Lab 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How can we identify a negative motility from the SIM media test?

A

Negative test is indicated by growth being along the inoculation path. (well-defined inoculation path.)

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2
Q

What metabolic process could bacteria have if they are positive for S in SIM test?

A

Sulfur reduction

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3
Q

What metabolic process do bacteria have if they are positive for I in SIM test?

A

Indole production (the hydrolysis of tryptophan to indole, pyruvic acid, and ammonia)

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4
Q

What do bacteria have if they are positive for M in a SIM test?

A

They have a motility organelle. Most commonly a flagella.

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5
Q

What enzyme is responsible for urea hydrolysis?

A

Urease

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6
Q

What color indicates a positive urea hydrolysis test?

A

Bright pink (fuchsia)

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7
Q

What is the pH indicator used in the urea hydrolysis test?

A

Phenol red

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8
Q

What happens to the pH when urea is hydrolyzed?

A

The pH increases due to ammonia production

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9
Q

What enzyme mediates nitrate reduction?

A

Nitrate reductase

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10
Q

What does a red color indicate after adding reagents A and B in the nitrate reduction test?

A

Positive result for nitrate reduction (NO3 to NO2)

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11
Q

During nitrate reduction test; what does no color change after adding reagents A and B indicate?

A

Nitrate was not reduced or was fully reduced beyond nitrite

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12
Q

Why is zinc added in the nitrate reduction test?

A

To check if nitrate is still present by forcing its reduction to nitrite

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13
Q

During a nitrate reduction test; what does a red color after adding zinc indicate?

A

Negative result for nitrate reduction (nitrate was not reduced by the organism)

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14
Q

In a nitrate reduction test; what does no color change after adding zinc indicate?

A

Positive result for complete nitrate reduction (beyond nitrite)

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15
Q

What is the purpose of the nitrate reduction test?

A

To determine if bacteria can reduce nitrate (NO₃⁻) to nitrite (NO₂⁻) or other nitrogenous compounds using nitrate reductase.

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16
Q

What enzyme mediates nitrate reduction?

A

Nitrate reductase.

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17
Q

What does a red color indicate after adding reagents A and B in the nitrate reduction test?

A

A positive result, meaning nitrate was reduced to nitrite.

18
Q

What happens if no color change occurs after adding reagents A and B, during a nitrate reduction test?

A

The bacteria either did not reduce nitrate or reduced it further beyond nitrite.

19
Q

What is the purpose of adding zinc in the nitrate reduction test?

A

To determine if nitrate was still present in the broth, indicating a negative result if it turns red.

20
Q

In a nitrate reduction test; what does it mean if no color change occurs even after adding zinc?

A

The bacteria reduced nitrate to nitrogen gas or other nitrogenous compounds, indicating a positive result.

21
Q

What does “MR” mean from the MR-VP lab?

A

Methyl red

22
Q

What does “VP” mean from the MR-VP lab?

A

Vogues-Proskaurer

23
Q

What is the MR test testing for?

A

Mixed-acid fermentation pathway. Causing a significant decrease in the pH.

24
Q

Why does the mixed-acid fermentation pathway significantly reduce the pH of the medium compared to other acid producing metabolic pathways?

A

Because it produces 4 moles of acidic products to every 1 mole of glucose fermented.

25
Q

Why is methyl red used as a pH indicator in the MR test?

A

Because it is a less sensitive pH indicator. It changes color from yellow to red at a pH of 4.4 or below. While other pH indicators will pick up a pH change at a higher pH.

26
Q

What is the VP test testing for?

A

If the bacteria ferement glucose via the butanediol pathway.

27
Q

What color is a positive MR test?

28
Q

What does the butanediol pathway produce?

A

Produces Acetoin as an intermediate, which can be further reduced to 2,3-butanediol.

29
Q

What are we testing for in the VP test?

A

Testing for the presence of Acetoin. Acetoin can be be oxidized by KOH (Reagent B) with α-naphthol (Reagent A) acting as a catalyst. Acetoin oxidized produces Diacetyl. Diacetyl reacts with the guanidine group in the medium to form a pinkish-red colored product.

30
Q

Define bacterial transformation.

A

Uptake a free DNA (plasmid) by cells.

31
Q

Define a plasmid

A

A small circular piece of double-stranded DNA

32
Q

What type of agar was used in the Bacterial transformaton: pGFP?

A

LB agar: another type of nutrient agar.

33
Q

How were we able to test if the the bacteria was able to receive the plasmid?

A

If the bacteria became antibiotic resistant, and is able to grow on the agar imbued with ampicilin

34
Q

What does the GFP gene encode?

A

Encodes a protein called green fluorecent protein.

35
Q

Is the GFP gene expression regulated?

A

Yes the GFP gene is regulated by a Lac operon.

36
Q

What plates is the GFP protein expressed on and why?

A

+DNA/LB+Amp+IPTG. The GFP gene is a regulated gene by a lac operon. IPTG is a lactose isomer, and binds to the repressor causing the repressor to unlatch from the operon. Allowing the gene to be transcribed.

37
Q

What is the name of the test in the Antimicrobial Susceptibility lab?

A

Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion susceptibility test.

38
Q

What is the purpose of the antimicrobial susceptibility test?

A

Determine the bacterial resistance to antimicrobials.

39
Q

Define the Zone of inhibition.

A

The area of no bacterial growth surrounding an antimicrobial drug disk.

40
Q

Why does the zone of inhibition size have no meaning on its own

A

Because different antimicrobal agents have different diffusion rates. One my have a higher diffusion rate compared to their smaller zone of inhibition size meaning that antimicrobal agent is less affective against the bacteria.

41
Q

Define a bacteriostatic antibiotic.

A

Antibiotics that inhibit microbial cell growth.

42
Q

Define a bactericidal antibiotic.

A

Antibiotics that result in the antibiotic killing the bacterial cells.