L16-21 Flashcards

1
Q

Genes that have direct involvement in causing cancer:

A

TSG’s and PO’s

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2
Q

Genes that have indirect involvement in causing cancer and control DNA damage?

A

DNA repair genes, genes involved in carcinogen metabolism.

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3
Q

Why would DNA repair fail?

A

If a mutation is present in a PO or a TSG.

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4
Q

Ataxia telangectasia:

A

Autosomal recessive & rare

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5
Q

AT symptoms/features:

A

loss of coordination, dilated capillaries, immune deficiency, sensitivity to ionising radiation, predisposition to lymphoma and leukaemia. Heterozygotes have increased cancer risk due to gene being an intermediate for breast cancer (low penetrance)

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6
Q

Gene involved in AT

A

ATM gene - involved in sensing DNA damage, has protein kinase activity and phosphorylates p53 after DNA damage. AT cells cannot arrest the cell cycle in response to DNA damage

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7
Q

How is the ATM protein held in its inactive and active states

A

Inactive state: oligomers that are phosphorylated, when sensing DNA damage, to monomers

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8
Q

Xeroderma pigmentosa:

A

Rare, AR

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9
Q

XP symptoms:

A

Dwarfism, mental retardation, blindness and deafness, severe UV sensitivity, skin and eye cancers (patients ALL have UV sensitivity but may not have any/all of the others)

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10
Q

What are the XP affected genes involved in?

A

gene excision and repair of thymine dimers, there are several genes involved, hence variable phenotype.

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11
Q

Bloom syndrome, symptoms and why?

A

AR, lymphoma, leukaemia, chronic lung disease and diabetes. Due to mutations in DNA helicase so DNA cannot be unwound correctly. Plus high levels of chromatin exchange in the cell.

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12
Q

Fanconis anaemia symptoms

A

AR, mental retardation, aniridia, skeletal abnormalities, leukaemia

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13
Q

How many genes in the fanconi anaemia complex and what do they do?

A
  1. All could mutate to give cancer. They act to ubiquitinate D2 and I protein subunits which then form a complex with three other proteins including BRCA2 to begin homologous recombination. This brings in BRCA1, RAD51 and RAD51C. Hom rec is a high fidelity way of repairing DNA damage, when it goes wrong, increased BC and FA risk.
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14
Q

Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer key points:

A

AD, early onset colon cancer, few polyps, mutations in mismatch repair genes. MLH1 is affected in 51% of HNPCCs. Also, TGFbeta receptor gene has a repeat region in it which is known to be particularly susceptible to repeat changes and is common in HNPCC (increases risk of colon cancer)

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15
Q

Features of genetic predisposition to cancer?

A

Family history, early onset cancer, multiple cancers (bilateral organs)

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16
Q

Retinoblastoma:

A

Childhood eye cancer affects 1/20,000, high cure rates. 40% inherited, one parent affected = 95% penetrance. AD.

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17
Q

Difference between hereditary tumours and sporadic tumours:

A
Hereditary = early onset and bilateral organs/ multiple tumours 
Sporadic = later onset and one tumour in one organ
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18
Q

What is the two hit theory

A

That regardless of if a tumour is sporadic or hereditary, there are two ‘hits’ or limited events in cancer development.

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19
Q

Evidence of the two hit theory:

A
  1. chromosome deletions
  2. allele loss (LOH) - mechanisms: non-disjunction, non-disjunction and duplication, mitotic recombination, deletion. - no LOH = gene conversion, point mutation
  3. Somatic cell hybrids - heterokaryon (non-tumourigenic)
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20
Q

Oncogene dominant mutations are:

A

Point mutations, gene amplification, chromosome translocations - few inherited mutations

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21
Q

TSG recessive mutations causing cancer

A

point mutations, deletions, epigenetic silencing.

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22
Q

Does the two hit theory hold?

A

No, most cancers and more complex than that and there are multiple steps and multiple genes involved.

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23
Q

What is the most common change in human cancers?

A

p53 mutation

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24
Q

RB1 properties:

A

Rb TSG, mutated in all retinoblastomas, encodes a 110kD nuclear phosphoprotein, involved in cell cycle regulation

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25
Q

How can you get a RB1- cell to revert to a more normal phenotype?

A

insert a functional copy of RB1

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26
Q

How do tumour viruses affect Rb?

A

E1A of adenovirus binds in place of the phosphate and E7 binds to unphosphorylated Rb. Both causing the release of E2F and pushing the cell into S phase (so viral DNA is replicated). Normally highly regulated mitogenic signals disrupt the Rb:E2F interaction to trigger the cell cycle.

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27
Q

WT1 properties:

A

1/10,000 childhood kidney tumour 11p13 deletion

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28
Q

WT1 mutation symptoms

A

WAGR syndrome: Wilms tumour, Aniridia, GI abnormalities, mental Retardation

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29
Q

What does WT1 encode?

A

DNA/RNA binding zinc finger proteins

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30
Q

p53 properties:

A

Transcriptional regulator, levels rise in response to DNA damage causing G1 arrest and repair (or apoptosis)

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31
Q

What syndrome has p53 germline mutations?

A

Li-Fraumeni syndrome (cancer susceptibility)

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32
Q

How is p53 regulated and why is regulation stopped when p53 is mutated?

A

p53 up regulated production of mdm2 which forms a complex with p53 causing it to be degraded, mutant p53 does NOT up reg mdm2, so mutant p53 builds up = increased levels.

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33
Q

MEN2A is associated with what and shows what diseases:

A

(Multiple endocrine neoplasia 2a) and is associated with RET and mutations give three diseases:

  1. Thyroid cancer
  2. Parathyroid hyperplasia - (calcium metabolism)
  3. Pheochromocytoma - benign tumour in adrenal medulla, can kill you due to increased adrenaline spikes
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34
Q

MEN2B is similar to MEN2A but…

A

does not give parathyroid hyperplasia and instead can cause gangloineuromas

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35
Q

FMTC stands for? and is due to?

A

Familial medullary thyroid cancer and is due to a germline mutation in RET

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36
Q

RET function:

A

TK receptor thats ligand is GDNF (glial derived neurotrophic factor). GDNF ligand causes receptor dimerisation between GDNFalpha and RET. Mutations in RET cause ligand independent activation = constitutive activation of the pathway. RET is expressed on neural crest cells and affects the tissues they make up.

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37
Q

MET

A

Encodes receptor TK, ligand = hepatocyte growth factor, gene on C7

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38
Q

MET is mutated in

A

hereditary papillary renal carcinoma via a germline missense mutation causing constituative activation of the TK receptor.

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39
Q

KIT

A

Encodes TK receptor for stem cell factor and is important in development, somatic and germline mutations of KIT are found in GI stromal tumours.

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40
Q

ALK

A

TK receptor with unknown ligand, somatic and germline mutations in neuroblastoma

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41
Q

CDK4/Cyclin D complexes:

A

phosphorylate RB1 to allow S phase entry. p16 inhibits CDK4.

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42
Q

Germline p16 mutations are seen in

A

familial melanoma, mutations in p16 prevent it binding to CDK4

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43
Q

Ras pathway mutations cause

A

developmental/ cancer syndromes

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44
Q

Screening for cancer: indicators, tests and benefits

A

I: family history, early onset/ multiple tumours
T: Karyotype, sequence gene (known & unknown mutations)
B: Early screening, Counselling, prenatal diagnosis.

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45
Q

An example of using chromosome translocations to find cancer genes:

A

RT PCR with primers specific for fusion protein. i.e. Edwings tumour t(11;22) product only appears if fusion protein is present.

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46
Q

Gene therapy for cancer involves:

A

TSG replacement, Antisense RNA to oncogenes (to inhibit them), RNA interference (siRNA)

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47
Q

What does anti-p53 virus do

A

Selectively kill of cancer cells with mutant p53 (doesn’t work so well in vivo)

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48
Q

Rational drugs for cancer?

A

Gleevec and Gefetnib (EFGR in lung cancer)

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49
Q

B-cell receptors recognize:

A

native antigen

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50
Q

TCR recognise:

A

peptide fragment of antigen presented by an MHC molecule on the surface of an APC.

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51
Q

Professional APC’s are:

A

DC’s, macrophages, B lymphocytes. They express MHC I and MHC II

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52
Q

What are the 3 domains on a MHC I molecule:

A

alpha1, alpha2, alpha3

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53
Q

What do alpha1 and alpha2 of an MHC I molecule contribute to the peptide binding cleft?

A

an alpha helix and several beta pleated sheets.

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54
Q

In MHC II what chains contribute to the peptide binding cleft?

A

alpha 1 and beta 1

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55
Q

How does a TCR recognise MHC and peptide?

A

The TCR has hypervariable loops on its variable domains, which interact with the side chains of the alphahelices AND the peptide. It is essential that the T cells recognise the complex of peptide and MHC to allow them to scan for infected cells or APCs

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56
Q

Where do T cells and DC’s reside in the lymph node?

A

Paracorticol area

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57
Q

How do B cells get activated by T cells? *check this

A

T cells present peptide to B cells, B cells internalise foreign material and present in on the surface in the context of MHC, T cells recognize the antigen and then provide help to activate the B cell by trafficking to just under the LN capsule. Here B cells become blast cells and are activated to enlarge and differentiate to plasma cells which produces specific antibodies that are then secreted.

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58
Q

CD4 associates with which and were on an MHC?

A

MHC II on the beta2 domain

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59
Q

CD8 associates where and with which MHC?

A

MHCI and with alpha3

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60
Q

T helper cell function:

A

Cytokine production, macrophage activation, “help” for B cells (IL-4)

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61
Q

T cytotoxic cell function:

A

cytotoxic lysis of infected or tumour cells

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62
Q

Congenic mouse:

A

Mice that are genetically identical except at a single locus or region

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63
Q

How are congenic mice bred?

A

By cycles of backcrossing, interbreeding and skin grafting

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64
Q

The major histocompatibility locus in mice.

A
complex: H-2
MHC Class: I 
Region: K GP: H-2K
Region: D GP: H-2D, H-2L
MHC class: II
Region: IA GP: IAalpbet
Region IE GP: IEalpbet
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65
Q

What is the human leukocyte antigen regions and gene products in relation to class

A

check on paper if right p16 L19

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66
Q

HLA E, F & G are

A

non classical HLA

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67
Q

HLA locus is:

A

polymorphic

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68
Q

HLA genes are

A

polymorphic

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69
Q

Why are most people heterozygous for MHC?

A

One allele inherited from mother and one from father, there are many different polymorphisms so they are highly unlikely to be the same.

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70
Q

What is TAPBP and where is it encoded?

A

In the MHC class II locus, tapasin is a component that proteates transporters associated with antigen processing with MHC molecules

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71
Q

TAP1 and TAP2 are:

A

In the MHC class II locus and are part of a heterodimer that transports peptides from the cytosol into the ER so the peptide can be loaded in the MHC class I molecule.

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72
Q

LMP2 & LMP7 on the MHC II locus are:

A

Components of proteosomes which are multi-enzyme complexes that chew up protein within the cytosol and generate peptides to be transported by TAP etc…

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73
Q

Which HLA genes are highly polymorphic?

A

HLA A, B, C and DRB1

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74
Q

What chain are the polymorphic AA around the peptide-binding groove on MHC I?

A

alpha1 and alpha2

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75
Q

What chain are the polymorphic AA around the peptide-binding groove on MHC II?

A

beta1

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76
Q

What is the key function of HLA?

A

To present peptides to T cells.

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77
Q

xenogenic

A

transplantation between different species

78
Q

allogenic

A

Transplant between genetically distinct members of the same species

79
Q

synergenic

A

genetically identical grafts

80
Q

Cyclosporin A

A

inhibits T cel proliferation and stops IL-2 secretion

81
Q

Tacrolimus

A

Dampens t cell responses

82
Q

What is the most commonly transplanted tissue?

A

Blood

83
Q

What is hyperacute rejection mediated by and how long does it take?

A

Antibody and complement, rapid/minutes

84
Q

What is acute immune rejection mediated by and how long does it take?

A

CD4 and CD8 T cell mediated with antibody deposition, days to weeks

85
Q

What causes chronic rejection of grafts and how long does it take?

A

macrophage infiltration and fibrosis. Months to years.

86
Q

What is the mechanism that causes hyperacute rejection?

A

Vascular endothelial cells have blood group antigens on them. If the host already has antibodies against these antigens (donor blood group antigens) it will lead to rapid organ rejection. This occurs in minutes and is complement dependent. Antibodies to blood group antigens may arise as a result of: previous transplant, transfusion or pregnancy

87
Q

What do anti-donor blood group antibodies bind to and cause?

A

They bind to the vascular endothelium of the graft initiating and inflammatory response that occludes the blood vessels, this causes the graft to haemorrhage and graft failure.

88
Q

Immune responses to grafts are…?

A

Specific for antigenic epitopes that differ between donor and recipient due to genetic difference between these members of the same species.

89
Q

First set rejection is:

A

what an allogenic graft is rejected from the recipient within 10-13 days

90
Q

Second set rejection is when

A

When a recipient is grafted for the second time from the same donor and the graft is rejected at a much more rapid rate (6-8 days)

91
Q

What do allogenic sin grafts onto nude mice show?

A

no rejection of the graft.

92
Q

If you introduced normal t cell into a nude mouse what does it restore and what does this show?

A

the ability to reject allogenic grafts, showing that the T cells are responsible for acute rejection.

93
Q

Acute renal graft rejection is caused by

A

alloreactive T cells responding to HLA differences between the donor and the recipient

94
Q

What pathological effects can be seen on a kidney being attacked by alloreactive T cells?

A

Swelling, haemmorrhage, necrosis, develops over days, can be prevented by immunosuppressive drugs.

95
Q

How do donor DCs from an allogenic graft stimulate rejection?

A

DCs from the donor travel in the blood to the 2ndary lymphoid tissue and stimulate effector T cells. These then travel to the donor organ via the blood and the graft is destroyed by effector t cells.

96
Q

Direct allorecognition involves:

A

Recipient t cell recognition of donor DCs in the spleen or draining LN

97
Q

Effector CD8 cells do what in acute rejection?

A

kill cells on the transplant

98
Q

In acute rejection, how are t cells activated?

A

On recognition of allogenic HLA I or II

99
Q

effector Th1 calls activate what in direct allorecognition?

A

macrophages to produce inflammatory cytokines; IL-1B, IL-6 and TNF. these recruit more leukocytes to the area of ‘damage’

100
Q

What doe CD4 t cells present with indirect allorecognition?

A

self-HLA present polymorphic graft HLA peptides (peptides formed by degradation in a host DC)

101
Q

What are minor histocompatibility antigens?

A

peptides of polymorphic cellular proteins bound to MHC molecules that can lead to graft rejection when they are recognized by T cells.

102
Q

Polymorphic self antigens (minor H antigens):

A

Differ in amino acid between individuals, so even if the individuals are major HC matched. These polymorphisms in self-peptides when presented by donor MHC will be recognized and cause rejection (slower than normal but still rejection = up to 60 days)

103
Q

CD4 t cells responding to antigens presented via the indirect pathway can lead to:

A

macrophage activation, chronic inflammation, vascular damage and fibrosis.

104
Q

The indirect pathway of allorecognition causes B cells to produce what?

A

Anti-HLA class I/II antibodies to reject the donor.

105
Q

What do alloantibodies do?

A

They bind to donor MHC receptors on vascular endothelial cells and recruit inflammatory cells to the blood vessel walls of the transplanted organ, this increases damage and enables immune effectors to enter the tissue of the blood vessel wall and to inflict increasing damage.

106
Q

Even though immunosuppressive drugs decrease the rate of acute rejection, they do not?

A

Change the rate of chronic rejection.

107
Q

what is the half life of renal allografts?

A

8 years

108
Q

What is kidney rejection caused by?

A

concentric arteriosclerosis of graft blood vessels with glomerular and tubular fibrosis and atrophy.

109
Q

what causes chronic graft rejection:

A

macrophage infiltration and scarring. Ischemia-reperfusion injury at the time of graft with damaging effects occurring later

110
Q

Problems associated with organ transplantation:

A

Availability of organs, graft rejection, disease attacking donor organ, toxicity of immunosuppressants ie cyclosporin A, risk of infection etc when on immunosuppressants to stop T cell activation, Infection from the donor organ.

111
Q

HSC transplantation can be used to cure:

A

genetic disease that affect blood cells: SCID, SCA, chronic granulatomous disease.
Treatment for WBC malignancies: leukaemia and lymphoma

112
Q

Why might recipients of HSC transplant receive conditioning treatment?

A

Myeloablative therapy, to prevent graft rejection by T cells to kill recipient HSCs in the BM and malignant WBCs and to make space for donor stem cells

113
Q

How is bone marrow transplanted

A

initially by intravenous transfusion, pluripotent SC’s from the donor BM engraft within the bone and then reconstitute all the haematopoietic lineages

114
Q

What is graft versus host disease?

A

When donor effector T cells enter inflamed tissue and cause more damage. Due to interaction with host DC’s causing them to proliferate. The donor effector cells enter tissue inflamed by the conditioning regiment and cause further tissue damage.

115
Q

What does organs does GVHD affect and how?

A

Skin - reddening and exfoliation
Intestines - various degrees of diarrhoea
Liver - increased bilirubin levels.

116
Q

How is GVHD treated?

A

Methotrexate - cytotoxic, inhibits DNA replication (affects T cells)

117
Q

What does cyclosporin A bind to and inhibit?

A

immnophilin and inhibits calcineurin and hence T cell activation

118
Q

Where can HSC’s be sourced from for therapeutic use?

A

Bone marrow, Peripheral blood and in the future, umbilical cord blood.

119
Q

What proteins with antigen processing and presentation ae encoded within the MHC locus?

A

TAP1 and TAP2
LMP7 and LMP2
TAPBP - tapasin
DMalpha and DMbeta encoding HLA-DM chains involved in MHC II peptide loading. .

120
Q

What is the process of loading peptides into MHC I in the ER?

A

Calnexin + alpha
Calrectin + alpha + beta2 micro –> Tapesin: TAP
Proteosome degradation of cytosolic peptides and DRiPs. In cytosol.
peptides move into ER via TAP. and one associates with MHC I.
MHC I dissociates from TAP and is exported to the cell membrane.

121
Q

How is HLA II associated with peptides and then presented on the cell surface?

A

Ii:MHC II in ER –> Acidified endosome
Ii cleaved, CLIP remains in peptide binding cleft.
Endocytosed antigen are degraded to peptides in endosome but CLIP blocks binding to MHC II.
HLA-DM binds to the MHC II = CLIP release and peptide binding. MHC II then travels to the cell surface.

122
Q

Other proteins that are encoded in the MHC III region that are not involved in peptide pres on MHC:

A

C2 and C4 and factor B
TNF-alpha
Lymphotoxin A and B
21 hydroxylase

123
Q

What contributes to the diversity of MHC molecules in an individual?

A

polygeny and polymorphisms.

124
Q

How are HLA genes expressed?

A

Co-dominantly of maternal and paternal chromosomes

125
Q

Which is the only functionally morphic HLA locus?

A

HLA-DRalpha.

126
Q

Relative risk is:

A

Frequency of an allele in a patient population, compared to the frequency in the normal population.

127
Q

What HLA association causes most autoimmune diseases?

A

HLA II alleles so CD4 T cells are linked most strongly.

128
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis is:

A

Chronic inflammation of the axial skeleton and can involve fusion of the spinal vertebrae.

129
Q

What allele is associated with increased relative risk of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

HLA.B27 with relative risk of 87.4

130
Q

What causes TID?

A

Autoimmune T cell destruction of beta cells that produce insulin in the islets of langerhans in the pancreas.

131
Q

HLA whats increase relative risk and what is protective in TID?

A

HLA-DQ8 - RR= 14
HLA-DQ2 + DQ8 - RR= 20
Protective = DQ6 RR=0.2

132
Q

What is correlated with susceptibility and protection from TID?

A

Amino acids at position 57 of DQbeta. In people with resistance this position as an asparagine with forms a salt bridge with arg. In people with susceptibility this position is a valine/serine where no salt bridge forms.

133
Q

What is hypothesised that HLA alleles affect autoimmune diseases by influencing T cell repertoire selection:

A
  1. HLA alleles may bind to particular self peptides too poorly to drive negative self-reactive developing thymocytes leading to autoimmunity.
  2. Self-reactive T cells may not be deleted during their development in the thymus
134
Q

HLA alleles may not be the reason for autoimmune disease…

A

They may just be in linkage with a locus that is the true cause of the disease.

135
Q

xenogenic

A

transplantation between different species

136
Q

allogenic

A

Transplant between genetically distinct members of the same species

137
Q

synergenic

A

genetically identical grafts

138
Q

Cyclosporin A

A

inhibits T cel proliferation and stops IL-2 secretion

139
Q

Tacrolimus

A

Dampens t cell responses

140
Q

What is the most commonly transplanted tissue?

A

Blood

141
Q

What is hyperacute rejection mediated by and how long does it take?

A

Antibody and complement, rapid/minutes

142
Q

What is acute immune rejection mediated by and how long does it take?

A

CD4 and CD8 T cell mediated with antibody deposition, days to weeks

143
Q

What causes chronic rejection of grafts and how long does it take?

A

macrophage infiltration and fibrosis. Months to years.

144
Q

What is the mechanism that causes hyperacute rejection?

A

Vascular endothelial cells have blood group antigens on them. If the host already has antibodies against these antigens (donor blood group antigens) it will lead to rapid organ rejection. This occurs in minutes and is complement dependent. Antibodies to blood group antigens may arise as a result of: previous transplant, transfusion or pregnancy

145
Q

What do anti-donor blood group antibodies bind to and cause?

A

They bind to the vascular endothelium of the graft initiating and inflammatory response that occludes the blood vessels, this causes the graft to haemorrhage and graft failure.

146
Q

Immune responses to grafts are…?

A

Specific for antigenic epitopes that differ between donor and recipient due to genetic difference between these members of the same species.

147
Q

First set rejection is:

A

what an allogenic graft is rejected from the recipient within 10-13 days

148
Q

Second set rejection is when

A

When a recipient is grafted for the second time from the same donor and the graft is rejected at a much more rapid rate (6-8 days)

149
Q

What do allogenic sin grafts onto nude mice show?

A

no rejection of the graft.

150
Q

If you introduced normal t cell into a nude mouse what does it restore and what does this show?

A

the ability to reject allogenic grafts, showing that the T cells are responsible for acute rejection.

151
Q

Acute renal graft rejection is caused by

A

alloreactive T cells responding to HLA differences between the donor and the recipient

152
Q

What pathological effects can be seen on a kidney being attacked by alloreactive T cells?

A

Swelling, haemmorrhage, necrosis, develops over days, can be prevented by immunosuppressive drugs.

153
Q

How do donor DCs from an allogenic graft stimulate rejection?

A

DCs from the donor travel in the blood to the 2ndary lymphoid tissue and stimulate effector T cells. These then travel to the donor organ via the blood and the graft is destroyed by effector t cells.

154
Q

Direct allorecognition involves:

A

Recipient t cell recognition of donor DCs in the spleen or draining LN

155
Q

Effector CD8 cells do what in acute rejection?

A

kill cells on the transplant

156
Q

In acute rejection, how are t cells activated?

A

On recognition of allogenic HLA I or II

157
Q

effector Th1 calls activate what in direct allorecognition?

A

macrophages to produce inflammatory cytokines; IL-1B, IL-6 and TNF. these recruit more leukocytes to the area of ‘damage’

158
Q

What doe CD4 t cells present with indirect allorecognition?

A

self-HLA present polymorphic graft HLA peptides (peptides formed by degradation in a host DC)

159
Q

What are minor histocompatibility antigens?

A

peptides of polymorphic cellular proteins bound to MHC molecules that can lead to graft rejection when they are recognized by T cells.

160
Q

Polymorphic self antigens (minor H antigens):

A

Differ in amino acid between individuals, so even if the individuals are major HC matched. These polymorphisms in self-peptides when presented by donor MHC will be recognized and cause rejection (slower than normal but still rejection = up to 60 days)

161
Q

CD4 t cells responding to antigens presented via the indirect pathway can lead to:

A

macrophage activation, chronic inflammation, vascular damage and fibrosis.

162
Q

The indirect pathway of allorecognition causes B cells to produce what?

A

Anti-HLA class I/II antibodies to reject the donor.

163
Q

What do alloantibodies do?

A

They bind to donor MHC receptors on vascular endothelial cells and recruit inflammatory cells to the blood vessel walls of the transplanted organ, this increases damage and enables immune effectors to enter the tissue of the blood vessel wall and to inflict increasing damage.

164
Q

Even though immunosuppressive drugs decrease the rate of acute rejection, they do not?

A

Change the rate of chronic rejection.

165
Q

what is the half life of renal allografts?

A

8 years

166
Q

What is kidney rejection caused by?

A

concentric arteriosclerosis of graft blood vessels with glomerular and tubular fibrosis and atrophy.

167
Q

what causes chronic graft rejection:

A

macrophage infiltration and scarring. Ischemia-reperfusion injury at the time of graft with damaging effects occurring later

168
Q

Problems associated with organ transplantation:

A

Availability of organs, graft rejection, disease attacking donor organ, toxicity of immunosuppressants ie cyclosporin A, risk of infection etc when on immunosuppressants to stop T cell activation, Infection from the donor organ.

169
Q

HSC transplantation can be used to cure:

A

genetic disease that affect blood cells: SCID, SCA, chronic granulatomous disease.
Treatment for WBC malignancies: leukaemia and lymphoma

170
Q

Why might recipients of HSC transplant receive conditioning treatment?

A

Myeloablative therapy, to prevent graft rejection by T cells to kill recipient HSCs in the BM and malignant WBCs and to make space for donor stem cells

171
Q

How is bone marrow transplanted

A

initially by intravenous transfusion, pluripotent SC’s from the donor BM engraft within the bone and then reconstitute all the haematopoietic lineages

172
Q

What is graft versus host disease?

A

When donor effector T cells enter inflamed tissue and cause more damage. Due to interaction with host DC’s causing them to proliferate. The donor effector cells enter tissue inflamed by the conditioning regiment and cause further tissue damage.

173
Q

What does organs does GVHD affect and how?

A

Skin - reddening and exfoliation
Intestines - various degrees of diarrhoea
Liver - increased bilirubin levels.

174
Q

How is GVHD treated?

A

Methotrexate - cytotoxic, inhibits DNA replication (affects T cells)

175
Q

What does cyclosporin A bind to and inhibit?

A

immnophilin and inhibits calcineurin and hence T cell activation

176
Q

Where can HSC’s be sourced from for therapeutic use?

A

Bone marrow, Peripheral blood and in the future, umbilical cord blood.

177
Q

What proteins with antigen processing and presentation ae encoded within the MHC locus?

A

TAP1 and TAP2
LMP7 and LMP2
TAPBP - tapasin
DMalpha and DMbeta encoding HLA-DM chains involved in MHC II peptide loading. .

178
Q

What is the process of loading peptides into MHC I in the ER?

A

Calnexin + alpha
Calrectin + alpha + beta2 micro –> Tapesin: TAP
Proteosome degradation of cytosolic peptides and DRiPs. In cytosol.
peptides move into ER via TAP. and one associates with MHC I.
MHC I dissociates from TAP and is exported to the cell membrane.

179
Q

How is HLA II associated with peptides and then presented on the cell surface?

A

Ii:MHC II in ER –> Acidified endosome
Ii cleaved, CLIP remains in peptide binding cleft.
Endocytosed antigen are degraded to peptides in endosome but CLIP blocks binding to MHC II.
HLA-DM binds to the MHC II = CLIP release and peptide binding. MHC II then travels to the cell surface.

180
Q

Other proteins that are encoded in the MHC III region that are not involved in peptide pres on MHC:

A

C2 and C4 and factor B
TNF-alpha
Lymphotoxin A and B
21 hydroxylase

181
Q

What contributes to the diversity of MHC molecules in an individual?

A

polygeny and polymorphisms.

182
Q

How are HLA genes expressed?

A

Co-dominantly of maternal and paternal chromosomes

183
Q

Which is the only functionally morphic HLA locus?

A

HLA-DRalpha.

184
Q

Relative risk is:

A

Frequency of an allele in a patient population, compared to the frequency in the normal population.

185
Q

What HLA association causes most autoimmune diseases?

A

HLA II alleles so CD4 T cells are linked most strongly.

186
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis is:

A

Chronic inflammation of the axial skeleton and can involve fusion of the spinal vertebrae.

187
Q

What allele is associated with increased relative risk of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

HLA.B27 with relative risk of 87.4

188
Q

What causes TID?

A

Autoimmune T cell destruction of beta cells that produce insulin in the islets of langerhans in the pancreas.

189
Q

HLA whats increase relative risk and what is protective in TID?

A

HLA-DQ8 - RR= 14
HLA-DQ2 + DQ8 - RR= 20
Protective = DQ6 RR=0.2

190
Q

What is correlated with susceptibility and protection from TID?

A

Amino acids at position 57 of DQbeta. In people with resistance this position as an asparagine with forms a salt bridge with arg. In people with susceptibility this position is a valine/serine where no salt bridge forms.

191
Q

What is hypothesised that HLA alleles affect autoimmune diseases by influencing T cell repertoire selection:

A
  1. HLA alleles may bind to particular self peptides too poorly to drive negative self-reactive developing thymocytes leading to autoimmunity.
  2. Self-reactive T cells may not be deleted during their development in the thymus
192
Q

HLA alleles may not be the reason for autoimmune disease…

A

They may just be in linkage with a locus that is the true cause of the disease.