l1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is urine?

A

An ultrafiltrate of plasma

Urine is produced by the kidneys and is primarily composed of water and solutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the normal composition of urine?

A

95% water, 5% solutes

Solute variations can occur due to diet, activity, metabolism, endocrine factors, and body position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the major organic solute in urine?

A

Urea

Urea is derived from the metabolism of amino acids and accounts for 60%-90% of nitrogenous material in urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the typical amounts of urea, creatinine, and uric acid in urine?

A
  • Urea: 25.0-35.0 g
  • Creatinine: 1.5 g
  • Uric Acid: 0.4-1.0 g

These values can vary based on diet and health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define anuria.

A

Cessation of urine flow

This condition indicates severe kidney damage or decreased renal blood flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is oliguria?

A

Decrease in urine output

Defined as less than 1 ml/kg/hr for infants, less than 0.5 ml/kg/hr for children, and less than 400 ml/day for adults.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is nocturia?

A

Increased urine excretion at night

Normally, urine excretion is 2-3 times more during the day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define polyuria.

A

Increase in daily urine volume

Associated with conditions like diabetes mellitus and can be artificially induced by diuretics, caffeine, and alcohol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the usual daily urine volume?

A

1200-1500 mL

The normal range for urine volume is between 600-2000 mL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the grounds for urine specimen rejection?

A
  • Unlabeled containers
  • Non-matching labels and requisitions
  • Contaminated specimens

Laboratories have written policies that specify these grounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the ideal preservative for urine specimens?

A

Bactericidal, inhibits urease, preserves formed elements, does not interfere with chemical testing

Routine preservation is done through refrigeration, especially for culture specimens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a random urine specimen?

A

Most common type received, collected at any time

Results may be altered by dietary intake and activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the purpose of a first morning specimen?

A

Ideal screening specimen due to its concentration

It is collected immediately upon rising and delivered to the lab within 2 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a fasting specimen?

A

Second specimen voided after fasting for 8 hours

This specimen is recommended for glucose monitoring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does a 2-hour postprandial specimen monitor?

A

Insulin therapy

Results can be compared with fasting urine specimen and blood test results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the principle of a refractometer?

A

Measures the refractive index of urine

It determines the concentration of solutes by measuring the velocity of light passing through the solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does urine clarity refer to?

A

Transparency or turbidity of a specimen

Normal reporting includes clear, hazy, cloudy, turbid, and milky.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the color of urine indicate?

A

Varies from almost colorless to black

Abnormal colors suggest bleeding, liver disease, or infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the typical odor of fresh urine?

A

Faintly aromatic

Older urine can smell like ammonia, while certain metabolic disorders can produce distinctive odors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the significance of urine specific gravity?

A

Indicates urine concentration

Changes in specific gravity can reflect hydration status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the procedure for determining urine color and clarity?

A

Use a well-mixed specimen, view against a white background

Maintain adequate room lighting for accurate evaluation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the procedure for a midstream clean-catch specimen?

A

Wash hands, clean genitalia, void into toilet first, then into container

This method minimizes contamination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the purpose of a chain of custody in drug specimen collection?

A

Documentation from collection to lab results

It ensures the specimen’s integrity and withstands legal scrutiny.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the principle behind a refractometer?

A

Refractive Index

Measures velocity of light in air versus velocity of light in a solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the advantages of using a refractometer?

A
  • Temperature compensation not needed
  • Small specimen size: 1 or 2 drops
  • Less affected by particle size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the methodology for using a refractometer?

A
  • Drop of urine placed on prism
  • Focus on light source, and read scale
  • Wipe off prism between specimens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the routine chemical examination of urine primarily conducted with?

A

Reagent strips consisting of chemical-impregnated absorbent pads.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What parameters are typically assessed in a routine urine chemical examination?

A
  • Protein
  • pH
  • Glucose
  • Specific gravity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the two major types of reagent strips?

A
  • MULTISTIX (Siemens Healthcare Diagnostics)
  • CHEMSTRIP (Roche Diagnostics)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Fill in the blank: Reagent strips provide a _______ analysis.

A

semi-quantitative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What steps should be followed in the reagent strips technique?

A
  • Dip strip briefly into specimen
  • Remove excess urine
  • Blot edge of strip
  • Wait specified time
  • Compare color reaction to manufacturer’s chart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

True or False: Enzyme reactions on reagent strips are based on room temperature readings.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is required for quality control of reagent strips?

A
  • Run positive and negative controls at least once per 24 hours
  • Record control results
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the purpose of the Watson-Schwartz differentiation test?

A

Differentiation among urobilinogen, porphobilinogen, and Ehrlich reactives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What types of cells are identified in a microscopic examination of urine?

A
  • Red blood cells (RBCs)
  • White blood cells (WBCs)
  • Epithelial cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the types of casts identified in urine microscopy?

A
  • Hyaline
  • Cellular cast
  • Granular (Coarse / fine)
  • Waxy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the ideal centrifugation time and speed for urine sediment preparation?

A

5 min at relative centrifugal force (RCF) of 400.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What should be done post-centrifugation to handle urine specimens?

A
  • Aspirate rather than pour off urine
  • Mix sediment gently
39
Q

What is the minimum volume of urine required for sediment examination?

A

10–15 mL

40
Q

What are the types of stains used in microscopic examination of urine?

A
  • Sternheimer-Malbin
  • Toluidine Blue
  • Gram Stain
  • Hansel Stain
  • Prussian Blue Stain
41
Q

What is the function of the Sternheimer-Malbin stain?

A

Identifies WBCs, epithelial cells, and casts.

42
Q

What is fecalysis primarily used for?

A

Examination of stool specimens for ova and parasites.

43
Q

What is the smallest acceptable amount of stool required for parasitic study?

A

2 to 5 grams or pea size.

44
Q

What precautions should be taken to avoid contamination during stool collection?

A
  • Use a clean, dry, sterile wide-mouthed container
  • Avoid urine contamination
  • Do not retrieve stool from toilet bowl water
45
Q

How soon should a freshly collected stool sample be submitted to the laboratory?

A

Within 1 hour after collection.

46
Q

Fill in the blank: The typical stool collection protocol consists of _______ specimens.

47
Q

What should be included on the specimen container label?

A

Patient’s name, identification number, physician’s name, and date/time of collection.

48
Q

What is the ideal time for transporting a specimen to the laboratory after collection?

A

Within 1 hour after collection

49
Q

What should be included in the labeling of a specimen container?

A

Patient’s name, identification number, physician’s name, date and time of sample collection

50
Q

What type of bag should specimens be placed in for transport to the laboratory?

A

ZIP LOCK PLASTIC BAG

51
Q

What is the recommended time frame for examining liquid stool specimens?

A

Within 30 minutes of passage

52
Q

How many stool samples should be examined before excluding parasites?

A

Three samples

53
Q

What is the daily stool weight threshold for diagnosing diarrhea?

A

> 200 g stool weight per day

54
Q

What are the mechanisms of diarrhea?

A
  • Secretory
  • Osmotic
  • Altered motility
55
Q

What indicates sugar malabsorption in fecal testing?

56
Q

Name one cause of secretory diarrhea.

A

Microbial infections such as E. coli or Vibrio cholerae

57
Q

What is osmotic diarrhea caused by?

A

Incomplete digestion or reabsorption of food

58
Q

What is a common symptom of altered motility in diarrhea?

A

Irritable bowel syndrome

59
Q

What is the purpose of the direct fecal smear (DFS) technique?

A

To study living parasites such as motile protozoa and helminth eggs

60
Q

What is the significance of fecal leukocytes in stool examination?

A

> 3 Neutrophils/hpf is significant

61
Q

What does a fecal occult blood test detect?

A

Hidden blood in stool

62
Q

What color indicates blood from the upper GI tract in feces?

A

Black, tarry

63
Q

What is the principle behind the fecal occult blood test?

A

Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin

64
Q

What dietary restrictions should be followed before a fecal occult blood test?

A
  • No red meat
  • No horseradish
  • No melons
  • No raw broccoli, cauliflower, radishes, turnips
  • No aspirin or anti-inflammatory agents for 7 days
  • Avoid vitamin C and iron for 3 days
65
Q

What is the function of the seminal vesicles in semen production?

A

Provide nutrients for sperm and fluid

66
Q

What is the normal volume range for semen?

67
Q

What is the normal pH range for semen?

68
Q

What is evaluated in sperm morphology?

A

Head, neck, midpiece, tail

69
Q

What is the critical component of sperm for fertilization?

A

Sperm morphology

70
Q

What is the purpose of semen analysis?

A

Investigation of fertility and identification of treatment options

71
Q

What are the two main types of examinations performed in semen analysis?

A
  • Macroscopic examination
  • Microscopic examination
72
Q

What is the significance of sperm motility in semen analysis?

A

Need to have sperm with forward, progressive movement

73
Q

What is the normal percentage of motile sperm within 1 hour?

74
Q

What does a sperm count of >20 million/ml indicate?

A

Normal sperm concentration

75
Q

What is the purpose of the eosin-nigrosin stain in sperm viability testing?

A

To differentiate living and dead sperm

76
Q

What is the normal value for sperm viability?

A

75% living

77
Q

What is a common method for semen collection?

A

Masturbation into a clean sample cup

78
Q

What should be avoided when collecting a semen sample?

A

Lubricated, anti-spermicidal condoms

79
Q

What is the normal liquefaction time for semen?

A

30 to 60 minutes

80
Q

What should be recorded on the laboratory analysis form for semen analysis?

A
  • Period of abstinence
  • Sample collection completeness
  • Time interval from collection to analysis
81
Q

What is the normal sperm count per ejaculate?

A

> 40 million

82
Q

What indicates a problem if the semen viscosity is too high?

A

Infertility, incomplete collection

83
Q

What does ‘living’ correspond to in semen analysis?

A

Motility

Motility refers to the ability of sperm to move effectively.

84
Q

What is the normal color of semen?

A

Gray-white/Pearly white

The color can indicate the health of the sperm.

85
Q

What is the normal odor of semen?

A

Musty/bleach like

The odor can also provide insights into the quality of the semen.

86
Q

What is the normal liquefaction time for semen?

A

30-60 minutes

Liquefaction is the process by which semen changes from a gel-like state to a liquid state.

87
Q

What is the normal volume of semen?

A

2-5 ml

Volume is an important parameter in evaluating semen quality.

88
Q

What is the normal viscosity of semen?

A

Pours in droplets

Viscosity affects sperm motility and overall fertility.

89
Q

What is the normal pH range for semen?

A

7.2-8.0

The pH level can influence the survival of sperm in the female reproductive tract.

90
Q

What is the normal sperm concentration in semen?

A

> 20 million/ml

Sperm concentration is crucial for assessing male fertility.

91
Q

What is the normal sperm count per ejaculate?

A

> 40 million/ejaculate

Higher sperm counts are generally associated with better fertility potential.

92
Q

What is the normal motility percentage of sperm within 1 hour?

A

> 50%

Motility is a key factor in determining the likelihood of successful fertilization.

93
Q

What is the minimum quality rating for sperm?

A

> 2.0 or a, b, c

Quality ratings assess the overall health and viability of sperm.

94
Q

What is the minimum percentage of normal forms for sperm morphology?

A

> 14% normal forms (strict criteria)

Morphology evaluates the shape and structure of sperm, which is important for fertility.