L29- Nitrogen Metabolism Flashcards

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1
Q

More than 95% of the amino acids in plasma are replaced every ___ minutes.

A

10

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2
Q

Increased levels of which of the following compound(s) reflects an increase in protein intake: urea, ammonia, uric acid, and/or creatinine?

A

Urea.

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3
Q

Name two physiological examples in which it would be advantageous for an individual to be in positive nitrogen balance.

A

Childhood and pregnancy.

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4
Q

In which form is excess nitrogen excreted?

A

Urea.

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5
Q

What are the three general steps in which amino nitrogens from amino acids are excreted?

A
  1. Transfer of the amino group to a common carrier such as glutamine 2. Release of the transferred amino group as ammonia 3. Incorporation of ammonia into urea.
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6
Q

Which amino acids cannot be modified via transamination reactions?

A

Lysine and threonine.

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7
Q

List the three most commonly used alpha-ketoacids for transaminase reactions.

A

Pyruvate, alpha-ketoglutarate and oxaloacetate.

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8
Q

Which coenzyme is required for all aminotransferase enzymes?

A

Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP).

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9
Q

From which vitamin is pyridoxal phosphate derived?

A

Vitamin B6.

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10
Q

In the absence of an amino acid, the coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate is covalently bound to a _______ (amino acid) residue at the active site of the aminotransferase.

A

Lysine.

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11
Q

What is the role of glutamate dehydrogenase with regards to the production of ammonia?

A

It catalyzes the release of the alpha-amino group from glutamate by oxidative deamination.

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12
Q

In which tissue or organ, and in which cellular compartment, is the enzyme glutamate dehydrogenase found?

A

Liver mitochondria.

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13
Q

True or False. Glutamate dehydrogenase can use either NAD+ or NADP+ as a coenzyme.

A

True.

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14
Q

What are the allosteric activators of the deamination reaction catalyzed by glutamate dehydrogenase?

A

GDP and ADP.

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15
Q

What are the allosteric inhibitors of the deamination reaction catalyzed by glutamate dehydrogenase?

A

GTP and ATP.

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16
Q

Glutamate dehydrogenase can use either NAD+ or NADPH as a coenzyme. When is each coenzyme preferentially used?

A

NAD+ is generally used for deamination of glutamate, producing alpha-ketoglutarate and ammonia. NADPH is used for the reverse reaction, trapping ammonia as glutamate.

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17
Q

Which enzyme catalyzes the irreversible addition of ammonia to glutamate, trapping ammonia as glutamine?

A

Glutamine synthetase.

18
Q

What is the reaction catalyzed by asparagine synthetase?

A

This enzyme catalyzes the transfer of the amide nitrogen of glutamine to aspartate using ATP, forming asparagine, glutamate, AMP and PPi.

19
Q

Which enzyme catalyzes the irreversible release of ammonia from glutamine?

A

Glutaminase.

20
Q

What is the physiologic function of the glutaminase isoform found in the liver?

A

It couples ammonia production to urea synthesis for excretion of nitrogen.

21
Q

What is the physiologic function of the glutaminase isoform found in the kidneys?

A

It produces NH3, which gets protonated to NH4+ in the kidney tubules. This permits the conservation of other cations such as Na+ and K+, and therefore helps to regulate blood pH and combat acidosis.

22
Q

What is the source of the two nitrogens found in urea?

A

One enters the urea cycle as free ammonia while the other enters the urea cycle as the amino group on aspartate.

23
Q

How many ATP molecules are required for the production of one urea molecule through the urea cycle?

A

3 ATP’s are used (but 4 high-energy bonds are cleaved).

24
Q

In which tissue or organ does the urea cycle occur?

A

Liver.

25
Q

What are the precursors of the cofactor N-acetylglutamate?

A

Glutamate and acetyl-CoA.

26
Q

Which amino acid stimulates the activity of N-acetylglutamate synthase?

A

Arginine.

27
Q

In which cellular compartment is the enzyme carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPSI) found?

A

Mitochondria.

28
Q

How many molecules of ATP are required for the synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate by carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I?

A

2 ATP’s.

29
Q

What are the precursors of carbamoyl phosphate?

A

Carbon dioxide, ammonia and ATP.

30
Q

Which urea cycle intermediates travel in and out of the mitochondria?

A

Ornithine and citrulline.

31
Q

Which urea cycle enzyme is encoded on the X chromosome?

A

Ornithine transcarbamoylase.

32
Q

True or False. The levels of urea cycle enzymes in the liver are controlled primarily at the transcription level by glucagon, insulin and glucocorticosteroids.

A

True.

33
Q

What is the key regulatory step of the urea cycle?

A

Formation of carbamoyl phosphate by carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPSI).

34
Q

What is the required cofactor for activity of carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPSI)?

A

N-acetylglutamate (NAG).

35
Q

In which cellular compartment is the cofactor N-acetylglutamate (NAG) formed?

A

In the mitocondria only.

36
Q

What is the primary positive regulator of carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPSI)?

A

N-acetylglutamate (NAG).

37
Q

Which urea cycle enzyme releases urea as a product?

A

Arginase.

38
Q

What is the reaction catalyzed by ornithine transcarbamoylase?

A

It condenses ornithine and carbamoyl phosphate to form citrulline and Pi.

39
Q

Which two urea cycle enzymes catalyze the incorporation of a nitrogen molecule into the cycle?

A

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPSI) and argininosuccinate synthetase.

40
Q

Which urea cycle enzyme produces both arginine and fumarate?

A

Argininosuccinase.

41
Q

How many ATP equivalents are required for the production of one urea molecule in the urea cycle?

A

4 ATP equivalents are required.