LA ENT Flashcards

ears

1
Q

MC cause of conductive and SN hearing loss

A

conductive: ceruman impaction
SN: prebycusis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

damaged ossicle, mastoiditis, OM, FB, ETD, secondary to URI, Perf TM, fluid, otosclerosis, cholesteatoma, tumors

A

causes of conductive HL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CNS lesion, neuro d/o, aminoglycosides, loops, meniere, neuroma, labyrinthitis, infection

A

causes of SN HL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
A

vertigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

SE of reglan, promethazine

A

extrapyramidal, tardive dyskinesis, dystonia, parkinsonism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

dangers of dopamine blockers

reglan, promethazine

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
A

Neuro leptic malignancy syndrome
stop dopamine blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
A

anticholinergics: meclizine, scopolamine,

only 2 meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

avoid anticholinergics in what pts

A

acute angle glaucoma, BPH with urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

can follow a URI. episodic vertigo. 1 minute duration.

No hearing loss, ataxia, or tinnitus.

A

BPPV

do hallpike manuver

dec salt, meclizine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Has hearing loss. Episodic vertigo, No relation to movement, last hours

A

menieres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

treatment?

A

vestibular on left

laby on right. (unilateral HL)

1st line glucortcoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
A

peripheral on left

central on right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

After ETD or URI. PAINLESS otorrhea (brown and odor),
Conductive HL

A

Cholesteatoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

After URI. Fullness, popping, underwater feeling, fluctuating conductive HL, tinnitus

A

ETD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Percussion TENDER posteriorly, FEVER, deep ear pain(worse at night)

next step?

A

Mastoiditis
CT with contrast!! IV antibx (IV vanco plus (piper/taz, ceftazadine, cefepime)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Otalgia, sudden pain relief with bloody otorrhea.
Can lead to cholesteatoma.

avoid what

A

TM perf

aminoglycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Autosomal dominant. Slowly progressive hearing loss especially at low frequencies.

next step?

A

Otosclerosis

Tone audiometry and hearing aids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Abnormal bony overgrowth of foot plate of stapes, conductive, hearing loss, family history, Autosomal dominant

A

Otosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
A

Cholesteatoma

conductive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
A

acoustic vestibular neuroma

MRI and audiometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
A

trigeminal CN 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
A

abducens CN 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
A

facial CN 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how is the eustachian tube different in kids

A

shorter, narrower, and more horizontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

MC organism in acute OM

A

strep pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
A

serous otitis media on left

acute otitis medial on right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

most sensitive test for acute otitis media

tx

A

pneumatic otoscope, TM will not mobilize

amox 1st choice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

MC organism in chronic OM

A

pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

MC organism in otitis externa

A

pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

pain with tragus pulling, purulent discharge

tx?

A

otitis externa

topical antibx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

painless, purulent otorrhea, ear fullness, conductive hearing loss

A

chronic OM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

ear disorder that peaks at 6-18 months

A

acute OM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
A

malignant necrotizing otitis externa

CT/MRI next. Bx to confirm.T

ADMIT and IV antipsedomonal antibx
Cipro 1st line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

granulomatous tissue at cartilaginous part of ear canal

A

malignant necrotizing otitis externa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

otoscope: effusion with TM retracted/flat. hypomobility with air. No signs of inflammation

A

serous OM with effusion.

resolves on its own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what antibiotic is ototoxic?

A

aminoglycosides

avoid in TM perf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
A

hordeolum on right
chalazion on the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
A

entropian on left

ectropian on right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Blockage of nasolacrimal duct

A

dacrocystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
A

dacrocystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
A

blepharitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
A

blow out fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
A

dry on left
wet on left

Macular degeneration?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
A

cotton wool spots, DM retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
A

DM retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
A

DM retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
A

DM retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
A

circinate ring in dm retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
A

blot and dot hem in dm retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
A

papilladema in htn retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
A

retinal detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

next step

A

get opthalm, emergency!

lay supine towards side of retinal detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
A

ice rink; corneal abrasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
A

limbal flush: keratitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

hazy cornea

A

, keratitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
A

hypopyon, bacterial keratitis. And 1 more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
A

dendritic corneal ulceration: herpes keratitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
A

amblyopia.

think strabismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

clouding of the Lens (versus clouding of cornea)

A

clouding of the Lens: cataract
(clouding of cornea = glaucoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
A

globe rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
A

globe rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
A

leukocoria, retinoblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
A

retinal blastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q
A

hyphema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
A

central artery retinal occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

boxcar

A

central artery retinal occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

blood and thunder

A

central vein retinal occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
A

marcus gunn pupil .

optic neuritis and retinal detachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

moa of acetazolamide

A

decreases production of aqueous humor and CSF production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

dangerous glaucoma

A

acute angle closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

glaucoma common in blacks and asians

A

open angle with blacks.

closed angle with asians.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

slow, progressive painless bil. peripheral vision loss, halos(worse at night) sometimes

cupping of optic disc

tx

A

chronic open angle glaucoma
1st line is prostaglandin analogs(latanoprost to decrease IOP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

precipitants: mydriasis, anticholinergics, adrenergic meds

sudden severe unilateral ocular pain, halos, tunnel vision, blurred vision

appears unwell

A

acute angle closure glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

exam: conjunctiva red, cloudy cornea, pupil fixed and dilated

optic disc cupping/blurring

next step

A

acute angle closure

lie on back, pilocarpine drops

need iridotomy

77
Q

pathogen of hordeolum

A

mc st aureus

78
Q

upper eyelid common finding

79
Q

hordeolum gland

A

meibomian found under eyelid

80
Q

entropion vs ectropion

A

entropion is inverted.

81
Q

FB sensation, tearing ,red eye

condition due to spasm of orbiculis oculi muscle

82
Q

tearing, dry eye symptoms, red conjunctiva

condition due to relaxation of orbiculis oculi muscle

83
Q

hyphema, teardrop shaped pupil, obscured red reflex

enophthalmos more than exopthalmos

exam for what

A

afferent pupillary defect

put on rigid eye shield

84
Q

unilateral, severe pain, swelling, redness, tearing, drainage to medial side of lower lid area

treatment

A

anterior dacrocystitis

warm compresses and antibiotic (clindamycin, vanco + ceftriaxone)

85
Q

mucopurulent drainage from punta. No signs of infection.

A

posterior dacrocystitis

dacrocystorhinostomy

86
Q

meimobian gland dysfunction is most common cause of what

A

posterior blepharitis

87
Q

crusting, scaling, red rimming, flaking

A

blepharitis

88
Q

sunken eye

what bones are involved

A

orbital blowout

zygomatic, palantine, maxillary bone

89
Q

most common kind of orbital blowout

90
Q

diplopia(upward gaze), dec acuity, epistaxis, orbital emphysema, parathesias to gums/lips

next step/ avoid what

A

orbital blowout

order CT

avoid sneezing

91
Q

CT: teardrop line

A

orbital blowout

92
Q

most common cause of permanent blindness and vision loss in older adults

A

macular degeneration

93
Q

most common type of macular degeneration

A

dry/atrophic

94
Q

bilateral gradual central vision field loss(detailed/colored), microopsia, metamorphopsia(straight lines bent)

A

macular degeneration

95
Q

ocular pain with eye movement, opthaloplegia with diplopia(EOM weakness), proptosis, visual changes, eyelid edema and erythema

A

septal orbital cellulitis

96
Q

order what for a septal orbital cellulitis

next step

A

high resolution CT

admit and IV vanco plus (ceftriaxone or cefotaxime)

97
Q

unilateral ocular pain, eyelid erythema/edema.

next step

A

preseptal orbital cellulitis

98
Q

MRSA coverage for preseptal orbital cellulitis

A

clindamycin

99
Q

drusen bodies (white-yellow spots on outer retina.

A

dry macular degeneration

100
Q

most common kind of diabetic retinopathy

A

nonproliferative

101
Q

AV nicking, abnormal light reflexes on dilated tortuous arteriole

A

hypertensive retinopathy

102
Q
A

hypertensive retinopathy

103
Q
A

AV nicking

hypertensive retinopathy

104
Q

flame & dot hemorrhages, cotton wool spots, soft/hard exudates, microaneurysms

A

hypertensive retinopathy

105
Q

most common primary intraocular malignancy in childhood

A

retinoblastoma

106
Q

ocular ultrasound shows an intraocular calcified mass

A

retinoblastoma

107
Q

leukocoria(presence of abnormal white reflex instead of the nml red reflex; may develop strabimus or nystagmus

next step

A

retinoblastoma

order a ocular u/s after dilated opthalmic exam

108
Q

small moving flashing lights, floaters, progressive unilateral vision loss, decreased peripheral and central

+ shafers sign clumping of brown color pigment vitreous cells in anterior vitreous humor resembling tobacco dust

A

retinal detachment

109
Q

avoid what in retinal detachment and what to do when diagnosed

A

miotic drops

lay supine with head turned towards affected side

110
Q

ocular pain, tearing, red eye, photophobia

ice rink/linear abrasion

A

ocular FB and/or corneal abrasion

111
Q

size of corneal abrasion to treat and tx

antibx

A

over 5 mm, patch for no longer than 24 hours

e mycin ointment

contact lens wearers-pseudomonas- topical cipro or oxofloxacin

112
Q

1st symptom with ocular fb/corneal abrasion

A

decreased visual acuity

113
Q

MC pathogen with bacterial and viral conjunctivitis

A

bacterial: staph aureus

viral: adenovirus

114
Q

why get a fluorscein stain with bacterial conjunctivitis?

A

to rule out keratitis or abrasions

115
Q

red, itchy, nml vision, ipsilateral preauricular lymphadenopathy, copius watery tearing. poss mucoid discharge. may be bilateral symptoms in 2-3 days

A

viral conjunctivitis

116
Q

marked pruritis to eyes, usually bilateral

A

allergic conjunctivitis

117
Q

opthalmia neonatorium conjunctivitis

pathogens day 2-5 and 5-7

A

gonococcal

chylamydia trachomatis

118
Q

pathogens for bacterial keratitis

A

s aureus, strep, pseudomonas-cls wearers

118
Q

opthalmia neonatorium conjunctivitis

conjunctivitis occurs due to what chemical given

prophylaxis?

A

silver nitrate

e mycin ointment given immediately after birth

119
Q

ocular pain, photophobia, eye redness, vision changes, discharge, tearing, FB sensation,

hazy cornea, limbic injection, hypopyon if severe

“difficulty keeping eye open”

A

bacterial keratitis

120
Q

what disease may rapidly progress and be sight threatening

A

bacterial keratitis

121
Q

findings with fluorescein uptake with bacterial keratitis

A

increased uptake, more than an abrasion

122
Q

do not patch eye in what disorder

A

bacterial keratitis

123
Q

herpes keratitis is a reactivation of virus in what ganglion

A

trigeminal

124
Q

acute onset unilateral ocular pain, photophobia, eye redness, blurred vision, watery discharge

hazy cornea, limbic injection, conjunctiva erythema, preauricular lymphadenopathy

major cause of blindness in US
*what will you find on fluorescein stain?

A

dendritc corneal abrasion

125
Q

phenytoin, alcholism, sedating medications that can affect labyrinthitis, inner ear disorder, menieres

all can cause what symptom

126
Q

occurs between sclera and conjunctiva, bleeding

could be due to blepharitis, corneal abrasion/ulcers, FB, increased BP, trauma

A

subconjunctival hemorrhage

127
Q

drifting eye

name 2 types

A

strabismus

esotropia, deviated inward (nasally)

exotropia, deviated outward (temporally)

128
Q

diplopia, scotomas or amblyopia

asymmetric corneal reflex

A

strabismus

129
Q

hirschberg test for what

A

strabismus

130
Q

cover/uncover test for what

A

looks for latent strabismus

131
Q

1st line treatment for strabismus

A

eye patch to nml eye

132
Q

what if strabismus persists over 4-6 months of age

A

referral for intermittent manifest strap to decrease incidence of amblyopia

133
Q

transient monocular vision loss over visual field, temporary curtain/shade comes down then resolves within an hour

A

amaurosis fugax

134
Q

etio: migraine aura, lupus, arteritis, retinal embolie

A

amaurosis fugax

135
Q

most common cause of blindness in the world

136
Q

TORCH syndrome

A

toxoplasmosis, rubella, CMV, HBV

neonatal cataracts

137
Q

painless, slow progressive blurred vision loss over mnths to years. absent red reflex

poss diplopia, halos around lights,

avoid driving at night and reading

138
Q

emergency

central retinal artery or vein occlusion

139
Q

acute sudden painless monocular vision loss, may be preceded by amaurosis fugax

A

central retinal artery occlusion

140
Q

fundoscope: pale retina with cherry red macula. Boxcar appearance of vessels.

A

central retinal artery occlusion

141
Q

sudden onset, monocular vision loss, may be painless or not

etio: HTN, DM, glaucoma, smoking, hypercoagulable state, multiple myeloma

A

central retinal vein occlusion

142
Q

blood and thunder hemorrhages, optic disc swelling, retinal vein dilation

A

central retinal vein occlusion

143
Q

marcus gunn pupil

possible relative afferent pupillary defect

A

central retinal vein occlusion

144
Q

which is worse, alkali or acidic burns to eye

A

alkali, causes liquidification necrosis

145
Q

what happens with acidic eye burns

A

coagulative necrosis

146
Q

ocular pain!, decreased vision, blepharospam(cant open eyelid), photophobia

next step

A

Chemical burn
immediate irrigation until pH is 7-7.4 with lactated ringers

147
Q

unilateral severe ocular pain and photophobia, eye redness, tearing, blurred or dec vision

constricted pupil, “cell and flare”

A

anterior uveitis

148
Q

blurred or decreased vision, floaters, may not be painful.

constricted pupil, “cell and flare”

A

posterior uveitis

149
Q

cell and flare

150
Q

treatments for anterior and posterior uveitis

A

anterior: topical glucocorticoids

post: systemic glucocorticoids

151
Q

can occur with ethambutol, chloramphenicol. MS or autoimmune.

most common in woman and young pts 20-40yo

acute mono-ocular vision loss and decrease in color vision

A

optic neuritis

152
Q

marcus gunn pupil

fundoscopy: 2/3 of nml disc cup retrobulbar or 1/3 of disc swelling and blurring(papillitic)

A

optic neuritis

153
Q

headache, n/v, vision may be disturbed for a few seconds; usually bilateral

fundoscopy: swollen optic disc and blurred margins.

due to increased intraocular pressure

A

papilledema

154
Q

what tests to order with papilledema

A

MRI/CT to rule out mass effect
lumbar puncture if increase in CSF pressure

155
Q

treatment for papilledema

A

acetazilomide

156
Q
A

strept pharyngitis.

rapid antigen test, if neg, throat culture

157
Q
A

peritonsillar abscess

158
Q
A

retropharyngeal abscess

159
Q
A

leukoplakia left
candiaiasis right

160
Q
A

erythroplakia

161
Q

most common type

A

lichen planus

reticular

local glucocorticoids

162
Q

HA, sore throat, fever

HOARSENESS

A

acute pharyngitis

163
Q

FEVER, no viral sx, anterior cervical lymphadenopathy

pharyngeal edema/exudate

tx

A

strep!

PCN!

164
Q

muffled hot potato voice, drooling, trismus, severe unilateral pharyngitis, high fever

A

peritonsillar abscess

165
Q

uvula deviation to contralateral side, buldging of soft palate, ant cervical lymphadema, poss referred ear pain

A

peritonsillar abscess

166
Q

test for peritonsillar abscess

167
Q

torticollis, fever, drooling, anterior cervical lymphadenopathy, lateral neck mass

A

retropharyngeal abscess

168
Q

cotton like feels

A

candidiasis

169
Q

yellow gray center

A

apthous ulcer

170
Q

white patchy lesion cannot be scaped off

A

oral leukoplakia

171
Q

painless, erythematous, soft, velvety patch, on mouty, floor, soft palate, ventral tongue

A

erythroplakia

172
Q

hoarseness, aphonia, dry scratchy throat

A

laryngitis

173
Q

rapidly spreading cellulitis of floor of mouth

fever, chills, malaise, stiff neck, dysphagia, drooling, muffled void, stridor if severe.

no lymphadenopathy

A

ludwig’s angina

174
Q

ludwig angina test of choice

175
Q

sudden onset of very firm and tender gland swelling with purulent discharge.

A

acute bacterial sialadenitis, suppurative

order CT

176
Q

sudden onset fever, ulcerative lesions of gingiva friablilty with vesicles on mucous membrae of mouth.

dew drops on a rose petal

A

acute herpetic gingiovo stomatitis

177
Q

vesicles that rupture

A

acute herpetic pharyngotonsillitis

178
Q

painless, white smooth, corrugated hairy plaque along lateral border to mucosa cannot be scraped off

A

oral hairy leukoplakia

179
Q

painful swelling in her right cheek, exacerbated during meals. She reports a recent episode of flu-like symptoms, including fever and malaise, erythema and tenderness over the area of the right parotid gland. Palpation of the gland expresses purulent material from the Stensen’s duct, leukocytosis

A

. A diagnosis of acute bacterial sialadenitis is made. She is started on IV antibiotics targeting Staphylococcus aureus, advised on adequate hydration, and sialogogues to stimulate saliva flow. Warm compresses to the affected area are also recommended. She is scheduled for a follow-up in one week to assess response to treatment.

180
Q

malaise and swelling of his face. He has no significant past medical history, but it is documented in his chart that his mother declined the recommended standard immunizations for children because of personal beliefs. Vital signs are stable, with the exception of a mild fever. In addition to the facial swelling, physical exam is also notable for swelling around the testes. There are no rashes.

A

This classic presentation points toward mumps parotitis – fever, bilateral parotid gland swelling, and occurring within a timeframe post-MMR vaccination (while vaccine effectiveness is high, it isn’t 100%).

181
Q

______disorder that is not premalignant. It is an Epstein-Barr virus-induced lesion that occurs almost entirely in HIV-infected patients

Generally affects the lateral portions of the tongue, although the floor of the mouth, the palate, or the buccal mucosa may also be involved
TX: Unlikely to progress to squamous cell carcinoma

A

Oral hairy leukoplakia is a separate
Treatment with zidovudine, acyclovir, ganciclovir, foscarnet, and topical podophyllin or isotretinoin
Therapy is usually not indicated

182
Q

_____is an oral potentially malignant disorder that presents as white patches of the oral mucosa that cannot be wiped off with gauze. (compare this to oral candidiasis)

Tobacco use (smoked and especially smokeless), alcohol abuse, HPV infections
Leukoplakia is in itself a benign and asymptomatic condition. However, some patients will eventually develop squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

A

Oral leukoplakia

DX: The diagnosis of leukoplakia is suspected in patients presenting with a white lesion of the oral mucosa that cannot be wiped off with gauze and that persists after eliminating potential etiologic factors, such as mechanical friction, for a six-week period

Biopsy is indicated for any undiagnosed leukoplakia
TX: For 2–3 circumscribed lesions, surgical excision

Destructive therapies (e.g., laser ablation, cryosurgery), medical therapies (e.g., retinoids, vitamin A, carotenoids, NSAIDs), and watchful waiting with close clinical and histologic follow-up

183
Q

The child has had a high fever, sore throat, and stridor. She has a muffled voice and is sitting up on the stretcher drooling while leaning forward with her neck extended. The patient’s parents are adamantly against vaccinations, claiming that they are a “government conspiracy.” You order a lateral neck x-ray, which shows

A

a swollen epiglottis. The patient recovered following treatment with prednisone and ceftriaxone.

184
Q

a 17-year-old female complaining of a painful rash on her cheek. She says that it has come and gone a few times before and that she usually can feel itching and a tingling discomfort before a break out of the lesions. On physical exam, you observe clusters of small, tense vesicles on an erythematous base.

A

Orolabial herpes (gingivostomatitis) is the most prevalent form of mucocutaneous herpes infection. Overall, the highest rate of infection occurs during the preschool years. Female gender, history of sexually transmitted diseases, and multiple sexual partners have also been identified as risk factors for HSV-1 infection. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis usually affects children below the age of 5 years. It typically takes the form of painful vesicles and ulcerative erosions on the tongue, palate, gingiva, buccal mucosa, and lips. Edema, halitosis, and drooling may be present, and tender submandibular or cervical lymphadenopathy is not uncommon. Hospitalization may be necessary when pain prevents eating or fluid intake. Systemic symptoms are often present, including fever (38.4 ° to 40 ° C [101 ° to 104 ° F]), malaise, and myalgia. The pharyngitis and flulike symptoms are difficult to distinguish from mononucleosis in older patients. The duration of the illness is 2 to 3 weeks, and oral shedding of the virus may continue for as long as 23 days. Recurrences typically occur two or three times per year. The duration is shorter and the discomfort less severe than in primary infections; the lesions are often single and more localized, and the vesicles heal completely by 8 to 10 days. Pain diminishes quickly in 4 to 5 days. UV radiation predictably triggers recurrence of orolabial HSV-1, an effect that, for unknown reasons, is not fully suppressed by acyclovir. Pharmacologic intervention is therefore more difficult in patients with orolabial infection.

185
Q

a 33-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of severe throat pain, fever, and difficulty swallowing. He mentions that the pain has progressively worsened, now radiating to his ear, and describes a feeling of tightness and swelling in his neck. He also reports a muffled voice and difficulty breathing, particularly when lying down. His medical history is notable for untreated dental caries and a recent upper respiratory tract infection. On examination, he is febrile with a temperature of 39.2°C (102.6°F). Inspection of the oropharynx is limited due to trismus. There is noticeable swelling and tenderness to palpation on the left side of his neck, with overlying erythema and warmth. His voice is hoarse, and he appears to be in respiratory distress with stridor noted on auscultation. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis. A CT scan of the neck with contrast shows a large abscess in the left parapharyngeal space with surrounding cellulitis, consistent with a

A

deep neck infection. The patient is admitted to the intensive care unit for airway monitoring given his respiratory distress. Immediate intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics are initiated, and an urgent otolaryngology consultation is obtained for possible surgical drainage. He is also evaluated by a dentist for management of his dental caries, which is suspected to be the source of the infection

186
Q

a 14-year-old who is brought to your Emergency Department (ED) with an intractable nosebleed. Pinching of the nose has failed to stop the bleeding. In the ED, a topical vasoconstrictor is tried but also fails to stop the bleeding.

A

Persistent bleeding despite anterior packing, especially with visualization in the posterior oropharynx, indicates a posterior source. A posterior balloon pack is designed to tamponade a posterior bleed and is the most appropriate next step. These patients must be admitted to the hospital and prompt consultation with an otolaryngologist is indicated.

187
Q

a 6-year old female who is being seen for a routine well-child exam is noted to have multiple teardrop-shaped growths partially obstructing the nasal passages. The child has a history of chronic sinusitis and recurring ear infections. As an astute PA, you order a sweat chloride test.

A

Nasal polyps, while relatively common in adults, are much less frequent in young children. Their presence in a child should prompt consideration of cystic fibrosis (CF), an inherited condition affecting the function of exocrine glands. Early diagnosis and treatment of CF are crucial.

188
Q

a 13-year-old boy with clear fluid discharge from his nose for 2 days duration. This has also been associated with sneezing. On nasal exam, the mucosa and turbinates appear edematous and slightly bluish. He has swollen dark circles under his eyes and a transverse nasal crease.

A

Along with a minimally sedating oral antihistamine intranasal corticosteroids are considered first-line treatment for moderate to severe allergic rhinitis. They reduce inflammation and symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and nasal congestion. The can be administered regularly or as needed. For predictable exposures it’s best to initiate therapy two days before, continuing through, and for two days after the end of exposure.

189
Q

a 34-year-old previously healthy male with complaints of facial pressure and rhinorrhea for the past 3 weeks. The patient reports that several weeks prior, he had a “common cold,” which resolved. However, he has since developed worsening facial pressure, especially over his cheeks and forehead. He reports over 1 week of green-tinged rhinorrhea. His temperature is 100.1 F (37.8 C), blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 15/min. The nasal exam reveals edematous turbinates and purulent discharge. The patient has facial tenderness with palpation over the involved sinus.

A

ABRS should be diagnosed when signs and symptoms of acute rhinosinusitis (ARS) (purulent nasal drainage plus nasal obstruction, facial pain-pressure or both) persist without improvement for at least 10 days or if signs and symptoms worsen within 10 days after initial improvement.

190
Q

MC pathogen chronic sinusitis

A

staph aureus bacterial

aspergillus fungal