LA #9 (Palliative) Chapters 10, 12, 13 Flashcards

1
Q

A 45-year-old woman has breast cancer that has spread to her liver and spine. She has been taking oxycodone (Percodan) and amitriptyline (Elavil) for pain control at home, but she now has constant severe pain and is hospitalized for pain control and development of a pain management program. During assessment of the patient, what information related to her pain is most important for the nurse to obtain initially?

a.

The pattern, area, intensity, and nature of her pain

b.

Identification of trigger points of pain by palpation of painful areas

c.

The schedule and total dosages of the drugs she is currently taking and when breakthrough pain occurs

d.

The presence of a sympathetic response, such as tachycardia, diaphoresis, and a rise in blood pressure

A

A

Pain is a complex experience involving physiological, sensory (i.e., the perception of pain by the individual that addresses the pain location, intensity, pattern, and quality), affective, behavioural, and cognitive dimensions; therefore, the nurse needs to assess the pattern, area, nature, and intensity of the pain immediately.

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2
Q

The physician plans to titrate narcotic analgesic to provide pain relief for a patient with surgical pain. What does the nurse’s role in include?

a.

Monitoring the effects of continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of narcotic analgesics

b.

Teaching the patient to try to increase the time between doses of pain medication

c.

Assisting the patient to plan the use of a specific total dose of analgesic over a 24-hour period

d.

Determining with the patient the optimal analgesic dosage required for pain relief with attention to the side effects produced

A

D

The goal of titration is to use the smallest dosage of analgesic that provides effective pain control with the fewest side effects

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3
Q

It is determined that a step 3 drug as proposed by the World Health Organization (WHO) is necessary for a patient whose cancer pain is unrelieved by step 2 drugs. Which is an appropriate drug and route for this patient?

a.

Oral codeine

b.

Oral morphine

c.

Intramuscular meperidine (Demerol)

d.

Intravenous oxymorphone (Numorphan)

A

B

A step 2 drug that would be appropriate is morphine, which is the standard of comparison for all other opioid analgesics. Sustained-release preparations (e.g., MS Contin) are also available.

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4
Q

Which of the following is true of persistent pain?

a.

It occurs within the normal healing time.

b.

The course of pain decreases over time.

c.

It is accompanied by an increased heart and pulse rate.

d.

It is often accompanied by changes in affect and withdrawal from other people.

A

D

A behavioural manifestation of persistent pain is a change in affect and withdrawal from other people and social interaction.

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5
Q

The physician tells a patient to use ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) to relieve the pain after treating a laceration on the patient’s forearm from a dog bite. The patient tells the nurse that he does not think ibuprofen will control his pain. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that ibuprofen interferes with the pain by decreasing what process?

a.

Perception

b.

Modulation

c.

Transduction

d.

Transmission

A

C

Therapies directed at altering either the primary afferent nociceptor (PAN) environment or the sensitivity of the PAN are used to prevent the transduction and initiation of an action potential. An example is ibuprofen.

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6
Q

A postoperative patient who has undergone extensive bowel surgery moves as little as possible and does not use his incentive spirometer unless specifically reminded. He rates his pain severity as an 8 on a 10-point scale but tells the nurse that he can “tough it out.” To encourage the patient to use pain medication, what should the nurse explain about the effects of withholding or delaying analgesics?

a.

Very few patients become addicted to opioids when using them for pain control.

b.

He should not worry about side effects because these problems usually decrease over time.

c.

Multiple options of medications are available, and if one drug does not relieve his pain, other drugs may be tried.

d.

Unrelieved pain can be harmful because it impairs respiratory and gastrointestinal function and can impair his recovery from surgery.

A

D

In the acutely ill patient, unrelieved pain can result in increased morbidity as a result of respiratory dysfunction, increased heart rate and cardiac workload, increased muscular contraction and spasm, decreased gastrointestinal motility and transit, and increased catabolism.

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7
Q

A patient with a kidney stone in her right ureter has pain in her right flank area and also complains of pain in her right inner thigh. She asks the nurse whether something is wrong with her leg. In responding to the question, on what knowledge does the nurse base the patient’s understanding of pain?

a.

Referred pain results when dorsal horn neurons receive input from both C fibres and A-beta fibres.

b.

Stimulation of the cerebral cortex by small C fibres causes muscle spasm, leading to pain perception in large muscle groups.

c.

Radiating type of pain results from activation of normally inactive receptors by repetitive nociceptive signals to the dorsal horn.

d.

Poor localization of pain occurs when PANs release neurotransmitters that inhibit nerve cells in the dorsal column.

A

A

Inputs from both C fibres and A-beta fibres converge on the wide-dynamic-range neurons, and when the message is transmitted to the brain, the originating area of the body is poorly localized. The concept of referred pain must be considered when interpreting the location of pain reported by the person with injury to or disease involving visceral organs.

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8
Q

Which of the following is a possible musculoskeletal consequence of unrelieved pain?

a.

Decreased peristalsis

b.

Hypermobility

c.

Muscle spasm

d.

Muscle protein catabolism

A

C

Possible musculoskeletal consequences of unrelieved pain include muscle spasm, impaired muscle function, fatigue, and immobility. Muscle protein catabolism is a consequence of unrelieved pain, but it is a metabolic consequence, not a musculoskeletal one.

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9
Q

Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is being administered to a patient with chronic cancer pain. What does the nurse recognize as the expected outcome of administration of this drug?

a.

Increased pain threshold by stimulating the release of endogenous enkephalins

b.

Decreased perception of pain by blocking opiate receptors in the brain and descending inhibitory nerves

c.

Decreased transmission of pain impulses by altering serotonin and norepinephrine activity at nerve synapses

d.

Increased pain tolerance through relief of depression by increasing the amounts of norepinephrine in the brain

A

C

Tricyclic antidepressants have analgesic properties at doses lower than those effective for depression. They enhance the descending inhibitory system by preventing synaptic reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, thereby decreasing the transmission of pain impulses.

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10
Q

A patient with chronic abdominal pain has learned to control the pain with the use of imagery and hypnosis. What does the nurse recognize about how these cognitive strategies work?

a.

They reduce the sensory and affective components of pain.

b.

They prevent transmission of nociceptive stimuli to the cortex.

c.

They decrease the intensity of the pain that the patient is willing to tolerate.

d.

They decrease sensitization by increasing the production of glutamate in the spinal cord.

A

A

Imagery is a structured technique that uses the patient’s own imagination to develop sensory images that divert focus away from the pain sensation and emphasize other sensory experiences and pleasant memories. Hypnotic therapy is a structured technique that enables a patient to achieve a state of heightened awareness and focused concentration that can be used to alter the patient’s pain perception.

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11
Q

A patient in a publicly funded pain clinic asks the nurse how long he will have to wait to see a health care provider who is an expert in pain. The nurse’s response is based on the fact that the average wait time in Canada for expert pain-related care is approximately how long?

a.

One month

b.

Three months

c.

Six months

d.

One year

A

D

Average wait times in Canada for expert pain-related care are approximately one year at more than one-third of the publicly funded pain clinics, and many regions have no access to appropriate care.

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12
Q

An 86-year-old man has severe degenerative arthritis in his hips. In planning care for the patient, what does the nurse recognize about chronic pain in an older adult?

a.

It is more readily tolerated than in younger patients.

b.

It does not require the use of narcotic drugs for control.

c.

It is poorly tolerated because of past experiences with pain.

d.

It is often believed by the patient to be an inevitable part of aging.

A

D

Older patients often believe that pain is a normal, inevitable part of aging. They may also believe that nothing can be done to relieve the pain.

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13
Q

In developing a concept of pain to use in working with patients experiencing pain, what does the nurse acknowledge about pain?

a.

Pain always causes suffering.

b.

All pain serves a physiological purpose.

c.

Pain is a phenomenon.

d.

Pain is present whenever nociception occurs.

A

C

Pain is a complex, multidimensional, and subjective experience, and its management is influenced greatly by psychosocial, sociocultural, and legal and ethical factors.

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14
Q

To obtain the most complete assessment data about a patient’s chronic pain pattern, what should the nurse ask the patient?

a.

“Can you describe where your pain is the worst?”

b.

“What is the intensity of your pain on a scale of 0 to 10?”

c.

“Would you describe your pain as aching, throbbing, or sharp?”

d.

“Can you describe your daily activities in relation to your pain?”

A

D

At a bare minimum, the effects of the pain on the patient’s sleep and daily activities, relationships with others, physical activity, and emotional well-being should be assessed.

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15
Q

Morphine 10 mg IV every four to six hours as needed is ordered for a patient with a pancreatic tumour who has a history of alcoholism. After three days of receiving the morphine every six hours, the patient tells the nurse that the medication is needed more frequently to control the pain. In responding to the patient’s request, what does the nurse recognize?

a.

A tolerance to the morphine is developing, and the patient should receive the drug more frequently.

b.

Administering the morphine more frequently will increase the patient’s physical dependence on the drug.

c.

Physical dependence should be avoided at all costs, and the drug should continue to be administered every six hours.

d.

The patient is becoming addicted to the morphine, and it should be administered less frequently than every six hours.

A

A

People with past or current substance abuse are at high risk for inadequate pain management. Health care providers must understand that adequate pain relief is a basic human right, be aware of their own biases, and ensure that all patients are treated respectfully.

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16
Q

A patient with extensive second-degree burns on his legs and trunk is using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with IV morphine to be delivered at 1 mg every 10 minutes to control his pain. Several times during the night, he awakens in severe pain, and it takes more than an hour to regain pain relief. What is the most appropriate nursing action at this time?

a.

Administer a dose of morphine every hour from the PCA machine while the patient sleeps.

b.

Request that the physician order a bolus dose of morphine to be given when the patient awakens with pain.

c.

Consult with the patient’s physician about adding a continuous morphine infusion to the PCA regimen at night.

d.

Teach the patient to push the button every 10 minutes for an hour before he goes to sleep, even if he has minimal pain at that time.

A

C

The addition of a continuous basal infusion to a PCA regimen improves nighttime pain relief and promotes better sleep postoperatively (known as PCA plus basal).

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17
Q

When caring for a patient who is receiving epidural fentanyl, the nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect?

a.

Headache

b.

Agitation

c.

Urinary retention

d.

Abdominal cramping and diarrhea

A

C

Nausea, itching, and urinary retention are common side effects of intraspinal opioids. Drugs that are delivered intraspinally include morphine, fentanyl, and hydromorphone.

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18
Q

Which type of pain is caused by damage to somatic tissue?

a.

Visceral

b.

Nociceptive

c.

Neuropathic

d.

Sensory-discriminative

A

B

Nociceptive pain is caused by damage to somatic or visceral tissue.

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19
Q

What is the mechanism of action of NSAIDs?

a.

They block action potential initiation.

b.

They block prostaglandin production.

c.

They inhibit cyclo-oxygenase action.

d.

They interfere with serotonin uptake.

A

B

The mechanism of action of NSAIDs is to block prostaglandin production.

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20
Q

When doing a pain assessment for a patient who has been admitted with metastatic breast cancer, which question asked by the nurse will give the most information about the patient’s pain?

a.

“How long have you had this pain?”

b.

“How would you describe your pain?”

c.

“How much medication do you take for the pain?”

d.

“How many times a day do you medicate for pain?”

A

B

Because pain is a multidimensional experience, asking a question that addresses the patient’s experience with the pain is likely to elicit more information than the more specific information asked in the other three responses. All of these questions are appropriate, but the response beginning “How would you describe your pain?” is the best initial question.

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21
Q

A patient who uses a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch for chronic cancer pain complains to the nurse of the rapid onset of pain at a level 9 (0 to 10 scale) and requests “something for pain that will work quickly.” The nurse will document this as

a.

somatic pain.

b.

referred pain.

c.

neuropathic pain.

d.

breakthrough pain.

A

D

Pain that occurs beyond the chronic pain already being treated by appropriate analgesics is termed breakthrough pain. Neuropathic pain is caused by damage to peripheral nerves or the central nervous system (CNS). Somatic pain is localized and arises from bone, joint, muscle, skin, or connective tissue. Referred pain is pain that is localized in uninjured tissue.

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22
Q

A postoperative patient asks the nurse how the prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin) will control the incisional pain. The nurse will teach the patient that ibuprofen interferes with the pain process by decreasing the

a.

modulating effect of descending nerves.

b.

sensitivity of the brain to painful stimuli.

c.

production of pain-sensitizing chemicals.

d.

spinal cord transmission of pain impulses.

A

C

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) provide analgesic effects by decreasing the production of pain-sensitizing chemicals such as prostaglandins at the site of injury. Transmission of impulses through the spinal cord, brain sensitivity to pain, and the descending nerve pathways are not affected by the NSAIDs.

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23
Q

A patient with chronic cancer pain is receiving imipramine (Tofranil) in addition to long-acting morphine for pain control. Which information is the best indicator that the imipramine is effective?

a.

The patient sleeps 8 hours every night.

b.

The patient has no symptoms of anxiety.

c.

The patient states, “I feel much less depressed since I’ve been taking the imipramine.”

d.

The patient states, “The pain is manageable, and I can accomplish my desired activities.

A

D

Imipramine is being used in this patient to manage chronic pain and improve functional ability. Although the medication also is prescribed for patients with depression, insomnia, and anxiety, the evaluation for this patient is based on improved pain control and activity level.

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24
Q

A patient with chronic abdominal pain has learned to control the pain with the use of imagery and hypnosis. A family member asks the nurse how these techniques work. The nurse’s reply is based on the information that these strategies

a.

impact the cognitive and affective components of pain.

b.

increase the modulating effect of the efferent pathways.

c.

prevent transmission of nociceptive stimuli to the cortex.

d.

slow the release of transmitter chemicals in the dorsal horn.

A

A

Cognitive therapies impact on the perception of pain by the brain rather than affecting efferent or afferent pathways or influencing the release of chemical transmitters in the dorsal horn.

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25
Q

A patient who is receiving sustained-release morphine sulfate (MS Contin) every 12 hours for chronic pain experiences level 9 (0 to 10 scale) breakthrough pain and anxiety. Which of these prescribed medications will be best for the nurse to administer?

a.

lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg orally

b.

amitriptyline (Elavil) 10 mg orally

c.

ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 to 800 mg orally

d.

immediate-release morphine 30 mg orally

A

A

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26
Q

A patient with chronic back pain is seen in the pain clinic for follow-up. In order to evaluate whether the pain management is effective, which question is best for the nurse to ask?

a.

“Can you describe the quality of your pain?”

b.

“Has there been a change in the pain location?”

c.

“How would you rate your pain on a 0 to 10 scale?”

d.

“Does the pain keep you from doing things you enjoy?”

A

D

The goal for the treatment of chronic pain usually is to enhance function and quality of life. The other questions also are appropriate to ask, but information about patient function is more useful in evaluating effectiveness.

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27
Q

A patient with second-degree burns has been receiving morphine through patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) for a week. The patient wakes up frequently during the night complaining of pain. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to

a.

administer a dose of morphine every 1 to 2 hours from the PCA machine while the patient is sleeping.

b.

consult with the health care provider about using a different treatment protocol to control the patient’s pain.

c.

request that the health care provider order a bolus dose of morphine to be given when the patient awakens with pain.

d.

teach the patient to push the button every 10 minutes for an hour before going to sleep, even if the pain is minimal.

A

B

PCAs are best for controlling acute pain; this patient’s history indicates chronic pain and a need for a pain management plan that will provide adequate analgesia while the patient is sleeping. Administering a dose of morphine when the patient already has severe pain will not address the problem. Teaching the patient to administer unneeded medication before going to sleep can result in oversedation and respiratory depression. It is illegal for the nurse to administer the morphine for a patient through PCA.

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28
Q

When caring for a patient who is receiving epidural morphine, which information obtained by the nurse indicates that the patient may be experiencing a side effect of the medication?

a.

The patient has cramping abdominal pain.

b.

The patient becomes restless and agitated.

c.

The patient has not voided for over 10 hours.

d.

The patient complains of a “pounding” headache.

A

C

Urinary retention is a common side effect of epidural opioids. Headache is not an anticipated side effect of morphine, although if there is a cerebrospinal fluid leak, the patient may develop a “spinal” headache. Sedation (rather than restlessness or agitation) would be a possible side effect. Hypotonic bowel sounds and constipation (rather than abdominal cramping) are concerns.

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29
Q

When the nurse visits a hospice patient, the patient has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/minute and complains of severe pain. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

a.

Inform the patient that increasing the morphine will cause the respiratory drive to fail.

b.

Administer a nonopioid analgesic, such as a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), to improve patient pain control.

c.

Tell the patient that additional morphine can be administered when the respirations are 12.

d.

Titrate the prescribed morphine dose upward until the patient indicates adequate pain relief.

A

D

The goal of opioid use in terminally ill patients is effective pain relief regardless of adverse effects such as respiratory depression. A nonopioid analgesic like ibuprofen would not provide adequate analgesia or be absorbed quickly. The rule of double effect provides ethical justification for administering an increased morphine dose to provide effective pain control even though the morphine may further decrease the patient’s respiratory rate.

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30
Q

A patient with a history of chronic cancer pain is admitted to the hospital. When reviewing the patient’s home medications, which of these will be of most concern to the admitting nurse?

a.

amitriptyline (Elavil) 50 mg at bedtime

b.

oxycodone (OxyContin) 80 mg twice daily

c.

ibuprofen (Advil) 800 mg 3 times daily

d.

meperidine (Demerol) 25 mg every 4 hours

A

D

Meperidine is contraindicated for chronic pain because it forms a metabolite that is neurotoxic and can cause seizures when used for prolonged periods. The ibuprofen, amitriptyline, and oxycodone are all appropriate medications for long-term pain management.

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31
Q

Which of these prescribed therapies should the nurse use first when caring for a patient with cancer pain that the patient describes as at “level 8 (0 to 10 scale), deep, and aching.”

a.

fentanyl (Duragesic) patch

b.

ketorolac (Toradol) tablets

c.

hydromorphone (Dilaudid) IV

d.

acetaminophen (Tylenol) suppository

A

C

The patient’s pain level indicates that a rapidly-acting medication such as an IV opioid is needed. The other medications also may be appropriate to use, but will not work as rapidly or as effectively as the IV hydromorphone.

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32
Q

The nurse is caring for a diabetic patient who has chronic burning leg pain even when taking oxycodone (OxyContin) twice daily. Which of these prescribed medications is the best choice for the nurse to administer as an adjuvant to decrease the patient’s pain?

a.

aspirin (Ecotrin)

b.

celecoxib (Celebrex)

c.

amitriptyline (Elavil)

d.

acetaminophen (Tylenol)

A

C

The patient’s pain symptoms are consistent with neuropathic pain and the tricyclic antidepressants are effective for treating this type of pain. The other medications are more effective for nociceptive pain.

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33
Q

A patient who uses extended-release morphine sulfate (MS Contin) for chronic abdominal pain caused by ovarian cancer asks the nurse to administer the prescribed hydrocodone (Vicodin) tablets, but the patient is asleep when the nurse returns with the medication. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

a.

Wake the patient and administer the hydrocodone.

b.

Wait until the patient wakes up and reassess the pain.

c.

Consult with the health care provider about changing the MS Contin dose.

d.

Suggest the use of nondrug therapies for pain relief instead of additional opioids.

A

A

Since patients with chronic pain frequently use withdrawal and decreased activity as coping mechanisms for pain, the patient’s sleep is not an indicator that she is pain free. The nurse should wake the patient and administer the hydrocodone.

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34
Q

These medications are prescribed by the health care provider for a patient who uses long-acting morphine (MS Contin) for chronic back pain, but still has ongoing pain. Which medication should the nurse question?

a.

morphine (Roxanol)

b.

pentazocine (Talwin)

c.

celecoxib (Celebrex)

d.

dexamethasone (Decadron)

A

B

Opioid agonist-antagonists can precipitate withdrawal if used in a patient who is physically dependent on mu agonist drugs such as morphine. The other medications are appropriate for the patient.

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35
Q

The nurse assesses a postoperative patient who is receiving morphine through patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which information is most important to report to the health care provider?

a.

The patient complains of nausea after eating.

b.

The patient’s respiratory rate is 10 breaths/minute.

c.

The patient has not had a bowel movement for 3 days.

d.

The patient has a distended bladder and has not voided.

A

B

The patient’s respiratory rate indicates a need to decrease the PCA dose or change the medication in order to avoid further respiratory depression. The other information also may require intervention, but is not as urgent to report as the respiratory rate.

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36
Q

A patient who has chronic musculoskeletal pain tells the nurse, “I feel depressed because I ache too much to play golf.” The patient says the pain is usually at a level 7 (0 to 10 scale). Which patient goal has the highest priority when the nurse is developing the treatment plan?

a.

The patient will exhibit fewer signs of depression.

b.

The patient will say that the aching has decreased.

c.

The patient will state that pain is at a level 2 of 10.

d.

The patient will be able to play 1 to 2 rounds of golf.

A

D

For chronic pain, patients are encouraged to set functional goals such as being able to perform daily activities and hobbies. The patient has identified playing golf as the desired activity, so a pain level of 2 of 10 or a decrease in aching would be less useful in evaluating successful treatment. The nurse also should assess for depression, but the patient has identified the depression as being due to the inability to play golf, so the goal of being able to play 1 or 2 rounds of golf is the most appropriate.

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37
Q

A patient who has just started taking sustained-release morphine sulfate (MS Contin) for chronic pain complains of nausea and abdominal fullness. The best initial action by the nurse is to

a.

administer the ordered antiemetic medication.

b.

tell the patient that the nausea will subside in about a week.

c.

order the patient a clear liquid diet until the nausea decreases.

d.

consult with the health care provider about using a different opioid.

A

A

Nausea is frequently experienced with the initiation of opioid therapy, and antiemetics usually are prescribed to treat this expected side effect. There is no indication that a different opioid is needed, although if the nausea persists, the health care provider may order a change of opioid. Although tolerance develops and the nausea will subside in about a week, it is not appropriate to allow the patient to continue to be nauseated. A clear liquid diet may decrease the nausea, but the best choice would be to administer the antiemetic medication and allow the patient to eat.

38
Q

A patient with cancer-related pain and a history of opioid abuse complains of breakthrough pain 2 hours before the next dose of sustained-release morphine sulfate (MS Contin) is due. Which action should the nurse take first?

a.

Administer the prescribed PRN immediate-acting morphine.

b.

Suggest the use of alternative therapies such as heat or cold.

c.

Utilize distraction by talking about things the patient enjoys.

d.

Consult with the doctor about increasing the MS Contin dose.

A

A

The patient’s pain requires rapid treatment and the nurse should administer the immediate-acting morphine. Increasing the MS Contin dose and use of alternative therapies also may be needed, but the initial action should be to use the prescribed analgesic medications.

39
Q

Which nursing action should the nurse delegate to nursing assistive personnel (NAP) when caring for a patient who is using a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch and a heating pad for treatment of chronic back pain?

a.

Assess the skin under the heating pad.

b.

Check the respiratory rate every 2 hours.

c.

Monitor sedation using the sedation assessment scale.

d.

Ask the patient about whether pain control is effective.

A

B

Obtaining the respiratory rate is included in NAP education and scope of practice. Assessment for sedation, pain control, and skin integrity requires more education and scope of practice.

40
Q

A patient who is using a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch and immediate-release morphine for chronic cancer pain develops new-onset confusion, dizziness, and a decrease in respiratory rate. Which action should the nurse take first?

a.

Remove the fentanyl patch.

b.

Notify the health care provider.

c.

Continue to monitor the patient’s status.

d.

Give the prescribed PRN naloxone (Narcan).

A

A

The assessment data indicate possible overdose of opioid. The first action should be to remove the patch. Naloxone administration in a patient who has been chronically using opioids can precipitate withdrawal and would not be the first action. Notification of the health care provider and continued monitoring also are needed, but the patient’s data indicate that more rapid action is needed.

41
Q

These medications are ordered for an 86-year-old patient with arthritis in both hips who is complaining of level 3 (0 to 10 scale) hip pain while ambulating. Which medication should the nurse use as initial therapy?

a.

aspirin (Bayer) 650 mg orally

b.

naproxen (Aleve) 200 mg orally

c.

oxycodone (Roxicodone) 5 mg orally

d.

acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally

A

D

Acetaminophen is the best first-choice medication. The principle of “start low, go slow” is used to guide therapy when treating elderly adults because the ability to metabolize medications is decreased and the likelihood of medication interactions is increased. Nonopioid analgesics are used first for mild to moderate pain, although opioids may be used later. Aspirin and the NSAIDs are associated with a high incidence of gastrointestinal bleeding in elderly patients.

42
Q

The health care provider plans to titrate a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) machine to provide pain relief for a patient with acute surgical pain who has never received opioids in the past. Which of the following nursing actions regarding opioid administration are appropriate at this time (select all that apply)?

a.

Assessing for signs that the patient is becoming addicted to the opioid

b.

Monitoring for therapeutic and adverse effects of opioid administration

c.

Emphasizing that the risk of some opioid side effects increases over time

d.

Educating the patient about how analgesics improve postoperative activity level

e.

Teaching about the need to decrease opioid doses by the second postoperative day

A

B, D

Monitoring for pain relief and teaching the patient about how opioid use will improve postoperative outcomes are appropriate actions when administering opioids for acute pain. Although postoperative patients usually need decreasing amount of opioids by the second postoperative day, each patient’s response is individual. Tolerance may occur, but addiction to opioids will not develop in the acute postoperative period. The patient should use the opioids to achieve adequate pain control, and so the nurse should not emphasize the adverse effects.

43
Q

Which of the following patients does the nurse deduce is seeing an alternative medical practitioner?

a.

A patient who prevents and treats migraine headaches with acupuncture

b.

A patient who uses progressive relaxation to control the nausea of cancer chemotherapy

c.

A patient who supplements chiropractic manipulation for low back pain with muscle relaxants

d.

A patient who takes vitamin and mineral supplements as treatment for gastrointestinal malabsorption

A

A

Alternative therapies are those used instead of conventional Western medical practice. This patient is using acupuncture instead of taking medications to prevent or treat migraine.

44
Q

A patient with high blood pressure asks the nurse about the use of fish oil supplements to help lower blood pressure. Which is the nurse’s best response?

a.

“Some evidence exists that fish oil supplements are helpful in treating hypertension.”

b.

“Fish oil supplements are helpful for treating rheumatoid arthritis.”

c.

“No clear evidence exists that fish oil supplements are helpful.”

d.

“Discuss the use of fish oil supplements with the hospital dietitian.”

A

A

Good evidence exists that fish oil is helpful in treating hypertension as well as preventing cardiovascular disease.

45
Q

Which therapy is appropriate for the nurse to suggest for a patient with fibromyalgia?

a.

Acupuncture

b.

Aromatherapy

c.

Magnetic therapy

d.

Therapeutic touch

A

A

Acupuncture may be useful in the treatment of fibromyalgia, whereas the research related to therapeutic touch is inconclusive.

46
Q

Which of the following should the nurse assess to evaluate the effect of aromatherapy on a patient after surgery?

a.

Incision for signs of infection

b.

Intake and output

c.

Blood pressure and pulse

d.

Breath sounds

A

C

Aromatherapy is used for stress reduction, and a decrease in the patient’s blood pressure and pulse would indicate that the aromatherapy was effective.

47
Q

Which of the following is used to gently lift and knead the muscle?

a.

Simple massage

b.

Effleurage

c.

Pétrissage

d.

Circular massage

A

C

Pétrissage is a kneading stroke, used to gently knead and lift muscles, often used following effleurage.

48
Q

The nurse is using imagery as a technique for pain management with a patient who has rheumatoid arthritis. What should the nurse tell the patient to promote reinforcement of the image of a pleasant scene by the patient?

a.

“Tell me what you hear, smell, or feel at this place.”

b.

“Place your pain in the image of a form you can destroy.”

c.

“Bring what you hear and sense in your present environment into your image of the scene.”

d.

“If your scene is distressing to you, continue its visualization until you can overcome the distress.”

A

A

Imagery uses one’s mind to create images that have a calming effect on the body. Outcomes may include reduction of anxiety, relaxation, enhanced immunity, and changes in hormonal responses.

49
Q

Which one of the following patients is most likely to use complementary and alternative therapies?

a.

A patient who is a vegetarian

b.

A patient who is of Asian heritage

c.

A patient who is an older adults with a chronic condition

d.

A patient who is pregnant

A

C

Older adults with non–life-threatening, chronic conditions are most likely to use complementary and alternative therapies.

50
Q

A patient with chronic headaches seeks treatment from a nurse trained in therapeutic touch. What does the nurse explain to the patient that therapeutic touch involves?

a.

The use of the practitioner’s hands to assess and redirect energy

b.

The forceful, passive movement of joints to restore structural and functional imbalances

c.

Application of pressure with the fingers at points on the body where energy is obstructed

d.

Manipulation of soft tissue and small joints that alters the length and tone of myofascial tissue

A

A

Therapeutic touch is a method of detecting and balancing human energy. It involves the conscious use of the practitioner’s hands to direct or modulate human energy.

51
Q

A patient comes to an outpatient clinic and requests an acupuncturist for treatment of her asthma. In responding to the patient’s request, what does the nurse recognize about the effect of acupuncture on asthma?

a.

Asthma is a disorder that should not be treated with acupuncture because of the risk for respiratory complications.

b.

Acupuncture needles stimulate or block specific superficial nerves that cause alterations in physiological function.

c.

Research has indicated that asthma patients may benefit from the effects of acupuncture.

d.

The patient must have a strong belief in the concepts of health and disease held by traditional Chinese medicine for treatment to be effective.

A

C

Some research has indicated that acupuncture improves lung function, which would benefit the patient with asthma.

52
Q

A patient always seems to develop an upper respiratory tract infection in the spring, and he asks if any herbal preparation is available that would help him. Which one of the following recommended herbs should the nurse suggest?

a.

Comfrey

b.

Echinacea

c.

Ginkgo biloba

d.

St. John’s wort

A

B

Good scientific evidence exists to suggest that echinacea prevents upper respiratory tract infections, and strong evidence suggests that it is also beneficial in the treatment of upper respiratory tract infections.

53
Q

A patient tells the nurse that she has been taking melatonin every day. The nurse would ask questions about which of the following during assessment, to evaluate the effectiveness of this herb for its intended use?

a.

Glucose levels

b.

Sleep habits

c.

Bruising or bleeding tendencies

d.

Bowel habits

A

B

Melatonin use as a sleep enhancement has been informed by scientific evidence; therefore, the nurse would want to assess sleep habits.

54
Q

During a routine health examination, the patient tells the nurse that she uses a variety of herbal therapies to maintain her health. In discussing her use of herbs, what should the nurse caution the patient about?

a.

Most herbs are toxic and carcinogenic and should be used only when proven effective.

b.

Herbs are not any better than conventional drugs in maintaining health and may be more unsafe.

c.

Herbs should be purchased only from manufacturers with a history of quality control of their products.

d.

Because herbal therapies may mask the symptoms of serious disease, frequent medical evaluation is required during their use.

A

C

The quality of herb preparations can vary, so it is important that patients purchase herbal remedies from reputable manufacturers. Health Canada (2011) advises Canadians to use only herbal products that have been approved for sale under the Natural Health Products regulations. If the product has been assessed, it will have a Drug Identification Number or Natural Products Number on its label. This certifies that the product has passed a review of formulation, labelling, and instructions for use.

55
Q

Which of the following is a commonly used herb for treating nausea and vomiting during pregnancy?

a.

Aloe

b.

Ginger

c.

Kava

d.

Milk thistle

A

B

Ginger is commonly used for treating nausea and vomiting during pregnancy.

56
Q

Which of the following is true regarding healing touch?

a.

It has strong ties to religious beliefs.

b.

It is a physician-based program.

c.

It assists the patient to self-heal.

d.

The nurse determines its effectiveness.

A

C

Healing touch is a nurse-based program that is an organized system designed to assist the patient to self-heal.

57
Q

When assessing a patient who has a history of alcohol abuse, the nurse will plan to assess for

a.

low blood pressure.

b.

decreased heart rate.

c.

elevated temperature.

d.

abdominal tenderness.

A

D

Abdominal pain associated with gastrointestinal tract and liver dysfunction is common in patients with chronic alcohol use. The other problems are not associated with alcohol abuse.

58
Q

A patient who smokes a pack of cigarettes daily is admitted to the hospital for surgery. When planning postoperative care, the nurse should include measures to

a.

improve sleep.

b.

enhance appetite.

c.

decrease diarrhea.

d.

prevent sore throat.

A

A

Insomnia is a characteristic of nicotine withdrawal. Diarrhea, sore throat, and anorexia are not symptoms associated with nicotine withdrawal.

59
Q

A new 21-year-old patient who is scheduled for an annual physical examination arrives in the clinic smelling of cigarette smoke and carrying a pack of cigarettes. Which action will the nurse plan to take?

a.

Urge the patient to quit smoking as soon as possible.

b.

Avoid confronting the patient about smoking at this time.

c.

Wait for the patient to start the discussion about quitting smoking.

d.

Explain that the “cold turkey” method is most effective in stopping smoking.

A

A

Current national guidelines indicate that health care professionals should urge patients who smoke to quit smoking at every encounter. The other actions will not help decrease the patient’s health risks related to smoking.

60
Q

A patient admitted to the hospital after an automobile accident has a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of 220 mg/dl (0.22 mg%). The patient is alert and does not appear highly intoxicated. An appropriate nursing action is to

a.

maintain the patient on NPO status.

b.

avoid the use of intravenous (IV) fluids.

c.

administer acetaminophen for headache.

d.

monitor frequently for anxiety, hyperreflexia, and sweating.

A

D

The patient’s assessment data indicate physiologic dependence on alcohol, and the patient is likely to develop acute withdrawal such as anxiety, hyperreflexia, and sweating, which could be life-threatening. Acetaminophen is not recommended because it is metabolized by the liver. IV thiamine and IV glucose solutions usually are given to intoxicated patients to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and there is no indication that the patient should be NPO.

61
Q

A patient who is alcohol-intoxicated must undergo emergency surgery for abdominal trauma. The nurse anticipates that during the perioperative period, the patient

a.

will require an increased dose of the general anesthetic medication.

b.

will need frequent monitoring for bleeding and respiratory complications.

c.

is likely to develop withdrawal symptoms within a few hours after surgery.

d.

should be stimulated every hour to prevent prolonged postoperative sedation.

A

B

Patients who are intoxicated at the time of surgery are at increased risk for problems with bleeding and respiratory complications such as aspiration. In an intoxicated patient, a lower dose of anesthesia is used because of the synergistic effect of the alcohol. Withdrawal is likely to occur later in the postoperative course because the medications used for anesthesia, sedation, and pain will delay withdrawal symptoms. The patient should be monitored frequently for oversedation but does not need to be stimulated.

62
Q

A patient with alcohol dependence is admitted to the hospital with chest pain. Twenty-four hours after admission, the patient becomes very tremulous and anxious. An appropriate intervention by the nurse is to

a.

insert an IV line and infuse fluids.

b.

promote oral intake to 3000 ml/day.

c.

provide a quiet, well-lit environment.

d.

administer opioids to provide sedation.

A

C

The patient’s symptoms suggest acute alcohol withdrawal, and a quiet and well-lit environment will help to decrease agitation, delusions, and hallucinations. There is no indication that the patient is dehydrated. Benzodiazepines, rather than opioids, are used to prevent withdrawal. IV lines are avoided whenever possible.

63
Q

A patient with a history of heavy alcohol use is seen at the clinic with acute gastritis. Which statement by the patient indicates that the patient is in the contemplation stage of change?

a.

“I am older and wiser now, and I know I can change my drinking behavior.”

b.

“Alcohol has never bothered my stomach. I think it’s likely that I have the flu.”

c.

“I think my drinking is affecting my stomach, but maybe some drugs will help.”

d.

“People say that I drink too much, but I really feel pretty good most of the time.”

A

C

This statement indicates that the patient recognizes that alcohol use is the reason for the gastritis but is not yet willing to make a change. The statement “I am older and wiser now, and I know I can change my drinking behavior” indicates a patient at the preparation stage. The remaining two statements are typical of the precontemplation stage.

64
Q

A patient who smokes a pack of cigarettes daily develops tachycardia and irritability on the second day after abdominal surgery. Which action is best for the nurse to take at this time?

a.

Escort the patient outside where smoking is allowed.

b.

Request a prescription for a nicotine replacement agent.

c.

Move the patient to a private room and allow smoking.

d.

Tell the patient that this is a good time to quit smoking.

A

B

Nicotine replacement agents should be prescribed for patients who are hospitalized to avoid withdrawal symptoms. Allowing the patient to smoke encourages ongoing smoking. Urging the patient to quit smoking is appropriate, but the first action should be to obtain appropriate medications to prevent withdrawal symptoms.

65
Q

A patient who is admitted to the hospital for treatment of an abscess on the left thigh admits to using fentanyl (Sublimaze) illegally. The nurse will monitor the patient for manifestations of withdrawal such as

a.

nausea and diarrhea.

b.

tremors and seizures.

c.

lethargy and disorientation.

d.

delusions and hallucinations.

A

A

Symptoms of opioid withdrawal include gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The other symptoms are seen during withdrawal from other substances such as alcohol, sedative-hypnotics, or stimulants.

66
Q

A patient in the outpatient clinic who is using a nicotine patch (Nicoderm CQ) tells the nurse about waking frequently during the night. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

a.

Question the patient about use of the patch at night.

b.

Suggest that the patient go to bed earlier in the evening.

c.

Ask the health care provider about prescribing a sedative drug for nighttime use.

d.

Remind the patient that the benefits of the patch outweigh the short-term insomnia.

A

A

Insomnia can occur when nicotine patches are used all night. This can be resolved by removing the patch in the evening. The other actions may be helpful in improving the patient’s sleep, but the initial action should be to ask about nighttime use of the patch and suggest removal of the patch at bedtime.

67
Q

During physical assessment of a patient who has sinus headaches, the nurse finds nasal sores and necrosis of the nasal septum. The nurse should ask the patient specifically about the use of

a.

heroin.

b.

cocaine.

c.

tobacco.

d.

marijuana.

A

B

When cocaine is inhaled, it causes ischemia of the nasal septum, leading to nasal sores and necrosis. These symptoms are not associated with the use of heroin, tobacco, or marijuana.

68
Q

A patient admitted with chest pain who is a pack-a-day smoker tells the nurse, “I am just not ready to quit smoking yet.” The best response by the nurse is

a.

“This would be a really good time to quit.”

b.

“Your smoking is the cause of your chest pain.”

c.

“Do you think that smoking has caused any health problems?”

d.

“Are you familiar with the various nicotine replacement options?”

A

C

The patient is in the precontemplation stage of change, and the nurse’s role is to assist the patient in identifying motivators to quitting. The current Clinical Practice Guidelines indicate that the nurse should ask the patient to identify any negative consequences from smoking. The responses “This would be a really good time to quit” and “Your smoking is the cause of your chest pain” express judgmental feelings by the nurse and are not likely to motivate the patient. Providing information about the various nicotine replacement options would be appropriate for a patient who has expressed a desire to quit smoking.

69
Q

A disoriented and agitated patient comes to the emergency department after using methamphetamine. Vital signs are blood pressure 162/98, heart rate 142 and irregular, and respirations 32. The most important intervention by the nurse is to

a.

reorient the patient at frequent intervals.

b.

monitor the patient’s ECG and vital signs.

c.

keep the patient in a quiet and darkened room.

d.

obtain a health history including prior drug use.

A

B

The priority is to ensure physiologic stability given that methamphetamine use can lead to complications such as myocardial infarction. The other actions also are appropriate but are not of as high a priority.

70
Q

A patient who takes methadone (Dolophine) daily to prevent a relapse of heroin addiction is admitted for knee surgery. To promote effective pain control postoperatively, the nurse will plan to

a.

use a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist drug for pain relief.

b.

administer opioid analgesics on a regularly scheduled basis.

c.

avoid use of opioids and use alternatives such as NSAIDs instead.

d.

give prescribed doses of opioid pain medication as needed for pain.

A

B

A patient addicted to opioids should receive them on an around-the-clock basis to prevent withdrawal. Normal opioid doses given on a PRN basis will not effectively relieve pain in a patient who has developed tolerance. NSAIDs may be used as adjuncts, but they should not be the primary analgesic used. Mixed opioid agonist-antagonist drugs can precipitate withdrawal in patients who have tolerance to opioids.

71
Q

A 69-year-old who has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) calls the clinic asking for a refill of the prescription 1 month before the Xanax should need to be refilled. The best response by the nurse to the patient is

a.

“The prescription cannot be refilled for another month. What happened to all of your pills?”

b.

“Do you have any muscle cramps and tremors if you don’t take the medication frequently?”

c.

“I will ask the doctor to prescribe a few more pills, but you will not be able to get any more for another month.”

d.

“I am concerned that you may be overusing the Xanax. Let’s make an appointment for you to see the doctor today.”

A

D

The patient should be assessed for problems that are causing overuse of the Xanax, such as anxiety or memory loss. The other responses by the nurse will not allow for the needed assessment and possible referral for support services or treatment of drug dependence.

72
Q

A 20-year-old patient who has inhaled cocaine is admitted to the emergency department with palpitations and shortness of breath. Which of these actions ordered by the health care provider will the nurse implement first?

a.

Obtain a 12-lead ECG.

b.

Start O2 at 4 L/minute.

c.

Draw blood for drug screening.

d.

Infuse normal saline at 100 ml/hr.

A

B

The priority here is to ensure that oxygenation is adequate. The other orders also should be accomplished as soon as possible but are not the first priority.

73
Q

An agitated individual is brought to the emergency department by friends who state that the patient took a hallucinogenic drug at a party and then tried to jump from a second-story window. The priority nursing diagnosis for the patient is

a.

risk for injury related to altered perception.

b.

ineffective health maintenance related to drug use.

c.

powerlessness related to loss of behavioral control.

d.

ineffective denial related to lack of control of life situation.

A

A

Although all the diagnoses may be appropriate for the patient, the highest priority is to address the patient’s immediate risk for injury.

74
Q

A 19-year-old patient comes to the emergency department with severe chest pain and agitation. Which action should the nurse take first?

a.

Give the PRN naloxone (Narcan) IV.

b.

Ask about any use of stimulant drugs.

c.

Assess orientation to person, place, and time.

d.

Check blood pressure, pulse, and respirations

A

C

The patient has symptoms consistent with the use of cocaine or amphetamines and is at risk for fatal tachydysrhythmias or complications of hypertension such as stroke or myocardial infarction. The nurse also will ask about drug use and assess orientation, but these are not the priority actions. Naloxone may be given if the patient develops symptoms of CNS depression, but this patient’s current symptoms indicate stimulant use.

75
Q

All the following medications are ordered for a patient admitted with a blood alcohol concentration of 0.18 mg%. Which one will the nurse give first?

a.

thiamine (vitamin B1) 100 mg daily

b.

lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg as needed

c.

folic acid (Vitamin B9) 0.4 mg daily

d.

dextrose 5% in 0.45 saline over 8 hours

A

A

Thiamine is given to all patients with alcohol intoxication to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Because Wernicke’s encephalopathy can be precipitated by the administration of glucose solutions, the thiamine should be given before (or concurrently with) the 5% dextrose solution. Lorazepam would not be appropriate while the patient still has an elevated blood alcohol concentration (BAC). Folic acid also may be administered but is not as important as thiamine.

76
Q

Which information obtained by the nurse about a patient who has been using varenicline (Chantix) is most important to report to the health care provider?

a.

The patient continues to smoke a few cigarettes every day.

b.

The patient complains of headaches that occur almost daily.

c.

The patient complains of new-onset sadness and depression.

d.

The patient says, “I have decided that I am not ready to quit.”

A

C

Adverse affects of varenicline include depression and attempted suicide. The patient’s symptoms require immediate assessment and discontinuation of the drug. The other information also will be reported, but it does not indicate any life-threatening problems associated with the medication.

77
Q

A patient who has a history of ongoing opioid abuse is hospitalized for surgery. After a visit by a friend, the nurse finds that the patient is unresponsive with pinpoint pupils. Which of these prescribed medications will the nurse administer immediately?

a.

naloxone (Narcan)

b.

diazepam (Valium)

c.

clonidine (Catapres)

d.

methadone (Dolphine)

A

A

The patient’s assessment indicates an opioid overdose, and naloxone should be given to prevent respiratory arrest. The other medications may be used to decrease symptoms associated with opioid withdrawal but would not be appropriate for an overdose.

78
Q

One of the physical changes in the respiratory system that is commonly seen as death approaches is alternating periods of apnea and deep, rapid breathing. How should the nurse document this finding?

a.

The death rattle

b.

Agonal breathing

c.

Apneustic breathing

d.

Cheyne-Stokes respiration

A

D

An abnormal pattern of respiration characterized by alternating periods of apnea and deep, rapid breathing is termed Cheyne-Stokes respiration.

79
Q

When caring for a patient close to death, when does the nurse recognize that death legally occurs?

a.

When the cerebral cortex function ceases

b.

When respirations cease

c.

When coma, absence of brainstem reflexes, and apnea occur

d.

When cardiopulmonary resuscitative efforts are not effective

A

C

The diagnosis of death is based on brain death; therefore, death has occurred when the patient has irreversible loss of all brain functions, including brainstem functions that control respirations and brainstem reflexes.

80
Q

Which of the following refers to care that is provided in the last days or weeks of the patient’s life?

a.

Hospice care

b.

Palliative care

c.

Respite care

d.

End-of-life care

A

D

End-of-life care is the care that is provided in the last days or weeks of life.

81
Q

A 48-year-old man has been diagnosed with metastatic malignant melanoma and has a poor prognosis. He plans an extensive trip around the country to visit family he has not seen or talked with in years. What psychosocial response does the nurse recognize that the patient is manifesting?

a.

Restlessness

b.

Saying goodbye

c.

Unfinished business

d.

Altered decision making

A

C

One of the psychosocial manifestations of approaching death is anxiety about unfinished business (including asking for forgiveness and forgiving others).

82
Q

For two months after a patient was diagnosed with pancreatic cancer, she did not admit that she was ill and in need of health care. What is the emotional response associated with this stage of grief?

a.

Yearning and protest

b.

Acceptance and accommodation

c.

Denial, disbelief, and avoidance

d.

Anger, despair, and confrontation

A

C

Many different theories explaining grief and the grieving process have been articulated over the years. Kübler-Ross (1969), Martocchio (1985), and Rando (1993) have all identified stages of grief and indicate that the first stage includes denial, disbelief, and avoidance.

83
Q

The wife of a patient with terminal lung cancer visits daily and cheerfully talks with the patient about vacation plans for the next year. When the nurse asks how she is feeling, the patient’s wife says, “I’m busy at work, but otherwise things are fine.” What is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for the wife?

a.

Caregiver role strain related to feeling overwhelmed

b.

Disabled family coping related to lack of grieving

c.

Anxiety related to complicated grieving process

d.

Hopelessness related to knowledge deficit about cancer

A

B

The wife’s behaviour and statements indicate the presence of avoidance, which may lead to impaired adjustment as the patient progresses toward death.

84
Q

As the nurse admits a patient with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) who has cryptococcal meningitis, the patient tells the nurse that she does not want to be resuscitated if she stops breathing. What should the nurse do with this information?

a.

Document the patient’s request in the patient’s record.

b.

Ask the patient if she has discussed this decision with her physician.

c.

Inform the patient that unless she has a written, notarized advance directive, resuscitation must be performed.

d.

Advise the patient to designate a person to make health care decisions on her behalf in the event that she cannot make her own decisions.

A

B

As a physician’s order should be written to include the information concerning the patient’s or the family’s wishes for the use of cardiopulmonary resuscitation, it is imperative that the nurse assess whether the patient has discussed this with his or her physician.

85
Q

A patient who is very close to death is very restless and repeats, “I am not ready to die.” What is the most appropriate nursing intervention at this time?

a.

Call the hospital chaplain to visit the patient.

b.

Sit with the patient, and ask him if he wants to talk.

c.

Inform the patient that everything possible is being done for him.

d.

Ask the patient what he needs to do to come to acceptance of his death.

A

B

A simple, caring presence provides support and comfort. Neither words nor actions are necessary unless the patient wants to talk. Holding hands, touching, and listening are considered to be high-quality nursing responses. Simply providing companionship allows the dying person a sense of security.

86
Q

The nurse consults with the physician to arrange a referral for hospice care for a patient with end-stage kidney disease, based on what knowledge regarding when hospice care is indicated?

a.

Family members can no longer care for dying patients at home.

b.

Patients and families are having difficulty coping with grief reactions.

c.

Preparation for death with palliative care and comfort are the goals of care.

d.

Patients have unmanageable pain and suffering as a result of their condition.

A

C

Palliative care is defined as care aimed at relief of suffering and improving the quality of life for persons who are living with or dying from advanced illness or are bereaved. The goal of palliative care is comfort and dignity for the person living with the illness and the best quality of life for both this person and his or her family.

87
Q

Which sense is usually the last one to disappear before death?

a.

Touch

b.

Sight

c.

Smell

d.

Hearing

A

D

Hearing is usually the last sense to disappear before death.

88
Q

Which of the following is a lay term used to describe instructions about future medical care?

a.

DNR orders

b.

Living will

c.

Advance directive

d.

Power of attorney for personal care

A

B

A living will is a lay term used to describe any number of documents that give instructions about future medical care and treatment.

89
Q

A patient near death has withdrawn from his family and the physical hospice environment. The nurse’s response is based upon which of the following nursing management guidelines?

a.

Encourage family to tell the dying person it is okay to die.

b.

Inform the family that the patient is about to die, as he has withdrawn from this world.

c.

Reinforce that this is a normal part of the dying process, and support the family.

d.

Encourage the dying person and the family to verbalize their feelings.

A

C

A patient nearing death may withdraw from others and from the physical environment, and the nurse bases her interaction on the nursing management guideline to reinforce that this is a normal part of the dying process and support the family. Conversely, s if the patient is alert, using a soft voice and gentle touch.

90
Q

Which of the following health care providers is legally qualified to complete a certification of death?

a.

Paramedic

b.

Physician

c.

Registered nurse

d.

Licensed practical nurse

A

B

Certification of death can only be undertaken by a physician or coroner. In many jurisdictions in Canada, registered nurses are legally able to provide a pronouncement of death, but not certification of death.

91
Q
A