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A&P > Lab 165 MT 2 > Flashcards

Lab 165 MT 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Mutualism

A

Organisms that have a beneficial relationship to their hosts.

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2
Q

Parasitism

A

Organisms that have a detrimental relationship with host.

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3
Q

Commensalism

A

Organisms whose presence does not affect the host.

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4
Q

Antibiotic

A

Medication that kills bacteria

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5
Q

What is a side effect of antibiotics

A

Also kill the bacteria responsible for maintaining an acidic environment in the mouth, intestine and vagina.

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6
Q

Candidiasis

A

Yeast infection

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7
Q

Microorgansims/Microbes

A

Living organisms too small to be seen without a microscope

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8
Q

Types of microorganisms

A

Bacteria
Protozoa
Fungi

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9
Q

Prokaryote

A

Lack a nucleus (and other membrane bound organelles)
Includes bacteria

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10
Q

Eukaryotes

A

Possess a nucleus (and other membrane bound organelles)
Includes fungi, protozoa, parasitic worms, plants and animals

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11
Q

What types of organisms are prokaryotes?

A

Bacteria

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12
Q

What types of organisms are eukaryotes?

A

Protozoa
Fungi
Parasitic worms

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13
Q

Infection

A

A process where a microbes has breached the surface of the body, enters the body tissues and multiplies.

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14
Q

Infectious disease

A

An infection that causes noticeable impairment of body function.

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15
Q

Normal flora

A

Microorganisms established on a body surface without producing disease.

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16
Q

Transient flora

A

Microorganisms that inhabit the body sporadically.

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17
Q

Pathogenic flora

A

Microorganisms that produce infectious disease.

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18
Q

What are some beneficial things that microorganisms produce?

A

Yogurt
Alcohol
Vit.K
elements of Vit.B complex
decomposition
Nitrogen fixation

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19
Q

Immersion Oils

A

Transparent oils that have specific optical and viscosity necessary for use in microscopy. Allows unrefracted rays to enter lens.

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20
Q

Virus

A

Acellular infectious agent

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21
Q

Virion

A

Single virus particle, much smaller than a true cell.

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22
Q

What do viruses consist of?

A

RNA/DNA
Capsid
May have enzymes
May have envelope

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23
Q

Capsid

A

Protein coat of a virus

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24
Q

Where does a virus get its envelope from?

A

Previous host cell during release of the virus

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25
Q

Obligate intracellular parasite

A

An organism that does not have it’s own metabolic machinery, can only replicate and display living properties when inside a host cell.
Viruses.

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26
Q

Naked Virus

A

Does not possess an envelope

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27
Q

How do most viruses enter human cells?

A

Endocytosis or fusion of envelope with cell membrane.

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28
Q

What is the reproductive mechanism of a virus?

A

They cause large amounts of nucleic acids and proteins to be synthesized by the host cell, which then combine to form new viral particles.

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29
Q

Lyse

A

When infected cells fill with new viral particles and break open.

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30
Q

Viral shed

A

Infected cells shed viral particles without lysing.

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31
Q

Spikes

A

Viral proteins incorporated into the viral envelope.
Essential for the attachment of a virus to the host cell.

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32
Q

What types of infections do viruses cause?

A

HIV, Herpes, Varicella, Flu, Cold, Rabies, Hepatitis, Small pox

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33
Q

Complex viruses

A

Have intricate structures that may combine polyhedral and helical shapes, or may lack a capsid completely.

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34
Q

Cocci

A

Bacteria that are spherical in shape

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35
Q

Bacilli

A

Bacteria that are rod shaped

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36
Q

Spirilla

A

Bacteria that are spiral in shape

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37
Q

Strepto-

A

Chains

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38
Q

Staphylo-

A

Clumps

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39
Q

Diplo-

A

Pairs

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40
Q

Gram-positive

A

Thick peptidoglycan layer that stains dark purple

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41
Q

Gram-negative

A

Thin peptidoglycan layer that stains light pink

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42
Q

How do fungi gain nutrients

A

Absorption

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43
Q

Hyphae

A

Multicellular filaments that grow into mats called mycelia.

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44
Q

Spore

A

Reproductive cell of a fungus

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45
Q

What do molds consist of?

A

Vegetative mycelium and reproductive structures

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46
Q

Vegetative mycelium

A

The portion of the fungus that is used in energy gathering and absorptive nutrition

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47
Q

Protozoa

A

Unicellular eukaryotic organisms which lack a cell wall.

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48
Q

Four main classes of protozoa

A

Amoeba
Ciliates
Flagellates
Sporozoa

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49
Q

Ameoba movement

A

Move by a flowing amoeboid movement

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50
Q

Ciliate movement

A

Propelled by host hair like cilia

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51
Q

Flagellate movement

A

One or more whip like flagella

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52
Q

Sporozoa movement

A

No known means of movement

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53
Q

Giardiasis and Cryptosporidiosis

A

Conditions caused by pathogenic protozoans
Cause malabsorptive diarrhea, weight loss, ab cramps

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54
Q

Plasmodium vivax

A

Causes malaria
4th leading cause of death in developing countries, mostly in children under 5.

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55
Q

Helminths

A

Parasitic worms

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56
Q

Nematodes

A

Round worms

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57
Q

Platyhelminths

A

Flatworms

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58
Q

What are parasitic platyhelminths further divided into?

A

Trematodes- flukes
Cestodes - tapeworms

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59
Q

What complicates the lifecycle of helminths?

A

More than one host during different stages of the life cycle.

60
Q

Definitive host

A

Animal in which the parasite passes its adult or reproductive phase

61
Q

Intermediate host

A

Animal in which the parasite passes its laval or asexual reproductive phase.

62
Q

What is the definitive and intermediate host for flukes?

A

Definitive: Human
Intermediate: Snail

63
Q

What are the definitive and intermediate hosts for tapeworms?

A

Definitive: Human
Intermediate: Cows

64
Q

What does diagnosis of a parasite involve?

A

Recognition of the immature stages in the exertions or tissues of infected patients, requires the use of a microscope.

65
Q

Vibrio

A

comma shaped

66
Q

Spirochete

A

corkscrew shaped

67
Q

Fusiform bacillus

A

torpedo shaped

68
Q

What type of environment controls the growth of Candida albicans?

A

Acidic

69
Q

Microbology

A

The study of living organisms (and viral parasites) that are too small to be seen except with a microscope.

70
Q

Identify the organism and identify the associated disease

A

Mold (Aspergillus)
Aspergillosis which is a respiratory disease, pneumonia and is a causative agent of black mold.

71
Q

Identify the organism and identify the associated disease.

A

Fungus (Candida)
Candidiasis (yeast infection)

72
Q

Identify the organism and the associated disease

A

Plasmodium falciparum which is a protozoa.
Causes malaria

73
Q

Identify the organism and the associated disease

A

Giardia intestinal (lamblia) is a protozoa
Causes beaver fever

74
Q

Identify the organism

A

Fluke (Clonorchis)

75
Q

Identify the organism

A

Tapeworm (Cestode)

76
Q

What are the different lab mediums used for growing microorganisms?

A

Liquid broth
Nutrient agar
Blood agar

77
Q

What type of organisms can be identified via blood agar and why?

A

Organisms that produce toxins which cause erythrocyte hemolysis because they lyse the RBCs and the area becomes clear instead of red.

78
Q

Describe the different types of hemolysis seen in blood agar what colour clearing they cause.

A

Alpha - incomplete lysis creating green clearing
Beta - complete lysis creating yellow clearing
Gamma - non-hemolytic, unchanged agar

79
Q

Give an example of an organism that causes Alpha hemolysis and identify the disease it causes.

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
bacterial pneumonia

80
Q

Give an example of an organism that causes Beta hemolysis and identify the disease it causes.

A

Streptococcus pyogenes
Strep throat, Necrotizing fasciitis, impetigo

81
Q

Give an example of an organism that causes Gamma hemolysis and identify the disease it causes

A

Enterococcus faecalis
UTIs but is part of lactobacillus so can be beneficial as well

82
Q

Pathogenic

A

capable of causing disease

83
Q

Aseptic/sterile technique

A

prevent contamination of the work environment and spread of disease.
Involve: sterilization and disinfection and antisepsis

84
Q

Sterilization

A

destruction of all forms of life

85
Q

Disinfections

A

destruction of pathogenic microorganisms

86
Q

What does the suffix -cidal refer to?

A

Lethal
kill pathogens
bacteri, fungi, etc

87
Q

What does the suffix -static refer to?

A

Inhibit pathogens while in contact. Temporarily stop growth.
bacteri, fungi, etc.

88
Q

Antisepsis

A

Chemical disinfection of skin.

89
Q

How can sterilization and disinfection be accomplished?

A

Heat, UV radiation, Ionizing radiation, sonic disruption, filtration, chemical agents

90
Q

What are some common antiseptics?

A

Soap, alcohol, iodine, alcohol combination, iodophor preparations

91
Q

What is the risk with antiseptic solutions?

A

They can become contaminated with microorganisms.

92
Q

Why is it important to invert plates when incubating and storing them?

A

Reduces condensation on the agar which would allow colonies to migrate.

93
Q

Which method of sterilization in lab was most effective?

A

Autoclave

94
Q

Why did the thorough hand washing result in substantial bacterial growth?

A

Agitation/friction lifted skin cells and pulled bacteria out of crevices and pores. This meant more bacteria was captured on the swab.

95
Q

Which types of soap were most effective?

A

Liquid antibacterial soap showed fewer colonies
Liquid hand soap showed fewer colonies as well.

96
Q

Which conditions were e.coli most susceptible to?

A

Heat (oven & autoclave)

97
Q

Which conditions were e.coli most susceptible to?

A

Heat (oven & autoclave)

98
Q

Which conditions were b.sub most susceptible to?

A

autoclave only

99
Q

What structures does the pelvic cavity contain?

A

Bladder, portions of large intestine, internal organs of reproduction

100
Q

What type of chemical reaction is used to digest foods?

A

Hydrolysis

101
Q

Salivary amylase

A

Hydrolyzes starch into smaller polysaccharides

102
Q

What is mixed into the food in the stomach?

A

HCl and Pepsinogen

103
Q

Where are HCl and Pepsinogen released from?

A

Parietal and Chief cells of the gastric mucosa.

104
Q

What is the active form of pepsinogen and what does it do?

A

Pepsin breaks down proteins into smaller peptides

105
Q

Partially digested material as it leaves the stomach is known as?

A

Chyme

106
Q

What is mixed with the chyme when it enters the intestine?

A

Pancreatic enzymes
Bicarbonate
Bile

107
Q

Where is bicarbonate released from and what does it do?

A

Pancreas
Neutralizes the acid that enters the duodenum from the stomach.

108
Q

Why is it important to neutralize the acid as the chyme enters the intestine

A

For optimum function of pancreatic enzymes

109
Q

What types of enzymes are released from the pancreas?

A

Proteases
Lipases
Amylases

110
Q

What are the proteases made up of?

A

Trypsin
Chemotrypsin
Carboxypeptidase
They all digest proteins

111
Q

Where are bile salts released from and what do they do?

A

Gall bladder
Emulsify fats so that lipases can then break them down.

112
Q

What happens when a lipid is emulsified?

A

Antral pumping of the stomach breaks fats up into smaller droplets. These emulsification droplets are then coated by bile acids and lipases.

113
Q

What enzyme breaks down carbohydrates in the intestine?

A

Pancreatic amylase

114
Q

Where are polysaccharides converted into monosaccharides?

A

Surface of the intestinal epithelium.

115
Q

What colour do starches turn in the presence of iodine?

A

Blue

116
Q

What colour does benedicts solution change to in the presence of sugar

A

From blue to green,yellow,orange

117
Q

What vitamins are produced in the intestine?

A

K & B

118
Q

What are the three types of salivary glands in the face?

A

Parotid
Sublingual
Submandibular

119
Q

What lies just posterior to the mouth?

A

Pharynx

120
Q

What two sphincters controls flow of food through the stomach.

A

Cardiac (esophageal)
Pyloric

121
Q

What are the three areas of the small intestine?

A

Duodenum
Jejunum
Ilium

122
Q

What structures extend off the colon?

A

Caecum
Veriform appendix

123
Q

What are the main functions of the large intestine?

A

water and vitamin absorption, storage of feces, elimination.

124
Q

What type of cells produce pancreatic juice/enzymes?

A

Exocrine acinar cells.

125
Q

What makes the pancreas a unique organ?

A

It secretes both outside the body (into intestine; exocrine) and inside the body (hormones into the blood; endocrine).

126
Q

What is the body cavity encased in?

A

Serous membrane

127
Q

What is the specific name the serous membrane that lines the abdominopelvic cavity?

A

Parietal peritoneum

128
Q

What organs lies posterior to the serous membrane (retroperitoneal)?

A

S Suprarenal glands
A Aorta (&inf/sup vena cava)
D Duodenum
P Pancreas
U Ureters
C Colon
K Kidneys
E Esophagus
R ectum

129
Q

What organs does the abdomal cavity house?

A

Stomach
Liver
Jejunum
Ilieum
Spleen
Gall bladder
Most of large intestine
Pancreas

130
Q

What organs does the pelvic cavity contain?

A

Bladder
Some of large intestine
Organs of reproduction

131
Q
A

A - Mucosa
B - Surface epithelium
C - Lamina propria/Muscularis mucosa
D - Submucosa
E - Muscularis externa/Serosa
F - Oblique layer/Circular layer/Longitudinal layer
G - Parietal cell/Gastric pit
H - Gastric gland
I - Chief cell
J - Enteroendocrine cell

132
Q

What duct extends off of the gall bladder?

A

Common bile duct

133
Q

What two ducts meet and empty together into the small intestine

A

Common bile duct and pancreatic duct

134
Q

What tube carries bile from the liver?

A

hepatic duct

135
Q

What duct leaves the gallbladder and turns into the common bile duct?

A

Cystic duct

136
Q

Hepatopancreatic ampulla

A

Formed by the pancreatic duct and the common bile duct.

137
Q

Jejunum

A

Middle part of the intestine.
Absorbs sugar, amino acids, fatty acids

138
Q

Ileum

A

lower part of the intestine.
Asborbs bile salts
Vit B12 absorption

139
Q

Peyer’s patches

A

Lymphatic tissue found in the ileum.
Provide immune response and help control intestinal bacteria

140
Q

Cecum

A

Pouch that forms the first part of the large intestine.

141
Q

Vermiform appendix

A

Proper movement and absorption, immune response

142
Q

Greater omentum

A

Hangs like an apron over the small intestine.
Lymphatic function.

143
Q

Lesser omentum

A

From the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach.
Encases bile duct

144
Q

Mesocolon

A

Mesentary of the colon

145
Q

Mesentary

A

Serosa

A&P (8 decks)

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