L Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Difficulties at the participation level are labeled as:
A) Activity limitations
B) Participation restrictions
C) Environmental barriers
D) Personal factors

A

B) Participation restrictions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Healthy People 2030 aims to:
A) Provide universal healthcare
B) Improve and sustain health for all Americans and address community needs
C) Increase the marriage rate
D) Promote financial independence

A

B) Improve and sustain health for all Americans and address community needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is NOT a part of Medicare?
A) Part A: Hospitalization, SNFs, home care, home health care, hospice
B) Part B: Physicians and HC providers
C) Part C: Medicare advantage
D) Part D: Home modifications

A

D) Part D: Home modifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which theory is NOT part of Models of Advocacy?
A) Empowerment theory
B) Strength-based theory
C) Cognitive-behavioral theory
D) Functional theory

A

D) Functional theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Occupational Justice refers to:
A) The belief that everyone should have access to meaningful occupations
B) Legal action for workplace injuries
C) Providing financial support to elderly
D) Ensuring employment opportunities for disabled individuals

A

A) The belief that everyone should have access to meaningful occupations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is NOT a sensory change associated with the normal aging process?
A) Reduced visual acuity
B) Increased auditory sensitivity
C) Loss of taste buds
D) Decline in threshold for olfactory sensitivity

A

B) Increased auditory sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common injury from falls in older adults?
A) Head trauma
B) Hip fracture
C) Wrist fracture
D) Spinal cord injury

A

B) Hip fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In the evaluation of functional performance, which type of assessment focuses on how a particular intervention has affected the individual?
A) Descriptive evaluation
B) Predictive assessment
C) Outcome evaluation
D) Performance assessment

A

C) Outcome evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Frailty is defined as a clinical syndrome in which three or more of the following criteria are present EXCEPT:
A) Unintentional weight loss
B) High physical activity
C) Self-reported exhaustion
D) Slow-walking speed

A

B) High physical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which program is designed to facilitate aging in place by providing a combination of non-professional services and referrals?
A) Medicare
B) Medicaid
C) Village Model
D) Older Americans Act

A

C) Village Model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the acronym PACE stand for in the context of elder care?
A) Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly
B) Physical Activity and Care Engagement
C) Preventative Actions for Cognitive Enhancement
D) Primary Access to Community Elders

A

A) Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Identify an intrinsic risk factor for falls in older adults:
A) Footwear
B) Medications
C) Assistive devices
D) Chronic disease

A

D) Chronic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following is NOT a part of fall prevention strategies?
A) Education and prevention
B) Postural sway exercises
C) Increased reliance on caregivers
D) Exercise & strength training

A

C) Increased reliance on caregivers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which assessment is used to measure gait speed in frail older adults?
A) Hand Grip
B) Easycare Two-Step Older Persons Screening
C) 5 Times Sit-to-Stand Test
D) Groningen Frailty Indicator Questionnaire

A

C) 5 Times Sit-to-Stand Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In the context of self-management interventions for older adults, which of the following is NOT a role of occupational therapy?
A) Pain management
B) Chronic disease education
C) Driving and community mobility
D) Diagnostic imaging

A

D) Diagnostic imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The “Jimmo vs. Sebelius” case determined that:
A) Medicare only covers rehabilitation services
B) Functional maintenance and delayed decline as outcomes are covered
C) Medicare should provide financial support for home modifications
D) Older adults must meet certain activity levels for coverage

A

B) Functional maintenance and delayed decline as outcomes are covered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which factor does NOT contribute to social isolation and loneliness in older adults?
A) Increase in people living alone
B) Decrease in marriage rate
C) Higher rate of childlessness
D) Increased employment opportunities

A

D) Increased employment opportunities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Theories guiding development in advocacy include:
A) Strength-based theory
B) Empowerment theory
C) Cognitive-behavioral theory
D) Both A and B

A

D) Both A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Selective Optimization with Compensation (SOC) is recognized as:
A) Altering occupations to optimize functioning
B) Decreasing participation in meaningful activities
C) Reducing cognitive load for older adults
D) Providing financial assistance

A

A) Altering occupations to optimize functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The term “sarcopenia” refers to:
A) Loss of taste buds
B) Loss of muscle mass
C) Loss of bone mass
D) Loss of visual acuity

A

B) Loss of muscle mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The Life Satisfaction Index is used to evaluate:
A) Mental health status
B) Social functioning
C) Overall life satisfaction
D) Cognitive abilities

A

C) Overall life satisfaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

One of the critical areas of functional performance that should be assessed in older adults is:
A) Cognitive decline
B) Performance of mobility
C) Ability to read and write
D) Nutritional intake

A

B) Performance of mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Factors specifically related to older adults that affect functional performance include:
A) Generic vs. diagnosis-specific assessments
B) Cost of treatments
C) Time to implement interventions
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Naturally Occurring Retirement Communities (NORCs) are designed to:
A) Provide medical care for retired individuals
B) Promote aging in place for community-dwelling elders
C) Offer financial assistance to low-income older adults
D) Increase employment opportunities for retirees

A

B) Promote aging in place for community-dwelling elders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The main focus areas for OT roles in the village model include:
A) Physical activity, social engagement, and cognitive stimulation
B) Financial management and planning
C) Housing and transportation
D) Employment and job training

A

A) Physical activity, social engagement, and cognitive stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which intervention promotes mental health, social functioning, and support meaning in older adults?
A) Reminiscence therapy
B) Spirituality
C) Wellness programs
D) Life review

A

B) Spirituality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

An effective teaching strategy for older adults includes:
A) Using technical jargon
B) Limiting the use of tables and charts
C) Encouraging fast-paced learning
D) Focusing on theoretical concepts

A

B) Limiting the use of tables and charts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Evidence-based programs and resources for health management and promotion should be:
A) Costly and complex
B) Easily accessible and understandable
C) Limited to urban areas
D) Exclusively for medical professionals

A

B) Easily accessible and understandable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When assessing functional mobility in older adults, which component is NOT typically evaluated?
A) Joint deformities
B) Functional mobility (gait, balance)
C) Cognitive abilities
D) Visual acuity

A

C) Cognitive abilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The term “preclinical” in the context of frailty refers to:
A) Having more than three characteristics of frailty
B) Having one or two characteristics of frailty
C) The end stage of frailty
D) No characteristics of frailty

A

B) Having one or two characteristics of frailty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following is NOT a fall prevention strategy for older adults?
A) Education and prevention
B) Stepping and stumbling strategies
C) Increased bed rest
D) Balance and postural control

A

C) Increased bed rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Intrinsic risk factors for falls include:
A) Medications
B) Footwear
C) Chronic disease
D) Environmental hazards

A

C) Chronic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which is an example of a modifiable risk factor for falls?
A) Age-related decline
B) Environmental modifications
C) Gender
D) Genetic predisposition

A

B) Environmental modifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When implementing a multifactorial fall prevention program, which component is essential?
A) Solely focusing on exercise
B) Addressing individual risk factors
C) Ignoring medication review
D) Minimizing patient education

A

B) Addressing individual risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The role of OT in primary care includes:
A) Disease diagnosis
B) Health promotion and wellness
C) Surgical interventions
D) Medication prescription

A

B) Health promotion and wellness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A comprehensive frailty assessment should include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Gait speed
B) Short Physical Performance Battery
C) Income level
D) Hand grip strength

A

C) Income level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which factor is considered non-modifiable in fall risk assessments?
A) Footwear
B) Assistive devices
C) Age
D) Type of activity

A

C) Age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The Hill-Burton Act addressed:
A) Video conferencing services
B) Design of federally funded hospitals
C) Accessibility in public transportation
D) Housing for disabled individuals

A

B) Design of federally funded hospitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The IDEA Act provides:
A) Accessible housing
B) Telecommunication services
C) Free Appropriate Public Education (FAPE)
D) Employment opportunities for the disabled

A

C) Free Appropriate Public Education (FAPE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The Architectural Barriers Act founded the:
A) Home Safety Board
B) Transportation Board
C) Accessibility Commission
D) Rehabilitation Services Administration

A

B) Transportation Board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

ADA Section 508 is related to:
A) Building accessibility
B) Website accessibility
C) Public transportation
D) Hospital design

A

B) Website accessibility

42
Q

The Affordable Care Act (ACA) made discrimination against people with disabilities:
A) Legal until 2010
B) Always illegal
C) Legal in some states
D) Dependent on federal funding

A

A) Legal until 2010

43
Q

Fair Housing Amendments Act ensures landlords cannot:
A) Increase rent for disabled tenants
B) Evict disabled tenants for modifications
C) Provide housing for the disabled
D) Deny modifications for disabled tenants

A

D) Deny modifications for disabled tenants

44
Q

“Visitability” includes:
A) No-step entrance
B) Wide doorways
C) Bathroom on the first floor
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

45
Q

OT’s role in environmental modifications includes:
A) Providing financial support
B) Analyzing the physical environment
C) Offering medical care
D) Designing public policies

A

B) Analyzing the physical environment

46
Q

Home assessments are conducted to:
A) Identify potential hazards
B) Diagnose medical conditions
C) Provide legal advice
D) Perform surgeries

A

A) Identify potential hazards

47
Q

The overall goal of home assessments is to:
A) Facilitate aging in place
B) Increase property value
C) Improve social status
D) Offer medical treatment

A

A) Facilitate aging in place

48
Q

Best practices in home assessments include:
A) Prioritizing client-centered evaluations
B) Making decisions without client input
C) Focusing solely on physical modifications
D) Avoiding any recommendations

A

A) Prioritizing client-centered evaluations

49
Q

A self-report/home safety checklist PRO includes:
A) Comprehensive and detailed analysis
B) Often includes recommendations and quick screening
C) Requires skilled professionals
D) Time-consuming

A

B) Often includes recommendations and quick screening

50
Q

A web-based assessment tool for home safety is:
A) Home for Life Design™
B) Occupational Therapy Assessment™
C) Medical Home Safety™
D) Safe Home Pro™

A

A) Home for Life Design™

51
Q

The Home Environment Assessment Protocol (HEAP) assesses homes for:
A) Financial planning
B) People with dementia and caregivers for safety hazards
C) Job placement
D) Medical procedures

A

B) People with dementia and caregivers for safety hazards

52
Q

The In-Home Occupational Performance Evaluation (I-HOPE) measures:
A) Physical fitness
B) In-home activity performance
C) Nutritional intake
D) Cognitive abilities

A

B) In-home activity performance

53
Q

The Westmead Home Safety Assessment (WeHSA) is known for:
A) Being the most comprehensive
B) Easiest to use
C) High cost
D) Limited application

A

B) Easiest to use

54
Q

The SAFE-HOME V3 is used to:
A) Assess cognitive function
B) Measure effectiveness of home modifications
C) Provide financial assistance
D) Offer legal advice

A

B) Measure effectiveness of home modifications

55
Q

The COUGAR Home Safety Assessment (CHSA) focuses on:
A) Environmental safety
B) Physical fitness
C) Financial planning
D) Job training

A

A) Environmental safety

56
Q

If a client had a stroke and the goal is tying their shoes, an intervention approach is:
A) Reducing the impairment
B) Increasing medication
C) Avoiding the task
D) Limiting physical activity

A

A) Reducing the impairment

57
Q

Universal design includes which principle?
A) Equitable use
B) High cost
C) Complexity
D) Limited accessibility

A

A) Equitable use

58
Q

Assistive technology in the home does NOT include:
A) Robots
B) Walking aids
C) Legal documents
D) Voice recognition software

A

C) Legal documents

59
Q

An example of non-profit support for home modifications is:
A) Medicaid
B) Veterans support funds
C) Rebuilding Together
D) HUD Property Improvement Loans

A

C) Rebuilding Together

60
Q

Gerotechnology aims to:
A) Increase cost of healthcare
B) Enhance function and participation through technology
C) Limit the use of technology
D) Focus on young adults

A

B) Enhance function and participation through technology

61
Q

The Wellness Model emphasizes:
A) Medical interventions
B) Awareness of choices towards a successful lifestyle
C) Financial independence
D) Limiting physical activity

A

B) Awareness of choices towards a successful lifestyle

62
Q

Factors that promote wellness include:
A) Genetics and physical activity
B) Isolation and stress
C) Financial planning
D) Limiting social interactions

A

A) Genetics and physical activity

63
Q

Primary prevention focuses on:
A) Preventing before symptomatic
B) Managing existing conditions
C) Limiting physical activity
D) Avoiding social interactions

A

A) Preventing before symptomatic

64
Q

The Transtheoretical Model of Change (TTM) includes:
A) 3 stages of change
B) No stages of change
C) 5 stages of change
D) Only action and maintenance stages

A

C) 5 stages of change

65
Q

The result of the “Well Elderly” study is:
A) Negative impact on health
B) Positive gains and fewer declines
C) No significant change
D) Increased deterioration in OT group

A

B) Positive gains and fewer declines

66
Q

Motivational interviewing is part of:
A) Cognitive-behavioral therapy
B) Transtheoretical Model of Change (TTM)
C) Medical interventions
D) Legal counseling

A

B) Transtheoretical Model of Change (TTM)

67
Q

Health promotion in OT explores:
A) Use of occupation for staying healthy
B) Limiting physical activities
C) Increasing medication
D) Legal advice

A

A) Use of occupation for staying healthy

68
Q

Secondary prevention is:
A) Rehabilitation after injury
B) Preventing before symptomatic
C) Risk factors identified but preclinical stage
D) Avoiding treatment

A

C) Risk factors identified but preclinical stage

69
Q

Tertiary prevention involves:
A) Primary prevention
B) Direct service and intervention
C) Avoiding treatment
D) Limiting physical activity

A

B) Direct service and intervention

70
Q

A key principle of universal design is:
A) Perceptive information
B) Complexity
C) High cost
D) Limited accessibility

A

A) Perceptive information

71
Q

Gerotechnology targets include:
A) Increasing social isolation
B) Limiting use of technology
C) Home monitoring systems and health management systems
D) Avoiding technological solutions

A

C) Home monitoring systems and health management systems

72
Q

One example of assistive technology is:
A) Braille output devices
B) Financial planning tools
C) Social media platforms
D) Entertainment systems

A

A) Braille output devices

73
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for health in aging?

A) High education
B) Low physical activity
C) High social support
D) Financial security

A

B) Low physical activity

74
Q

Women have a higher likelihood of which of the following compared to men?

A) Longer career trajectory
B) Lower disease and disability
C) Higher likelihood of disease and disability
D) Lower life expectancy

A

C) Higher likelihood of disease and disability

75
Q

What impact does living in a rural community have on aging?

A) Higher SES
B) Easier access to services
C) More social support, difficult to access services
D) Less social support, easier to access services

A

C) More social support, difficult to access services

76
Q

What are the two important population trends in aging?

A) Increasing number of elders and increasing SES
B) Decreasing number of elders and a more rectangular demographic structure
C) Increasing number of elders and a more rectangular demographic structure
D) Decreasing number of elders and a more triangular demographic structure

A

C) Increasing number of elders and a more rectangular demographic structure

77
Q

Positive aging incorporates which of the following?

A) Objective and subjective factors
B) Only objective factors
C) Only subjective factors
D) No specific factors

A

A) Objective and subjective factors

78
Q

Which dimension of wellness is NOT included in active aging?

A) Emotional
B) Environmental
C) Financial
D) Genetic

A

D) Genetic

79
Q

Successful aging is influenced by which type of control?

A) Voluntary control
B) Involuntary control
C) Outside voluntary control
D) Genetic control

A

C) Outside voluntary control

80
Q

The centrality of meaningful occupation supports which aspect in older adults?

A) Disease
B) Function
C) Dependency
D) Isolation

A

B) Function

81
Q

What does the stochastic theory of aging explain?

A) Aging as a result of genetic control
B) Aging as a result of evolutionary divergence
C) Aging as a result of “insults” from the environment
D) Aging as a result of cognitive decline

A

C) Aging as a result of “insults” from the environment

82
Q

Which theory explains the origin of giving and divergence of species’ life spans?

A) Stochastic theories
B) Developmental-genetic theories
C) Evolutionary theories
D) Neuropsychological theories

A

C) Evolutionary theories

83
Q

Age-related changes in neural structures are most vulnerable to which process?

A) Degenerative changes
B) Evolutionary changes
C) Genetic control
D) Neuropsychological theories

A

A) Degenerative changes

84
Q

Which theory focuses on managing the dynamics between gains and losses as one ages?

A) Lifespan development
B) Selective optimization with compensation
C) Socioemotional selectivity
D) Cognition and aging

A

B) Selective optimization with compensation

85
Q

What does the systems theory of motor control explain?

A) Motor movement as an interaction of internal and external forces
B) Motor movement as a genetically controlled process
C) Motor movement as a result of cognitive decline
D) Motor movement as an evolutionary process

A

A) Motor movement as an interaction of internal and external forces

86
Q

The Model of Human Occupation comprises which three interrelated components?

A) Sensory, motor, cognitive
B) Volition, habituation, performance capacity
C) Physical, emotional, social
D) Genetic, environmental, evolutionary

A

B) Volition, habituation, performance capacity

87
Q

Which domain refers to abnormalities of function or structure labeled as impairments?

A) Health condition
B) Body functions and body structures
C) Activities
D) Participation

A

B) Body functions and body structures

88
Q

Which factors promote wellness in older adults?

A) Genetics, proper diet, social support
B) Low physical activity, low social support, poor diet
C) High education, financial insecurity, high stress
D) Tobacco use, high alcohol consumption, isolation

A

A) Genetics, proper diet, social support

89
Q

What is included in primary prevention?

A) Rehabilitation
B) Medical screening
C) Health promotion
D) Disease management

A

C) Health promotion

90
Q

Which level of prevention includes intervention for those with activity limitations?

A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Quaternary prevention

A

C) Tertiary prevention

91
Q

Which concept focuses on using occupation for staying healthy and addressing body, self, and environment?

A) Health promotion
B) Disease prevention
C) Occupational therapy
D) Physical therapy

A

A) Health promotion

92
Q

In the Transtheoretical Model of Change, what stage involves awareness of a problem but no commitment to change?

A) Pre-contemplation
B) Contemplation
C) Preparation
D) Action

A

B) Contemplation

93
Q

What does the Lifestyle Redesign program focus on?

A) Disease treatment
B) Health, QOL, and life satisfaction
C) Genetic control
D) Cognitive decline

A

B) Health, QOL, and life satisfaction

94
Q

What is a critical factor that influences social isolation and loneliness in older adults?

A) High community involvement
B) Decrease in people living alone
C) Decrease in marriage rate
D) Higher birth rate

A

C) Decrease in marriage rate

95
Q

What is a role of therapists in advocacy for older adults?

A) Prescribing medication
B) Developing skills to advocate for themselves
C) Diagnosing diseases
D) Performing surgery

A

B) Developing skills to advocate for themselves

96
Q

What is the primary focus of occupational justice?

A) Ensuring financial security
B) Access to and support for meaningful occupations
C) Providing medical treatment
D) Genetic research

A

B) Access to and support for meaningful occupations

97
Q

What is the goal of selective optimization with compensation?

A) Enhancing genetic control
B) Managing gains and losses as one ages
C) Promoting financial stability
D) Treating chronic diseases

A

B) Managing gains and losses as one ages

98
Q

Which evaluation tool measures engagement in meaningful activities?

A) COPM
B) Life Satisfaction Index
C) Engagement in Meaningful Activities Survey
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

99
Q

Which sensory change interferes with the ability to interact with the environment in older adults?

A) Reduced visual acuity
B) Enhanced taste sensitivity
C) Improved hearing
D) Increased smell sensitivity

A

A) Reduced visual acuity

100
Q

What is a common risk associated with geriatric syndrome?

A) Financial gain
B) Functional decline
C) Increased mobility
D) Enhanced memory

A

B) Functional decline

101
Q

What should be considered in the evaluation of functional performance in older adults?

A) Cognitive function only
B) Overall functioning and disability
C) Financial status only
D) Genetic predisposition

A

B) Overall functioning and disability

102
Q

What is the primary objective of community-based occupational therapy practice for older adults?

A) Enhancing isolation
B) Promoting meaningful occupation
C) Reducing physical activity
D) Increasing dependency

A

B) Promoting meaningful occupation