L6 Prenatal Diagnosis Flashcards

1
Q

What are the benefits of prenatal diagnosis where an abnormality is detected?

A
  • Gives parents options (further testing, referral, termination)
  • Allows clinicians to adapt their approach (altered obstetric and neonatal management)
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2
Q

What are some key risks of prenatal diagnosis?

A
  • Parental anxiety
  • True and false positive
  • Pregnancy complications
  • Pregnancy loss
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3
Q

What are the common forms of chromosomal abnormalities and how common are they, as a whole?

A
  • 1 in 300 pregnancies
  • 95% are Trisomy 21, 13, 18 or sex chromosome issues
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4
Q

List some key risk factors for chromosomal abnormalities:

A
  • Age (e.g. Downs syndrome risk increases steeply after the mother is over 35)
  • Family history of genetic abnormalities
  • Chromosomal abnormality in one of prospective parents
  • Previous miscarriage or stillbirth
  • Previous baby with birth defect
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5
Q

Why is prenatal screening still important when we can do risk assessments for risk factors?

A
  • More than 90% of structural and chromosomal foetal abnormalities are born to low-risk women
  • All pregnant women are thus offered rapid screening
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6
Q

What factors are used to screen for genetic disease?

A
  • Maternal age -> poor screening on its own (~30% DS cases detected)
  • Biomarkers are crucial
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7
Q

What screening tests are used during the first trimester for CAs?

A
  • At 11 - 14 weeks the combined test will be offered….
  • Nuchal translucency (based on USS, looking for an excess of fluid at the back of baby’s neck) -> high NT also an indicator for heart defects
  • High hCG levels
  • Low PAPP levels
  • Results are taken into context with maternal age to produce the likelihood of an affected child
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8
Q

What are the components of the quadruple maternal serum screen and when is it performed (CAs):

A
  • hCG (high->DS), AFP (alpha fetoprotein; low in DS and high in neural tube defects), unconjugated estriol (low -> DS), inhibin A (high->DS)
  • Performed at 15 - 20 weeks (second trimester)
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9
Q

What is nuchal translucency?

A
  • Based on USS
  • Looking for an excess of fluid at the back of baby’s neck
  • High for GA: Higher DS risk
  • High (for GA) NT also an indicator for heart defects
  • Naturally increases with gestational age
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10
Q

List some conditions that might be indicated by raised NT with normal karyotype:

A
  • Cardiac defects
  • Diaphragmatic hernia
  • Pulmonary defects
  • Skeletal dysplasias
  • Congenital infection
  • Metabolic/haem disorders
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11
Q

What would be the clinical pathway following raised NT with normal karyotype?

A
  • Various cardiac and pulmonary issues risked
  • Diagnostic testing and foetal echocardiogram required at 20 weeks
  • More detailed anatomy scan to be performed at 18 - 20 weeks
  • Genetic counselling!
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12
Q

Give 2 examples of non-invasive chromosomal evaluation methods:

A
  • Foetal cells from maternal circulation
  • PGT-A
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13
Q

Give 3 examples of invasive chromosomal evaluation methods:

A
  • Amniotic fluid (amniocentesis) ->usually later due to risk of damage to body structure
  • Placenta (CVS) -> earlier diagnosis
  • Foetal blood
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14
Q

When and how is chorionic villus sampling performed?

A
  • From ~10 weeks (typically 11 - 14)
  • Typically abdominal
  • Transcervical and transvaginal less common
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15
Q

What features can be tested using samples from invasive testing methods?

A
  • Karyotype (trisomy, monosomy, polyploidy)
  • Other genetic aberrations (deletion, duplication, inversion, translocation, ring chromosome
  • Infectious diseases (e.g. CMV)
  • Biochemical markers (e.g. chorioamnionitis, raised IL-6)
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16
Q

What is ring chromosome and what can it result in?

A
  • Very uncommon event where chromosome ends fuse, usually with loss of telomeres
  • Either developmental onset or due to radiation
  • Associated syndromes depend on affected chromosome but often involve marked growth delay
17
Q

Outline how amniocentesis is performed:

A
  • High resolution USS-guided removal of 20cc amniotic fluid
  • Not under GA
  • Skin cells present in fluid can then be used for various tests (e.g. following rapid culture or more reliable and lengthy biochemical analysis)
18
Q

Outline the CVS procedure:

A
  • Bigger needle than amnio in order to agitate villi
  • GA will be used
  • Chorionic villus sample taken from placenta
19
Q

What methods of testing can be used on CV samples?

A
  • Direct analysis: Examining placental trophoblasts; rapid but vulnerable to mitotic error
  • Cultured analysis: Examining fibroblast-like cells of villus stroma or mesenchymal core; takes >10 days but is more accurate
20
Q

Outline the complications that can arise from invasive prenatal testing:

A
  • Pregnancy loss 1:100 - 200
  • Bigger needle -> Greater risk
  • Leakage of amniotic fluid -> respiratory distress syndrome
  • Limb reduction
  • Amnionitis
  • Maternal visceral injury or bleeding
  • Potential iso-immunisation
21
Q

Mosaicism can affect…

A
  • Foetus
  • Placenta (placental mosaicism)
  • Both
  • Arises from non disjunction at various points in meiosis or later mitosis
22
Q

Why might CVS be offered later than 15 weeks to older mothers?

A
  • Increased risk of mosaicism with maternal age due to somatic mosaicism
  • CVS must check both layers of placenta…
  • -> Cytotrophoblast to check placenta
  • -> Mesenchymal core to check foetal karyotype
23
Q

What are the health implications of uniparental disomy?

A
  • Parental imprinting (heterodisomy, isodisomy)
  • Unmasking of recessive conditions in some cases of isodisomy
24
Q

What chromosomes have links with adverse phenotypic imprinting effects?

A
  • 15 (PWS/AS)
  • 11 (B-W)
  • 6
  • 7
  • 14
  • Molecular UPD testing should be considered for these chromosomes
25
What samples/tests can be used to diagnose mosaicism -> clinical outcomes:
* CVS shows that the placenta is affected * Amniotic fluid suggests that at least one foetal tissue may be affected * Foetal blood sampling confirms diagnosis of chr. mosaicism * USS findings (physiological features) * Previous case reports known in the literature (for guidance)
26
What is offered under the fetal anomaly screening programme (NHS)?
* Non-invasive test for foetal anomalies using cell-free DNA from apoptotic trophoblastic cells * Offered as part of combine 1st trimester screen in **high risk women** (1:150 risk) * Can have reduced accuracy if foetal fraction is low, as well as in cases of maternal malignancy, vanishing twin and high BMI * Persistent low fraction is, itself, an indicator of high risk for T18 and T13 * Placental mosaicism may lead to false positive result
27
What are the 2 key sources of foetal DNA for NIPT?
* Foetal cells (1 in a billion of total cell population) * -> Require isolation via mechanical and/or biochemical means * Cell-free DNA (in maternal blood); 2 - 20% of total cfDNA is foetal -> can be sequenced and compared to reference for analysis
28
Advantages of screening using cfDNA:
* Reduces unnecessary procedures in borderline high-risk women * High sensitivity for DS
29
Disadvantages of screening using cfDNA:
* Not available on NHS and costly * 7 - 10 working days * Not diagnostic * Variable depending on affected chromosome and on woman's pre-test risk in 1st T screening