L6: Thyroid Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

T4 has four ____ while T3 has three

A

Iodine residues

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2
Q

T4 means

A

Tetraiodothyronine or L-thyroxine

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3
Q

T3 means

A

L-triiodothyronine

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4
Q

glycoprotein synthesized
in the thyroid follicular cell, and acts as a precursor for the synthesis of thyroid
hormones

A

Thyroglobulin

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5
Q

Thyroglobulin contains large amount of ?

A

Tyrosine

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6
Q

Iodine from food is transported to the plasma and to the thyroid follicular cell. This process is called as?

A

Iodine trapping

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7
Q

Enzyme needed to activate inorganic iodide

A

thyroid oxidase or
peroxidase

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8
Q

Once activated, iodine will be transported
here, where it will be used for the
organification of thyroglobulin.

A

follicular lumen

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9
Q

iodine will be covalently
linked to the tyrosine residues located in
thyroglobulin

A

Organification

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10
Q

Organification forms iodotyrosine residues

A

DIT – diiodotyrosine (2 iodine
residues connected to tyrosine)

MIT – monoiodotyrosine (1 iodine)

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11
Q

will combine to form T4

A

DIT + DIT

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12
Q

will combine to form T3

A

DIT + MIT

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13
Q

Stimulates the release of thyroid hormones from thyroglobulin

A

Lysosomes

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14
Q

more abundant in the plasma; less
biologically active

A

T4

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15
Q

less abundant in the plasma; more
biologically active (acts on the peripheral
tissues)

A

T3

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16
Q

T4 can be converted into T3
through the process of

A

Deiodination

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17
Q

In deiodination, T4 can also be converted into?

A

Reverse T3

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18
Q

block transport of
iodide into the thyroid gland

A

Bromine, Fluroine, Lithium

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19
Q

These substances can impair
organification and coupling reaction

A

Amides (thionamides, sulfonamide,
salicylammide) and Antipyrine (an antipyretic)

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20
Q

Inhibit secretion of thyroid hormone

A

large doses of iodide and
lithium

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21
Q

The release of thyroid hormones is regulated by
the

A

hypothalamic, pituitary, and thyroid axis or the
HPT axis.

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22
Q

The primary point of regulation for this axis occurs
at the release of the _ by _

A

TSH by the anterior pituitary gland

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23
Q

Release of TSH is stimulated by the
release of the _ by _

A

TRH by the hypothalamus

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24
Q

TSH receptor is also called as?

A

Thyrotropin receptor

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25
Q

Activating TSH receptor activates what

A

activate adenylyl
cyclase, converting ATP into cAMP

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26
Q

An increased level of this increases the expression of the gene involved in the synthesis of thyroid hormones

A

cAMP

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27
Q

negative feedback control
mechanism

A

Once the body detects that the level of
thyroid hormones is too high, it will send a
negative feedback signal to the pituitary
gland, preventing release of TSH

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28
Q

test used
to measure how much radioactive iodine is
taken up by the thyroid gland.

A

RAIU (Radioactive Iodine Uptake)

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29
Q

THYROTOXICOSIS WITH
HYPERTHYROIDISM has high _

A

RAIU

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30
Q

THYROTOXICOSIS W/O HYPERTHYROIDISM has __ RAUI

A
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31
Q

One of the most common cause of
hyperthyroidism

A

GRAVE’S DISEASE

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32
Q

Immune system disorder resulting from
overproduction of thyroid hormones

A

GRAVE’S DISEASE

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33
Q

Thyroid-stimulating antibodies (TSAb)
directed against the thyrotropin receptor on the
surface of the thyroid cell.

A

Graves disease

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34
Q

Also known as Plummer’s disease

A

Toxic multinodular goiter

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35
Q

enlarged thyroid gland

A

Goiter

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36
Q

TH production is independent of TSH

A

Toxic multinodular goiter

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37
Q

Benign tumor that may be
active or inactive

A

Thyroid adenoma

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38
Q

Active tumor

A

Toxic adenoma

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39
Q

Function is independent of pituitary control

A

Thyroid adenoma

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40
Q

↑Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) → TSH
receptor → TH

A

Trophoblastic disease

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41
Q

Serum hCG levels usually exceed ____ U/mL
(kU/L) and always exceed ___ U/mL

A

300

100

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42
Q

Mean peak hCG level in Normal pregnancy:

A

50
U/mL

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43
Q

↑ or inappropriately “normal” serum
immunoreactive TSH concentrations

A

TSH-INDUCED HYPERTHYROIDISM

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44
Q

Evidence of peripheral hypermetabolism

A

TSH-INDUCED HYPERTHYROIDISM

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45
Q

Diffuse thyroid gland enlargement (goiter)

A

TSH-INDUCED HYPERTHYROIDISM

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46
Q

Characterized by the presence of tumors in the
anterior pituitary gland

A

TSH-SECRETING PITUITARY TUMORS

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47
Q

Tumors can secrete a TSH that is as biologically
active as the normal TSH, that is unresponsive
to normal feedback control.

A

TSH-SECRETING PITUITARY TUMORS

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48
Q

TSH-SECRETING PITUITARY TUMORS cosecretes what

A

prolactin and growth hormone

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49
Q

Prolactin cause

A

Amenorrhea/galactorrhea

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50
Q

Growth hormone causes

A

Signs of acromegaly

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51
Q

Selective resistance of the pituitary thyrotrophs to
thyroid hormone → ↑TSH → Hyperthyroidism

A

PITUITARY RESISTANCE TO THYROID
HORMONE

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52
Q

Thyrotoxicosis factitia

A

EXOGENOUS THYROID HORMONE

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53
Q

a physiological response where the thyroid gland temporarily reduces thyroid hormone synthesis in the presence of high iodine levels

A

Wolf-chaikoff effect

54
Q

Thyroid tissue destruction, inflammation,
fibrosis

A

Type II-amiodarone induced thyrotoxicosis

55
Q

↑Iodine delivery and uptake → ↑TH

A

Type I-amiodarone induced thyrotoxicosis

56
Q

Common cause of thyrotoxicosis

A

PAINLESS THYROIDITIS

57
Q

Autoimmunity underlies most cases

A

PAINLESS THYROIDITIS

58
Q

Inflammation is caused by presence of anti-
thyroid antibodies that attack thyroid tissue

A

Painless thyroiditis

59
Q

Is thyroid tenderness present in painless thyroiditis

A

No

(absent)

60
Q

Similar to painless thyroiditis, except
inflammation is caused by a virus

A

Subacute thyroiditis

61
Q

Patients complain of severe pain in the thyroid
region, which often extends to the ear on the
affected side

A

SUBACUTE THYROIDITIS

62
Q

Teratoma of the ovary that contains differentiated
thyroid follicular cells and is capable of making
thyroid hormone.

A

STRUMA OVARII

63
Q

Functioning metastatic differentiated papillary or
follicular carcinomas synthesize sufficient thyroid
hormones → thyrotoxicosis.

A

METASTATIC THYROID CANCER

64
Q

Outstretched hands

A

hyperkinesia

65
Q

Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes

A

hyperreflexia

66
Q

unique sign of grave’s disease

A

Exophthalmos

67
Q

swelling or redness of legs, especially in
the pretibial area or shin

A

Pretibial myxedema or thyroid dermopathy

68
Q

Pretibial myxedema or thyroid dermopath is due to localized accumulation of?

A

hyaluronic acid and chondroitin sulfate in
the dermis of the skin

69
Q

Sign of autoimmune disorder,
characterized by digital clubbing, swelling
of hands and feet

A

Thyroid acropachy

70
Q

When you feel up the patient’s neck, you
will feel vibrations

A

Thyroid thrill and systolic bruit

71
Q

Give false positive result in blood tests for diagnosing hyperthyroidism and thyrotoxicosis

72
Q

Normal RAIU

73
Q

Black thyroid scan

A

Grave’s disease

74
Q

Patchy white thyroid scan

A

Thyroiditis

75
Q

Single black patch in thyroid scan

A

Hot nodule

76
Q

Single white patch in thyroid scan

A

Cold nodule

77
Q

Two types of thyroidectomy:

A

Total and subtotal

78
Q

Thyroidectomy for graves disease

A

Total thyroidectomy

79
Q

Indication for thyroidectomy

A

o Large thyroid gland (>80 g)
o Severe ophthalmopathy
o Lack of remission on antithyroid drug

80
Q

Before conducting thyroidectomy, you
need to ensure that the patient is in _

A

Euthyroid state

81
Q

given until the
patient is euthyroid (6-8 weeks) b4 thyroidectomy

A

Methimazole

82
Q

given 10-14 days before surgery before thyroidectomy

A

Iodides 500 mg/day

83
Q

given 10-14 days
combined pretreatment with propranolol before thyroidectomy

A

Potassium iodide

84
Q

given several weeks
preoperatively and 7-10 days after
surgery. To maintain PR <90 bpm

A

Propranolol

85
Q

Thionamide drugs

A

• Methimazole (MMI)
• Propylthiouracil (PTU)

86
Q

PTU acts on the peripheral tissues,
preventing conversion of T4 into T3

A

Propylthiouracil

87
Q

Inhibits peroxidase, which is responsible
for the oxidation of iodide into iodine

A

Thionamides

88
Q

Can also inhibit coupling reactions of
iodotyrosine residues, which prevents
synthesis of thyroid hormones

A

Thionamides

89
Q

Which thioanamide is more potent

A

Methimazole

90
Q

safest thionamide for
pregnant patients in the 1st trimester
ONLY

A

Propylthiouracil

91
Q

To induce long-term remission in
patients with Grave’s disease →
Continue antithyroid therapy for ___

A

12 - 24 mos

92
Q

After remission monitor the patient every ___

A

6 to 12 mos

93
Q

Tx when relapse occurs while using thionamides

A

Alternate therapy with RAI

94
Q

Minor ADRs of thionamides

A
  • pruritic maculopapular rashes
  • arthralgia or joint pain
  • fever
  • benign transient leukopenia
95
Q

When should u discontinue thionamides when it causes benign transient leukopenia

A

Since leukopenia is transient and if the WBC is not too low, you may continue the drug. Continue to
monitor, and if WBC continues to lower, it becomes reasonable to discontinue.

96
Q

Major ADRs of thionamides

A
  • agranulocytosis
  • a plastic anemia
  • arthralgia and lupus-like syndrome
  • Polymyositis
  • GI intolerance
  • hypoprothrombinemiamia
  • hepatotoxicity
97
Q

Inhibit thyroid hormone biosynthesis by
interfering with intrathyroidal iodide
utilization

98
Q

Decrease the size and vascularity of the
gland

99
Q

Difference in improvement seen in thionamides and iodides

A

Thionamides - 4-8weeks
Iodides - 2-7 days

100
Q

Adjunctive therapy to prepare patients
with Grave’s disease for surgery
(euthyroid state)

101
Q

Adrs of iodides

A
  • hypersensitivity reactions
  • salivary gland swelling
  • iodism
  • gynecomastia
102
Q
  1. Contains 38 mg iodide per drop
  2. Contains 6.3 mg iodide per drop
A
  1. Saturated solution of potassium iodide
  2. Lugol’s solution
103
Q

How many days is needed to prevent
interference of iodides with the
uptake of RAI

A

3 to 7 days

104
Q

Used to ameliorate the symptoms such as
palpitations, tremors, anxiety, and heat
intolerance

A

B - blockers

105
Q

block the conversion
of T4 to T3

A

Propranolol and Nadolol

106
Q

Adjunctive therapy with antithyroid drugs,
RAI, or iodides in Grave’s disease and toxic nodules, in preparation for surgery, in
thyroid storm

A

Beta blockers

107
Q

CI of beta blockers

A

o Decompensated heart failure
o Sinus bradycardia
o Concomitant therapy with MAOI/TCA
o Hypoglycemia

108
Q

Initial dose of propranolol

A

Initial dose: 20-40 mg QID

109
Q

Dose of propranolol for younger and severely toxic patients

A

** 240-480 mg/day**

110
Q

Useful when contraindications to B-blocker exist

A

Centrally acting sympatholytics

111
Q

For symptomatic treatment of hyperthyroidism

A

Centrally acting sympatholytics

112
Q

Dose of clonidine

A

150 mcg twice daily

113
Q

Diltiazem dose

A

120 mg every 8 hours

114
Q

Agent of choice for Graves’ disease, toxic
autonomous nodules, and toxic MNGs.

A

SODIUM IODIDE 131 (131I)

115
Q

mainstay adjunctive therapy to RAI
treatment.

A

b-blockers

116
Q

given prior to RAI to patients with
cardiac disease and elderly

A

thionamides

117
Q

thionamides should be withdrawn in __ days prior to RAI and reinstituted _ days after

A

4-6 days

4

118
Q

increases cure rate and shortens time to cure

119
Q

prevents post-therapy increase in thyroid hormones

120
Q

has the same indication as thionamides

121
Q

side effects of iodides

A

o Hypothyroidism (occurs years after RAI)
o Mild thyroidal tenderness
o Dysphagia

122
Q

Preferred thionamide

A

propylthiouracil

123
Q

does NOT have an effect on
the peripheral tissues (but has a longer
duration of action)

A

methimazole

124
Q

can propylthiouracil be crushed into suspension with water or saline and be instilled via gastric or rectal tube

125
Q

Should be administered after thionamide is
initiated

126
Q

Can be used in patients with pulmonary
disease (COPD or asthma) or at risk for
cardiac failure

127
Q

why are corticosteroids used for thyroid disorders

A

Benefits derived from steroids may be caused by
their antipyretic action and their effect of
stabilizing BP

128
Q

should not be given

A

aspirin or NSAIDS

129
Q

given to remove excess thyroid hormone

A

PLASMAPHERESIS & PERITONEAL
DIALYSIS