L45 Congenital and perinatal viral infections (IMP) Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of

a) Intrauterine infection
b) Perinatal infection
c) Neonatal infection

What is congenital infection?

A

a) Intrauterine infection - in utero, before birth
b) Perinatal infection - birth - 1 week
c) Neonatal infection - up to 4 weeks

Congenital infection = in utero +/- perinatal

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2
Q

List 6 causative organisms that causes intrauterine infection.

A
  1. Rubella
  2. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
  3. Varicella Zoster virus (VZV)
  4. Parvovirus B19
  5. Toxoplasma
  6. Zika virus
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3
Q

Name 6 viruses that cause perinatal infection.

A
  1. HSV (Herpes simplex virus) [acute]
  2. HIV (Human immunodeficiency virus)
  3. HBV, HCV
  4. Enterovirus [acute]
  5. HTLV Human T cell lymphotrophic virus
  6. HPV (Human papillomavirus)
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4
Q

Severity of a congenital infection depends on?

A
  1. Primary or reactivation
  2. Timing - gestation

> affects overall risk , whether requires abortion

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5
Q

For congenital infection of rubella, permanent clinical presentation differs in 3 different phases in utero:

a) First 12 weeks
b) Weeks 13-16
c) Weeks 16 or above

For transient clinical manifestations:

  • low birth weight
  • thrombocytopenia
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • bone lesion
  • meningoencephalitis (rare)
A

a) First 12 weeks
- 90% with congenital rubella syndrome
1. permanent defects in ear (MC, deafness)
2. eye (e.g. cataract, glaucoma, retinopathy)
3. CNS (mental retardation)
4. Cardi (patent ductus arteriosus, pulmonary artery stenosis, VSD..)
5. DM
6. Thyroid disorder

b) Weeks 13-16
- deafness (20%)

c) Weeks 16 or above
- minimal, but deafness and retinopathy possible

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6
Q
For postnatal rubella infection
A. Transmitted by aerosol
B. Rash goes from limbs > trunk > face
C. May cause arthritis of small joints esp in female
D. Fever, malaise, lymphadenomathy 
E. 2-3 week incubation period
A

B is wrong:

face > trunk > limbs

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7
Q

Which of the following is correct for rubella?
A. Clinical diagnosis is accurate
B. Virological investigations is not needed in pregnant women with vaccination history/ previous antibody test results
C. Acute infection causes IgM to be increased by 4-folds in antibody titre
D. Viral isolation using urine or respiratory sample is fast
E. PCR cannot be performed on amniotic fluid

A

Only C is correct

A: inaccurate
B: always indicated in pregnant women!
D: slow!
E: PCR can be performed on urine, NPA/ ammonitic fluid (urine of baby)

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8
Q

Serology of rubella:
Increase in IgM by 4x = acute infection
Increase in IgG after __________ = immunity
Screening for ___________ for all antenatal women is required regardless of vaccination Hx

A

2 weeks;
rubella IgG

  • Epidemiology: IgG+ in 90% of adults now
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9
Q
Which of the following are notifiable diseases?
A.Rubella
B Varicella Zoster Virus
C. CMV
D. Parvovirus B19
A

A and B

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10
Q

Cytomegalovirus is a member of family ______________?

90% of adults now is IgG+.
Primary infection is usually asymptomatic and common in childhood, followed by persistence.
Frequently shed in _______ and ________of children.
Secondary infection in immunocompromised, causing?

A

Herpesviridae;
urine and saliva;
CMV pneumonitis, hepatitis

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11
Q

For primary infection of CMV during pregnancy, it is symptomatic/asymptomatic in mother, and the fatal infection rate is _____%.
Fetal damages can result from maternal infections at ____ stage(s) of gestation.

5-10% symptomatic at birth, with severe congenital cytomegalic disease
another 10% develop deafness, psychomotor retardation

A

asymptomatic;
40; (around 1/3 transmitted to baby)
all;

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12
Q

What is clinical symptoms for cytomegalic inclusion disease (5-10%)? (4)

A
  1. Growth retardation
  2. Petechial haemorrhage
  3. Jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly
  4. Encephalitis, chorioretinitis
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13
Q

For secondary CMV infection, mother is symptomatic/asymptomatic. risk to fetus is ________, why?

A

asymptomatic;
low;
antibody in mother will clear the virus quickly

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14
Q

CMV: how do we diagnose:

  1. Maternal infection
  2. Congenital infection in fetus
  3. Congenital infection in newborn
A
  1. Maternal infection
    - active search is not recommended as most HK adults are IgG+
  2. Congenital infection in fetus
    - virus isolation/ detection of virus by PCR in amniotic fluid
  3. Congenital infection in newborn
    - virus isolation/ PCR in urine/saliva within 3 weeks of birth (if after 3 weeks: virus may be actually acquired post-natal)
  • NOT IgM
  • NOT 4 fold antibody titre
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15
Q

Primary infection and reactivation of Varicella Zoster virus is?

A

Primary infection: Chickenpox

  • vesicular rash
  • pustular and crusting
  • life threatening in neonates, immunodeficiency
  • pneumonia may occur
  • encephalitis

Reactivation: Zoster (/shingles)

  • pain before rash
  • vesicular lesions in dermatome
  • pain may persist after healing
  • dissemination in immunodeficiency
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16
Q

Vesicular lesions of VZV distribution?

A

From trunk, head to extremities

17
Q

Chicken pox in pregnant mothers:
A. Cause secondary bacterial infection, hemorrhage, encephalitis
B. Cause Reye’s syndrome, Guillain-Barre syndrome
C. Cause pneumonitis
D. Higher risk in smokers
E. Higher risk in 1st trimester

A

C esp in D,E

Should be 3rd trimester! 40% mortality!

18
Q

VZV in pregnant mothers, effect on fetus:
A. Zoster has no harm to fetes at any stage of gestation
B. Severe maternal chickenpox infection may cause abortion
C. Chickenpox in 1st 20 weeks may cause congenital varicella syndrome (1-2%)
D. Chickenpox in 2nd and 3rd trimester causes zoster in infancy with no embryopathy
E. Perinatal chickenpox does not affect fetus

A

E is wrong!

  • Cause severe neonatal varicella! (FATAL)
  • maternal chickenpox 5 days before - 2 days after delivery
  • inadequate time to produce adequate Ab and pass to the baby

C: low birth weight, cutaneous scarring, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, cortical atrophy, ocular abnormalities, mental retardation
- perform seroscan to monitor disease progression, abortion is not recommended

19
Q

VZV has characteristic clinical presentation thus lab diagnosis is seldom necessary. T/F?

A

T!

but if needed: best method is direct detection for viral antigen in skin scrape sample by IF

20
Q

Varicella zoster immunoglobulin is expensive with limited supply. When is post-exposure prophylaxis given?

A
  1. High-risk neonates
  2. Susceptible pregnant women (IgG-, exposed to people infected)
  • check VZV IgG status before treatment
21
Q

Chickenpox vaccine

  • What type of vaccine?
  • Is it given to pregnant ladies?
  • how many doses?
A
  • Live-attenuated vaccine
  • Contraindicated in pregnant ladies!
  • 2 doses for adults, safe, 100% response
22
Q

Parvovirus B19
A. by aerosol route
B. 50% adults IgG+ve worldwide, 30% in HK
C. 50% asymptomatic in immunocompetent host
D. Rash (Fifth disease) and arthritis in mother
E. Hydrops fetalis in fetus
F. IgG for serology

A

All except F!
IgM for serology

E: anemia and stillbirth too

23
Q

Zika virus belongs to family ______________,

transmitted by the vector _____________, and also?

A

Flaviviridae
- Aedes species of mosquitoes

Sexual, intrauterine, possible blood transfusion and breastmilk

24
Q

Clinical features for Zika virus?
A. Most commonly asymptomatic
B. Dengue like: fever, rash, myalgia, joint pain, conjunctivitis
C. associated with Gullain Barre sydrome
D. Microcephaly
E. High proportion of abnormality if infection is during 3rd trimester

A

E should be 1st trimester!

A: 80%

D: also eye, dural rube defects and CNS dysfunction

25
Q

Diagnosis of Zika virus for fetal infection?

A
  1. RT-PCR: amniotic fluid/ cord blood

2. IgM testing: cord blood

26
Q

What is MMRV?

  • what type?
  • for?
  • C/I in?
A

Measles, mumps, rubella, varicella vaccine

  • live attenuated vaccine, 2 doses
  • recommended for children, included in CIP: 1 y/o, primary 1; all HCP, adults

C/I in 1st trimester!

27
Q

When is Zoster vaccine given? How does it work?

A

For prevention of herpes zoster in patients > 60y;
contain much more virus than varicella vaccine to overwhelm anti-varicella Ab
(not to be given as primary prevention of chickenpox)

28
Q

Give 2 viruses that cause severe perinatal disease (not intrauterine)

A

HSV1, 2

29
Q

Primary HSV infection has 33% transmission rate

Clinical presentations? (5)

A
  1. Disseminated 50%
  2. Neurological 30%
  3. Mucocutaneous 20%
  4. Complications: mental retardation, cerebral palsy, eye defect
  5. 90% mortality if untreated by IV acyclovir
30
Q

Enterovirus has >70 serotypes, common types include Coxsackie B2, B4, ECHO11.
It causes _____ infection in neonatal wards.
Perinatal infection causes?

A

Nosocomial;

Myocarditis, meningoencephalitis

31
Q

Genital human papilloma virus is due to the acquisition of HPV _______ via vaginal delivery in neonates.

It causes?

A

HPV6/11;

Recurrent laryngeal papillomatosis (vocal cord lesion, airway obstruction)

32
Q

When is oral acyclovir used in pregnant ladies?

What is its MOA? therefore what S/E?

A

Indicated in pregnant women > 20 weeks of gestation; considered in those <20 weeks;

DNA polymerase inhibitor > may interfere with fetal DNA synthesis

33
Q

List 3 live attenuated vaccine.

Are they given in pregnancy?

A
  1. Polio
  2. Yellow fever
  3. MMRV
  • possible teratogeniticity, avoid if possible
34
Q

Antenatal screening
A. Rubella
B. HBsAg
C. HIV

for? Management?

A

A. Rubella IgG; if -ve, offer postnatal MMRV for mother
B. if mother +ve,
1. HBIG + vaccine for newborn,
2. tenofovir for mother at 32w of gestation

C: HIV antibody;

  1. antenatal + perinatal antiviral therapy
  2. counselling for abortion/continuation for pregnancy
35
Q

Why is serology screening for TORCH organisms no longer used?
Toxoplasma, Others, Rubella, CMV, HSV

A
  • Congenital infections are not limited to TORCH
  • Serology is not the best way for diagnosis
  • HSV is not intrauterine infection, but perinatal