
Evaluate outcomes, check what’s been done,
Reflect on your learning, improvement begun.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is failure to rescue

A

The inability of clinicians to save a patient’s life by timely diagnosis and treatment when a complication develops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the 4 major causes of failure to rescue

A

-failure to recognize clinical deterioration
-Failure to communicate and escalate concerns
-Failure to physically assess the patient
-failure to diagnose and treat the patient appropriately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 4 steps to preventing failure to rescue

A

-Surveillance/ assessment
-Timely identification of complications
-Taking action
-Activating a team response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is usually the first sign of neurological deterioration

A

Restlessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is one of the earliest signs of instability?

A

Resp rate increase to above 20 per/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How much oxygen can nasal cannula provide per minute

A

1-6 L/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How much oxygen can a simple face mask provide per minute

A

6-10 L/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How much oxygen can a non rebreather mask provide per minute

A

10-15 L/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are two ways to improve ventilation in a patient that is experiencing acute respiratory failure

A

-create positive end expiratory pressure with a device during resp failure
-Endotracheal intubation

21
Q

what 4 main elements are required for the heart to function properly

A

-oxygenation
-Perfusion
-electrolytes
-acid/base balance

22
Q

what is the first sign of cardiac deterioration

A

heart rate increases to above 100 bpm

23
Q

When would you call the MRP in regards to the patients resp rate

A

if they had resp rate greater than 25 or less than 8 or increased work of breathing

24
Q

When would you call the MRP in regards to a patients blood pressure

A

if there is a systolic pressure less than 90 or a drop of more than 30

25
Q

when would you call the MRP in regards to a patient’s heart rate

A

if they had a heart rate greater than 120 or less than 50

26
Q

When would you call the MRP in regards to a patient’s LOC

A

if they had a sudden change in LOC or had a GCS score less than 10

27
Q

When would you call the MRP in regards to a patient’s O2 saturation

A

if the have an SPO2 of less than 90% and the patient is on around 8L of O2 (50% FiO2)

28
Q

When would you call the MRP in regards to a patient’s urine output

A

if they had a urine output of less the 80 mL over the last 4 hours

29
Q

When would you call the MRP in regards to seizures

A

if they had new repeated or prolonged seizures

30
Q

when would you call the MRP in regards to chest pain

A

if they had chest pain that wasn’t relieved by nitro spray as ordered

31
Q

When would you call the MRP for things not related to the patient’s vital signs or output

A

-If they were exhibiting FAST VAN stroke symptoms
-If they had unexpected significant bleeding
-The patient is failing to respond to treatment ie BP not coming up after administering a fluid bolus

32
Q

when would you start to suspect sepsis in a patient

A

If the patient had two of the following:
-HR greater than 90
-RR greater than 20
-Temp of 38 or greater or less than 36
-WBC greater than 12 or less than 4.0x10^9
-Change in LOC
AND confirmed or suspected source of infection

33
Q

What is always the prefered method of communication

A

Always communicate with SBAR

34
Q

What are the components of a primary survey during a code

A

-Rapid assessment of the patient and the environment
-ABC
-D (AVPU)

35
Q

What are the 4 different levels of responsiveness in an AVPU assessment

A

-Alert
-Verbal stimuli
-Painful stimuli
-U-Unresponsive

36
Q

What are the most common reversible causes of cardiac arrest

A

H’s
-Hypovolemia
-Hypoxia
-Hydrogen (acidosis)
-Hypo/hyperkalemia
-Hypothermia
T’s
-Tension pneumo
-Tamponade cardiac
-Toxins
-Thrombosis, pulmonary
-Thrombosis, coronary

37
Q

Should the family be present during a code situation

A

Yes there is overwhelming evidence that it has the best outcomes if the family is present during the code

38
Q

what is the emphasis of the post resuscitation period

A

-maintain optimal tissue oxygenation and perfusion
-identify the cause of the arrest
-initiate treatment

39
Q

When should you call a code blue

A

-When your patient is in respiratory or cardiac arrest
-When your assessment suggests early warning signs of arrest
-When directed to do so

40
Q

What health care staff compose CCOT

A

-Critically trained RN from ICU
-Respiratory therapist

41
Q

What are the different stages in the respiratory bell curve

A

-20 RR
-24 RR
-30 RR
-Increasing through 40’s
-Decreases to 4-10
-Apnea

42
Q

What are the different stages of neurological deterioration

A

-Restless
-Anxious
-Irritable
-Agitated
-Confused
-Combative
-Lethargic
-Unresponsive

43
Q

when would you stop performing abdominal thrusts on a patient

A

when the item they are choking on becomes dislodged or the person loses consciousness

44
Q

What are the three steps in performing CPR

A

-Chest compressions
-Airway
-Breaths
*remember CAB abbreviation (this is also kind of the priorities ie the #1 priority should be chest compressions)

45
Q

What is the chest compression to ventilation ratio

A

30 compressions : for every 2 breaths

46
Q

what technique is used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient

A

head tilt/chin lift

47
Q

after delivering a shock with an AED how long should CPR be performed for until the next rhythm check

A

2 minutes

48
Q

When would you stop CPR if a patient begins to breath on their own

A

when they start breathing on their own 10 times per min

49
Q

is there any difference in the number of compressions or the rate at which you perform compressions for a child vs an adult

A

No all the same