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Immunosero > L 6.1 > Flashcards

L 6.1 Flashcards

1
Q

Who discovered one of the earliest diagnostic tests for the detection of antibodies occurring in typhoid fever, brucellosis and tularemia

A

Widal and sicar

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2
Q

What is an antigen?

A

Any substance that causes the body to make an immune response against that substance

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3
Q

What does antigens activate

A

Lymphocytes

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4
Q

What is an antibody?

A

A protein produced by the body’s immune system to target and neutralize specific antigens

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5
Q

Production of antibodies

A

Immune system recognize an foreign body (antigen) release of antibodies

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6
Q

What is an antigen-antibody reaction?

A

Interaction between antigen and antibody

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7
Q

What is an immune complex?

A

Formed when antibody binds with antigen

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8
Q

What is antigen-antibody reaction

A

Chemical interaction of antibodies (from B cells: WBC) and sntigen during immune reaction

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9
Q

molecule formed when antibody
binds with antigen

A

Immune complex

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10
Q

What can happen if immune complexes accumulate in the body?

A

May lead to immune complex disease

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11
Q

formation of antigen-antibody complex as a normal part of the body?s immune response, especially when fighting against infection

A

Immune complex

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12
Q

Explain the process if accumulation of immune complex

A

Immune complex formed in the blood are eliminated by immune cells.
If immune complex are not completely removed it will accumulate inthe the issues leading to immune complex disease

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13
Q

Reasons for incomplete removal of immune complexes

A

1 excess immune complex
2 high levels of antigen in infested individual
3 issue with eliminating immune complexes

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14
Q

What is a paratope?

A

Part of antibody that combines with antigen

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15
Q

Where is paratrope located

A

Ab (variable porttion) portion of the antibody

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16
Q

What is an epitope?

A

Part of antigen that combines with antibody during an immune response

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17
Q

What is the antigenic determinant called

A

Epitope

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18
Q

Antigen-antibody reaction process

A
  1. Recognition
    2 Antibody production
    3 Abs-Ags Binding
    4 Elimination
    5 Memory
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19
Q

Explain the elimination of cells

A

The immune system recognize bound antigens (immune complex) as foreign and work to eliminate them thru:
1 phagocytosis
2 series of reaction that leads to the destruction of pathogens/antigen

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20
Q

Give the processes of elimination

A
  1. Phagocytosis
    2 series of reactions that lead to destruction of pathogen/antigen
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21
Q

Explain the process of memory

A

B lymphocytes become b cells. These cells are responsible for remembering specific antigens, so if these antigens are encountered again, production of antibodies are immediate

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22
Q

Origin of memory cells

A

B lymphocytes/cells

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23
Q

What is agglutination?

A

Clumping that results from the interaction between an antibody and a particulate antigen.

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24
Q

What examples of particulate antigens can cause agglutination?

A

Cells (bacteria, yeast cells, RBCs), inert particles (platelets, charcoal particles, gelatin).

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25
Q

What is a common use of agglutination in the lab?

A

Blood the typing
* To detect the presence of a specific antigen or antibody in px?s blood

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26
Q

How does blood typing utilize agglutination?

A

Agglutination indicates a positive reaction, helping to identify the blood type.

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27
Q

What year was serum antibody was found to react with bacterial cells

A

1896

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28
Q

Who discovered serum antibody to react with bacterial cells

A

Gruber and burham

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29
Q

What did gruber and durham discover

A

serum antibody was found to react with bacterial cells

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30
Q

When was the earliest diagnostic tests for the detection of antibodies occurring in typhoid fever, brucellosis and tularemia discovered

A

1896

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31
Q

who discovered one of the earliest diagnostic tests for the detection of antibodies occurring in typhoid fever, brucellosis and tularemia

A

widal and sicard

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32
Q

what was discovered by widal and sicard in 1896

A

one of the earliest diagnostic tests for the detection of specific antibodies occurring in tularemia, brucellosis and typhoid fever

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33
Q

In the test discovered by widal and sicard specific antibodies of these diseases are detected

A
  1. typhoid fever
  2. burcellosis
  3. tularemia
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34
Q

What are agglutinins

A

antibodies that reacts with antigen on a surface of a particle

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35
Q

example surfaces where Abs-Ags sensitized

A
  1. RBCs
  2. bacteria
  3. inert particles (latex particles)
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36
Q

helps in the detection of pathogen, antigens and blood group antigens

A

Agglutinin

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37
Q

What are agglutinogens

A

antigens on the surface of particles that react with the agglutinin

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38
Q

Agglutinogen is also called

A

isoantigen

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39
Q

responsible for determining our blood type within the ABO blood group

A

agglutinogen

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40
Q

Steps in Agglutination

A

1 Sensitization
2 Lattice Formation

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41
Q

What is agglutination?

A

is a two-step process (sensitization + lattice formation) resulting in a formation of a stable lattice network

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42
Q

difference between agglutination and precipitation

A

precipitation - soluble
* antigen and antibodies soluble in a solution

agglutination - insoluble
* antibody is made to react with a particulate antigen to form insoluble agglutinate

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43
Q

attachment of a specific antibody to an antigen in a single antigenic determinant on a particulate surface

A

sensitization

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44
Q

is clumping visible during sensitization

A

NO

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45
Q

What happens during sensitization

A

antibodies only attach to their specific antigenic determinant (epitope) on the RBC membrane.
* No formation lattice for visible agglutination

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46
Q

Difference: Sensitization vs. Latiice Formation

A

Sensitization - no visible agglutination, reversible, rapid, Abs attachment to single antigenic determinant, no reaction present,

Lattice formation - visible agglutination, irreversible, slow, establishment of cross-linking between sensitized particles, crosslinking influenced by zeta potential

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47
Q

Sensitization or Lattice: no visible agglutination

A

Sensitization

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48
Q

Sensitization or Lattice: reversible

A

Sensitization

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49
Q

Sensitization or Lattice: rapid

A

Sensitization

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50
Q

Sensitization or Lattice: Abs attachment to single antigenic determinant

A

Sensitization

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51
Q

Sensitization or Lattice: no reaction present

A

Sensitization

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52
Q

Sensitization or Lattice: visible agglutination

A

Lattice

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53
Q

Sensitization or Lattice: affected by the nature of antibody molecule

A

Sensitization and Lattice

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54
Q

Antibody that works best at agglutination because of its several binding site

A

IgM

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55
Q

Sensitization or Lattice: irreversible

A

Lattice

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56
Q

Sensitization or Lattice: crosslinking influenced by zeta potential

A

Lattice

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57
Q

Sensitization or Lattice: establishment of cross-linking between sensitized particles

A

Lattice

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58
Q

What does affinity vs. avidity mean

A

used to describe strength and stability of the binding interaction between antigen and antibody in the immune response

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59
Q

What does affinity refer to?

A

Strength of a single interaction

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60
Q

measures how tightly an antibody binds to a specific antigen

A

affinity

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61
Q

What does avidity refer to?

A

Total strength of a multivalent interaction

62
Q

What influences avidity?

A

Divalency of the antibody and multivalency of the antigen

63
Q

Difference: Affinity vs. Avidity

A

Affinity - strength of binding between SINGLE antigen binding site on an antibody
Avidity - OVERALL strength of the binding interaction between MULTIPLE antigen binding sites on a single antibody molecule. MULTIPLE epitopes

64
Q

avidity is influenced by:

A
  1. divalency of antibody (number of antigen binding sites)
  2. multivalency of the antigen (number of epitopes) -antigenic determinant
65
Q

What is lattice formation?

A

Sum of interactions between antibody and multiple antigenic determinants

66
Q

What conditions affect lattice formation?

A

Environmental conditions and relative concentrations of antigen and antibody present in the sample

67
Q

Why can’t IgG often bridge the distance between particles?

A

Smaller in size, restricted flexibility at hinge region, preventing multivalent binding

68
Q

What is usually required for a visible reaction to be observed with IgG antibodies?

A

Enhancement techniques

69
Q

Why are IgM considered strong agglutinins?

A

Diameter of ~35nm

70
Q

Can visible clumping be seen immediately with IgM without addition of any enhancement techniques?

A

Yes

71
Q

What is sensitization in the context of agglutination?

A

Antigen-antibody binding, no visible agglutination

72
Q

What is lattice formation in the context of agglutination?

A

Crosslinks formed, causing visible agglutination

73
Q

What is the term for an abundance of antibodies saturating antigen binding sites?

A

Prozone

74
Q

What can lead to false negative results in antigen-antibody testing?

A

Prozone (Abs excess) and Postzone (Ags excess)

75
Q

the optimal concentration of antigens and antibodies

A

zone of equivalence

76
Q

Causes for lack of Reactivity

A
  1. Antigen-Antibody concentrations
  2. Poor function of Antibody and Antigen
77
Q

What is the term for excess antigen relative to antibodies in a sample?

A

Postzone

78
Q

Reasons for Abnormality in Antigen

A
  1. antigenic sites lies deep within the surface coat of the particle
  2. antigenic sites are not easily accessible
  3. no cross-linking formation happens
79
Q

Reasons for Abnormalities in Antibodies

A
  1. movement of the hinge region is limited
  2. structural abnormality
  3. poor function of antibody - leading to a no-to-weak reaction
80
Q

Factors that influence the Abs-Ags reaction

A
  1. viscosity
  2. pH
  3. Temperature
  4. Ionic Strength
  5. Abs-Ags concentration
  6. Motion
  7. Time of incubation
  8. Class of antibody
  9. RBCs zeta potential
81
Q

what is added when the solution is viscous to enhance agglutination

A

Dextran and Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

82
Q

What is the purpose of the addition of dextran and PEG in viscous solutions

A

removes/reduces water for hydration present around cell to allow closer proximity for Abs-Ags interaction

83
Q

optimal ph fo Abs-Ags interaction

A

ideal range: 6.5 - 7.5
optimum: 7.0

84
Q

How does temperature influence agglutination

A

temperature affects the binding strength, speed and rate of reaction

85
Q

optimum temperature for IgM

A

4-27C

86
Q

cold reacting antibodies

A

IgM

87
Q

Optimum temperature for IgG

A

30-37C

88
Q

warm reacting antibodies

A

IgG

89
Q

How does ionic strength influence agglutination

A

decreased/low ionic strength enhances/ increase rate of association

90
Q

What is the optimum concentration of Antigen to antibody

A

zone of equivalence

91
Q

motions that enhances agglutination

A

stirring, shaking and centrifugation

92
Q

How does time of incubation affect agglutination in:
Slide test
Tube test

A

Prolonged:
Slide - False (+)
Test tube - False (-) due to disassociation of complex

shortened = no-to-weak reaction

93
Q

What class of antibody is an efficient agglutinator due to its pentamer structure?

A

IgM

94
Q

what causes zeta potential in RBCs

A

difference in charge density of the inner and outer layers of the ionic cloud around the RBCs

95
Q

What class of antibody is an efficient precipitator because it can only reach antigenic sites up to 14nm?

A

IgG

96
Q

What keeps RBCs about 25nm apart in a solution?

A

Zeta potential

97
Q

why is IgM an efficient agglutinator than IgG

A

Because diameter matters. IgM (35nm) and IgG (14nm).
* Due to zeta potential, RBCS are forced to be separated 25nm apart. Antibodies need to reach antigens to create complex. Therefore, IgM is an efficient agglutinator because its diameter is greater than >25nm

98
Q

how does colloidal diluents enhance lattice formation

A

reduces water of hydration around RBCs to allow closer proximity

99
Q

What reduces the water of hydration around RBCs to allow them to come into closer proximity for antibodies to join them together?

A

Colloidal diluents

100
Q

examples of colloidal diluents

A
  1. bovine albumin
  2. polybrene
  3. polyethylene glycol
  4. protamin
  5. polyvinylpyrrolidone
101
Q

What type of enzyme reduces the surface charge on RBCs by cleaving chemical groups and decreasing hydration?

A

Proteolytic enzymes

102
Q

How does proteolytic enzymes enhance lattice formation

A
  1. reduce surface charge of RBCs through cleavage of chemical groups
  2. reduce water for hydration
103
Q

examples of proteolytic enzymes and their origin

A
  1. papain - papaya
  2. bromelin - pineapple
  3. trypsin - pig intestines
  4. ficin - figs
104
Q

What reagent is used to bridge the gap between sensitized cells in tests like the Coombs Test?

A

AHG reagent

105
Q

What test is used to detect antibodies that act against the RBC surface and indicates hemolytic anemia?

A

Coombs Test

106
Q

Coomb’s Test: cross-matching

A

indirect

107
Q

Coomb’s Test: diagnosis of hemolytic anemia

A

direct

108
Q

Coomb’s Test: Patient serum

A

Indirect

109
Q

Indirect coomb’s test procedure

A
  1. px serum
  2. washing of donor rbc with NSS
  3. combination of px serum and donor rbc (major cross-matching)
  4. incubation @ 37C for 15-30 mins
  5. AHG reagent
110
Q

interpretation of (+) agglutination in indirect coomb’s test

A

antibodies in px reacts with antigens present on rbc surface of donor cells (incompatible)

111
Q

Coomb’s Test: detects the presence of anti-Rh(+) in Rh(-) mothers that birthed Rh(+) child

A

Indirect

112
Q

What provides a physical means to increase cell-cell contact and heighten agglutination by overcoming the natural repulsive effect of RBCs?

A

Agitation and centrifugation

113
Q

interpretation of (+) agglutination in direct coomb’s test

A

cells were coated in vivo with IgG

114
Q

How does agitation and centrifugation enhance lattice formation

A

provides the physical force to override zeta potential between cells [overcoming natural repulsive effects of rbcs] to allow increased ag-ab interaction (specially igg)

115
Q

Coomb’s Test: Patient RBC

A

Direct

116
Q

Process of Direct Coomb’s Test

A
  1. washing of px rbc with NSS
  2. decant supernatant
  3. addition of AHG reagent
117
Q

When does direct immune agglutination occur?

A

When antigens are naturally found on a particle

118
Q

direct immune agglutination examples

A
  1. abo blood typing
  2. widal test
119
Q

Major categories of agglutination reaction

A
  1. direct immune
  2. direct non-immune
  3. indirect/passive
120
Q

rapid screening test to detect presence of typhoid fever

A

widal test

121
Q

What does widal test detect/determine

A

detects ANTIBODIES produces by the body against salmonella to determine presence/previous infection of typhoid fever

122
Q

antigens used in widal’s test

A

salmonella O (somatic)
salmonella H (flagellar)

123
Q

How is ABO blood typing done (methods)

A
  1. slide methods
  2. test tube
  3. gel method
124
Q

when does hemaggulation occur

A

hemaggulation reaction involves RBCs

125
Q

explain why is tube test more reliable and sensitive during abo typing

A

because it test tube was centrifuged

126
Q

differentiate: forward and reverse typing

A

forward typing: indicates presence/absence of antigens on px RBCs
antigen: px RBC
antibody: Anti-sera A(blue) B(yellow)
Results: A and B antigens

Reverse typing: indicates presence/absence of antibodies on px serum (Anti- A and Anti-B)
antigen: known A1 and B1 cells
antibodies: px serum
Results: Anti- A and Anti-B

127
Q

Grade: many small aggregates with turbid background

A

1+

128
Q

small-medium aggregates with clear background

A

2+

129
Q

several medium-large aggregates

A

3+

130
Q

one large clump/button

A

4+

131
Q

What is non-immune agglutination?

A

Agglutination not involving an immune response

132
Q

what causes the agglutination in direct non-immune?

A

BASTA not antibodies
MAYBE:
1. viral
2. pytohemagglutination (lectin)

133
Q

What viruses cause viral hemagglutination?

A

Influenza, mumps, measles, rubella, dengue

134
Q

true or false: lectin hemagglutinins have the ability to cause agglutination w/o presence of ag-ab interaction

A

TRUE

135
Q

true or false: viral hemagglutinins have the ability to cause agglutination w/o presence of ag-ab interaction

A

TRUE

136
Q

What is phytohaemagglutinin (PHA)?

A

Plant-derived protein that agglutinates RBCs

137
Q

true or false: pytohemagglutinin does not have the ability to cause agglutination w/o presence of ag-ab interaction

A

FALSE

138
Q

specific origin of pytohemagglutinin (lectin)

A

legumes

139
Q

proteins related to pytohemagglutinins

A
  1. leucoagglutinin (PHA-L)
  2. PHA-E
140
Q

What is an example of lecitins? and their origin

A

Anti-H - Ulex europaeus
lecitin - dolichos biflorus

141
Q

What does the Dolichos biflorus lectin agglutinate?

A

A1 cells

142
Q

What does the Ulex europaeus lectin agglutinate?

A

Group O cells

143
Q

What is required for indirect or passive agglutination?

A

Carrier particles

144
Q

indirect or passive agglutination antigen/antibodies are attached to ?

A
  1. biological carrier - rbc
  2. inert carrier - latex particles, bentonite, charcoal or polystyrene particles
145
Q

What are examples of biological and inert carriers used in indirect or passive agglutination?

A

RBCs, latex, bentonite, charcoal, polystyrene particles

146
Q

antibodies are attached to particulate carrier

A

reverse passive agglutination

147
Q

In passive agglutination, what is attached to the particulate carriers?

A

Antigens

148
Q

In reverse passive agglutination, what is attached to particulate carriers?

A

Antibodies

149
Q

What is the Coombs test also known as?

A

Antiglobulin technique

150
Q

what is the outcome when abs/ags reacts with particulate carriers?

A

agglutination

151
Q

antigens are attached or coated onto the particulate antigen

A

passive agglutination

152
Q

What is used in the Coombs test to bridge the gap between sensitized cells?

A

Anti-human globulin

Immunosero (2 decks)

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