Lab 3 post operative complications Flashcards

1
Q

what would a mild fever within the first 2 days post op indicate

A

could be a normal finding since a mild fever comes along with the normal inflammatory response after surgery

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2
Q

When is a patient most at risk for dizziness and fainting

A

24-48 hours post op

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3
Q

what types of anesthetic puts the patient at the most risk for dizziness and fainting and why

A

spinal and epidural anesthetic since it block autonomic muscle tone so blood vessels don’t constrict as they should to maintain blood pressure

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4
Q

If there is a change in cardiac or neurological functioning what is often the first vital sign to change

A

usually respiratory rate

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5
Q

how long does it usually take for acute respiratory syndrome to present after surgery

A

24-48 hours

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6
Q

what are signs and symptoms of ARDS

A

-Rapid shallow breathing
-severe hypoxemia
-crackles in lungs
-no cough
-chest pain
-hemoptysis

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7
Q

what are signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock

A

-decreasing blood pressure
-increasing pulse
-cold, clammy, pale skin

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8
Q

what is paralytic ileus

A

the delayed return of GI peristalsis

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9
Q

What are some interventions to prevent paralytic ileus

A

-encourage early ambulation
-encourage splinting of abdomen after surgeries
-Start bowel protocol early on with patients especially with narcotic use
-keep patients on fluids until active bowel sounds

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10
Q

when does dehiscence usually occur post op

A

usually 7-10 days post operativley

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11
Q

what is a hematoma?

A

Area immediate to the surgical site which fills with blood causing swelling and discoloration

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12
Q

what are the three different types of pain?

A

-Nociceptive
-Visceral
-Neuropathic

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13
Q

What is nociceptive pain

A

pain that results from damage to body tissue

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14
Q

what is visceral pain

A

pain that comes from the visceral organs

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15
Q

what is neuropathic pain

A

pain that originates from a central or peripheral nerve

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16
Q

what are the different phases of pain transmission

A

Transduction
transmission
perception
modulation

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17
Q

what is the onset of action of morphine

A

17 min

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18
Q

what is the onset of action of hydromorphone

A

15 min

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19
Q

what is the onset of action of fentanyl

20
Q

what medication may be used if a patient is experiencing pruritus

A

Diphenhydramine (benadryl)

21
Q

when would a nurse administer narcan

A

-respiratory rate of less than 8
-sedation scale score of 4 or less

22
Q

if a patient does not wake up after the first dose of naloxone what should a nurse do

A

continue to administer 0.1 mg every two minutes four time or until the patient wakes up

23
Q

why is it important for patients on PCA to have a patent IV

A

if they overdose IV is the prefered route to give naloxone

24
Q

when would you notify the physician that you had to give your patient naloxone

A

if you had to give more than 5 doses

25
who is allowed to push the control button on a PCA pump
only the patient (family or friends should be instructed not to touch the pump)
26
how often should a nurse check how much medication a patient has received from a PCA pump
should be checked every 4 hours and totaled up at the end of shift
27
which would be more potent spinal or epidural analgesic
spinal since it is injected closer to the spinal cord where the opioid receptors are
28
how do spinal and epidural anesthetics affect motor function
with an epidural the goal is still to have motor function while with a spinal motor function is absent
29
what is the most effective way to assess dermatome levels
using ice since temperature and pain sensation utilize the same spinal pathways
30
what spinal nerves innervate from the collarbone down to the belly button
T1-T10 "T10 to the belly button"
31
what area of the body does L1-L3 innervate
From the groin to the knee "L3 to the knee"
32
what spinal nerves innervate from the groin to the top of the foot
L1-L4 "L4 to the floor"
33
what spinal nerve inervates the buttox
S1 "S1 around the bum"
34
which spinal nerves innervate the diaphragm
C3 C4 C5 "C3, 4, 5 keep the diaphragm alive"
35
between hydromorphone morphine and fentanyl put them in order of lipid solubility
1. Fentanyl 2. Hydromorphone 3. morphine
36
how much further does autonomic blockade extend above sensation blockade while a patient is receiving epidural analgesia
autonomic blockade usually extends about 2 dermatomes above sensation
37
what is the onset of epidural blockade (ie what functions of the body does it block first)
-sympathetic nerve functioning (since they are the smallest) -sensation -motor function (if the patient started to receive too much) *remember with an epidural they should NOT have a block of motor function just with a spinal
38
how does an epidural blockade spread through the body
starts at the insertion site and then spreads out from there toward the feet and toward the head
39
what is the onset of epidural blockade recovery (ie what functions of the body would come back first after stopping the anasthetic)
-motor nerves recover first since they are the largest -sensation -autonomic nerves (since they are the smallest)
40
how far can an epidural catheter migrate before you have to alert the physician
NONE and epidural catheter is not allowed to migrate at all
41
what things should be assessed with an epidural
-external length of cath -exit site and dressing -degree of motor and sensory block -pain levels -sedation score
42
where is the tip of the catheter located in spinal anesthesia
within the subarachnoid space
43
how is the level of a spinal block assessed
by touching the patients skin
44
how is the level of an epidural block assessed
by touching ice to the patient's skin
45
what kind of medication is used in a spinal
local anesthetic and/or an opioid
46
what level is a spinal usually injected at
usually injected into the lumbar level and around L4/L5