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RPA > KV study items > Flashcards

KV study items Flashcards

1
Q

Conditions that will Close the ECS PACKS (7)

A
  • A bleed source is not available for the PACK.
  • The respective PACK button is OFF.
  • Any engine is starting, with WOW (both PACKs shut off).
  • Respective engine is starting, no WOW, and opposite engine not starting.
  • Any engine is starting and APU is the bleed source (both PACKs close)
  • Respective bleed leak
  • Respective BIT failure (essentially, a system fault in the PACK)
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2
Q

APU auto shutdown on the ground?

A

Underspeed
Fadec Critical Fault
Overspeed

Sensor fail
High oil temp
EGT overtemp
Low oil pressure
Fire (APU)

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3
Q

Conditions that will Open the APU Bleed (5) (simultaneously)

A
  • APU bleed switch is set to AUTO
  • APU bleed is available
  • No APU/left bleed duct leak
  • Left engine bleed is unavailable
  • No Anti-Ice requested
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4
Q

Conditions that will command engine bleed valve open. All must be met simultaneously (4)

A
  • Respective bleed switch is AUTO.
  • Respective engine bleed is available.
  • No fire is detected in respective engine.
  • No bleed leak is detected.
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4
Q

Conditions that will open the Cross Bleed. All must be met (6)

A
  • XBLEED button is pushed in (auto).
  • One side providing bleed pressure and there is not a bleed source on
    the opposite side.
  • APU bleed button pushed out for main engine start.
  • Engine 2 start in the air.
  • APU bleed off for Engine 1 start in the air.
  • No bleed leak.
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5
Q

Command recirculation fans off (5).

A
  • The DUMP button is pressed.
  • Smoke is detected in the recirculation bay.
  • Both PACKs are commanded OFF.
  • On ground cabin warm-up mode when the APU is the bleed source.
  • Cargo bay fire signal activates.
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5
Q

FADEC ECS Off Signal
during takeoff (3): ANY of these.

A

The ECS OFF signal CLOSES both PACKs during takeoff if ANY of the
following conditions occur:

  • OEI and APU bleed is not available;
  • Thrust levers set to MAX and APU bleed is not available;
  • TDS REF ECS set to OFF on the MCDU and APU bleed is not available;
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6
Q

FADEC ECS Off Signal during go around if ANY (3):

A

The ECS OFF signal CLOSES both PACKs during go-around if ANY of the
following conditions occur:

  • OEI and APU bleed is not available up to 9,700’;
  • Thrust levers set to MAX and APU bleed is not available;
  • Thrust levers set to MAX and Ice Protection is requested on (remember -
    APU cannot provide bleed for Anti-Ice).
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7
Q

FADEC ECS Off Signal: The PACKs are recovered when:

A
  • Thrust levers reduction below TO/GO;
  • Two engines above 500’ AGL;
  • OEI above 9,700’ (for both takeoff and go-around).
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8
Q

Conditions that will disengage the autopilot (10)

A
  • Quick disconnect button
  • AP button on the Guidance Panel
  • Manual pitch trim is actuated
  • Stick Shaker actuated
  • Windshear
  • Direct Mode
  • Aileron/Elevator disconnect
  • Exerting a light force for a long time on the yoke
  • Exerting a strong force for a short time on the yoke
  • Internal fault
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9
Q

Conditions that will disengage the auto throttle (5)

A
  • Pressing either AT disconnect button on the thrust levers.
  • Pressing the AT button on the guidance panel.

Automatically disengages:
* After touch down.
* When thrust lever is moved beyond the TO/GA detent.
* Thrust refers operation during RTO.

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10
Q

ROLL Mode Bank Logic

A

The AP takes different action considering different bank angles
* Bank angle at or below 6 degrees: AP levels the wings

  • Bank angle above 6 degrees and below 35 degrees: AP holds present bank
  • Bank angle at or above 35 degrees: AP maintains 35 degrees of bank
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11
Q

Items on the Accessory Gear Box:

A

Fuel Pump
Air Turbine starter
Generator (IDG)
Hydraulic Pump
Oil Pump
PMA

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12
Q

Idle Modes (4)

A

Flight Idle
* Active mode whenever in flight and Approach Idle not selected

Approach Idle
* Allows rapid acceleration to go-around thrust.
* Weight OFF wheels
* Flaps 1 or greater, or landing gear down
* Altitude less than 15,000’

Final Approach Idle
* Altitude below 1,200’
* Landing flaps
* Landing gear down

Ground Idle
* Provides a stable and minimum engine thrust level for ground operations.

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13
Q

Fire Test Indications

A

6 Lights
5 EICAS messages
4 Boxes
2 Aural

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14
Q

Items Powered During an Electrical Emergency:

A
  • DU 2 (Pilot’s MFD)
  • DU 3 (EICAS)
  • Flight Guidance Panel
  • Magnetic Compass (illumination)
  • IESS
  • Clock
  • CCD 1
  • MCDU 2
  • Audio Control Panels (both 1&2)
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15
Q

Hydraulic Pumps 1&2 Logic:

A
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16
Q

PTU Logic

A

During takeoff and landing, with the selector knob in the AUTO position the
hydraulic system logic automatically activates the PTU IF ENG2 or EDP2 fails.

  • Flaps not zero, landing gear not up.
  • EDP1 not fail.
  • Hydraulic 2 quantity above 12%.
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17
Q

Landing Gear Aural Warning Logic

A

“LANDING GEAR” annunciation and cannot be silenced in the following scenarios:

  • SLAT/FLAP 5 or FULL
  • SLAT/FLAP 1, 2, 3, or 4 and…
  • Rad. Alt. Below 700’ and TLA < 45 degrees (2 engines), or TLA < 59 degrees
    (OEI)
  • In the event of a dual Rad. Alt., may inhibit the message when FLAT/FLAP 1, 2, 3, 4.
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18
Q

TO CONFIG Warning Items

A

Flaps
Brakes
Trim
Spoilers

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19
Q

Non memory item QRC:

A

A - APU FIRE
B - BATT 1 (2) OVERTEMP
C - CARGO FWD (AFT) SMOKE
D - DUAL ENGINE FAILURE
E - EMERGENCY DESCENT
E - EMERGENCY EVACUATION
E - ENGINE FIRE, SEVERE DAMAGE, OR SEPERATION

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20
Q

C070

A
  • Airports authorized for scheduled operation:
  • R - regular airport
  • F - fueling airport
  • P - provisional airport
  • A - alternate airport
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21
Q

A027

A
  • land and hold short operations:

*No wet runways
*No wind shear
*No tailwind greater than three knots
*No at night (unless runway has FAA approved LAHSO lighting)

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22
Q

C050

A

Special Qualification Airports. (does not apply when the ceiling is 1,000 above the lowest MEA or MOCA, or initial approach
altitude, and 3 SM)

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23
Q

C056

A
  • standard takeoff mins (1sm or 5000 RVR) have the runway environment in sight
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24
Q

C078

A

lower than standard takeoff mins (CA to 600 RVR and FO 1600 RVR) specific lighting requirements for environmental
conditions. (Count three RUNWAY EDGE lights = 600 RVR roughly)

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25
Q

Exemption 17347

A
  • only applies to conditional (TEMPO, PROB) part of the forecast. It CANNOT be used for high min CAs. This conditional part may be as low as:
  • Destination Airport - 1/2 of the lowest required visibility
  • First Alternate - 1/2 of the lowest required ceiling and visibility
  • Second Alternate - at or above required ceiling and visibility for Ops Spec C055.
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26
Q

Lowest Alternate Weather for High Mins captain

A

no case can the min at the alternate be less than 300 and 1 for high min CAs.

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27
Q

C055

A

Derived alternate weather minimums.
- add 400 and 1 for Method 1 (one navaid)
- add 200 and 1/2 to the highest mins for Method 2 (two navaid)

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28
Q

MTOW 170

A

82,011

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29
Q

MTOW 175

A

85,517

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30
Q

MLW 170

A

72,310

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31
Q

MLW 175

A

74,957

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32
Q

CAT II Not authorized when (

A
  • Either crewmember is on OE
  • RCC below 3
  • CATII Special Authorization approach
  • Runway length is 115% of the dry runway landing distance required.
  • Required equipment is INOP
  • RVR below 1200
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33
Q

170 Cargo limit

A

FWD: 3020
AFT: 2271

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34
Q

175 Cargo limit

A

FWD: 3307
AFT: 2535

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35
Q

Dry Ice Limitations:

A

E170: 300
E175: 440

No dry ice permitted in aft cargo

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36
Q

What disappears when the EICAS declutters.

A
  1. Oil pressure
  2. Oil temp
  3. Gear
  4. Engine vibration
  5. APU
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37
Q

TCAS

A

TA - 35-45 seconds before entering the collision area
RA - 20-30 seconds before entering the collision area

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38
Q

When do the packs turn off automatically

A
  • Engine start
  • Dump button
  • Max thrust
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39
Q

Secondary flight controls

A
  • Horizontal stab
  • Flaps and slats
  • Multi-function spoilers
  • Ground spoilers
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40
Q

Speedbrakes retract automatically when:

A
  • Flaps 2 or above
  • Airspeed below 180 knots
  • TLA past 70 degrees
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41
Q

Speedbrakes in direct mode?

A

No

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42
Q

When do the ground spoilers stow?

A
  • Below 45 knots for 5 seconds
  • 35 TLA or past
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43
Q

flap limitations.

A
  • No enroute
  • No holding in icing conditions
  • No landing flaps 4
  • Max extension FL 200
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44
Q

The ELEC PBIT is looking to test?

A

the FCM, P-ACE, SF-ACE

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45
Q

HYD PBIT

A
  • Tests flight controls
  • Not preformed if temp is below 10 degrees C
  • Canceled if any control surface is moved while test is in progress
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46
Q

Can you overwing fuel with pax onboard?

A
  • When using a jet bridge
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47
Q

RVSM requirements:

A

o 2 ADS
o 1 AP ENGAGED with ALT hold mode
o 1 ALT alerter
o 1 Transponder
* No damage in the RVSM critical area

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48
Q

High Mins Captains:

A
  • Less than 100 hours not including OE
  • Add 100 to DH or MDA and 1/2 mile visibility
  • Exemption 17347 cannot be used
  • Exemption 17203 allows high min CAs to use CAT I mins when:
    o Both CA and FO are CAT II trained
    o Autopilot is used to DH
    o Use monitored approach procedure
    o RVR greater than 4,000
    o Less than 15 knot crosswind
    o Braking actions at least GOOD
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49
Q

When you need a NEW release:

A
  • Change of flight number
  • Change of aircraft
  • Change of PIC/SIC
  • A flight that has been diverted
  • A right that has returned to departure field
  • RTO that requires RTG
  • Delayed more than 2 hours
  • Change of destination on the ground
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50
Q

When do you need an AMENDED release:

A
  • Add or change alternate
  • Change of HOLD fuel
  • 300 shy of RAMP fuel
  • Add or remove MEL/CDL/NEF
  • Routing more than 50nm form filed
  • Change of filed ALT by 4,000 feet or more
  • Change of flight plan initiated by dispatch
  • New routing using a CDR
  • TOW exceeds planned by 4000lbs
  • Change of flight attendants
  • Change of destination in flight
  • Adding, editing, or removing remarks
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51
Q

Takeoff Alternate

A

o Needed when visibility or RVR is below landing minimums
o No further than 270 NM
o Required for high min CAs

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52
Q

Destination Alternate

A

o 1-2-3 rule
o Use C055 to determine if an airport can be used as an alternate.

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53
Q

Second Destination Alternate

A

o Needed when using 17347
o Needed when destination and first ALT are marginal (1000 and 3 for dest / 600 and 2 for alt)

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54
Q

Flex power takeoffs are prohibited when:

A

Windshear present or suspected

Contaminated Runway

Performance mandates no flex.

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55
Q

Max holding speeds:

A
  • Below 6,000 - 200kts
  • 6,001 to 14,000 - 230kts
  • Above 14,000 - 265kts
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56
Q

Stabilized Approach Criteria:

A
  • At 1,000 ft
    o Landing configuration selected
    o Correct lateral trach and vertical path
    o 1,000 fpm or less
  • At 500 ft
    o -5 to +10 Vapp
    o Engines spooled
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57
Q

When checking the AFML (Aircraft Flight/Maintenance Logbook) you need to verify:

A
  • 2-Day check
  • Airworthiness release
  • No open discrepancies
  • Review applicable MEL/CDL/NEFs
    *VOR check
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58
Q

MEL Categories:

A
  • A - time specified
  • B - 3 days
  • C - 10 days
  • D - 120 days
  • P - 120 days
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59
Q

The following EGPWS alerts require immediate action:

A
  • “Pull up”
  • “Terrain terrain”
  • “Too low terrain”
  • “Obstacle obstacle, pull up”
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60
Q

Declare and emergency when:

A
  • Cannot establish position
  • Aircraft component failure jeopardizing safety
  • Fire
  • Medical requiring diversion
  • Contingency jeopardizing flight safety
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61
Q

Exemption 17203?

A
  1. Both CA and FO CAT II qualified
  2. Autopilot working
  3. Monitored Approach
    Procedure
  4. Must not be below 4000RVR
  5. The crosswind component not to exceed 15 knots with a braking action report of less than “good”
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62
Q

What visibility may a high mins CA depart with?

A

6-6-6 with a takeoff alternate

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63
Q

Can a flight be dispatched into CAT II weather?

A

Yes. Crew qualified, aircraft CAT II capable,
better than 1/4SM in main body of TAF

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64
Q

When are CAT II approaches prohibited?

A

IOE and Line Checks

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65
Q

What are you certifying when signing the release?

A

Release content is correct and flight
conducted safely, current line check, 3 takeoffs/landings in 90 days, FFD

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66
Q

Low time FO?

A

Contaminated runway
4000RVR or less
Braking less than good
15+ crosswind
Windshear
Special PIC qualifications
LAHSO

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67
Q

Pilot present for boarding?

A

First flight of the day and international flights

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68
Q

How many operative RVRs for takeoff?

A

2

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69
Q

Exemption 17347?

A

Dispatched flight with weather at destination/alternate or both has
conditional language below landing minimums. Main body of TAF must have weather above
minimums. 1⁄2 visibility at destination, 1⁄2 visibility and ceilings at first alternate

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70
Q

Can we use RNAV approach minimums?

A

Yes, for destination OR alternate NOT both

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71
Q

What are we looking for on the AC GPU panel?

A

Ground service switch, Steering disengage, LAN,
Bonding strap, Circuit breakers, AC GPU receptacle

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72
Q

What is LAN for? (AC GPU panel)

A

Used by Mx to load software on the aircraft

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73
Q

How do we turn on service lights?

A

AC GPU Panel, Electrical Panel, Panel behind Cockpit door

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74
Q

What’s ADSP?

A

Air Data Smart Probes transmitting static/total pressure, AOA and TAT to ADS

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75
Q

Compartments we check on walk-arounds?

A

O2, Both HYD 1 (2) Panels, Potable Water

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76
Q

15.Difference between landing and taxi light?

A

Landing light lens is clear, taxi light is translucent

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77
Q

Will the nose wheel landing and taxi light automatically shut off?

A

Yes, during retraction

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78
Q

Where is the shimmy damper?

A

Nose wheel

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79
Q

Green towing light?

A

Steering disengaged, parking brake off, main brakes off

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80
Q

Two vents under wing, what are they?

A

Fuel vent and strobe cooling vent

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81
Q

Vent on engine?

A

FADEC cooling

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82
Q

Vent on bottom of engine?

A

Anti-ice overboard discharge

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83
Q

What is the T2 sensor?

A

Engine inlet air temperature

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84
Q

Lines on Main Landing Gear?

A

4 Blue - Hydraulics,
3 Black - Sensing temperature/speed

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85
Q

Static port connected to?

A

Positive pressure relief valve (heated at engine start)

86
Q

Cold dark airplane?

A

Logbook, Emergency Equipment, Aircraft documents

87
Q

Documentation?

A

Airworthiness Cert, Registration, FCC, QRC (2), QRH (2), SPC (2), NPC (2), JSBC
(1)

88
Q

Emergency equipment?

A

PBE, Halon Fire Extinguisher, Heat Resistant Gloves, Life Vests (3),
Crash Axe, Escape Rope (2), Flashlight (2), Oxygen Masks (3)

89
Q

How many halon fire extinguishers?

A

5

90
Q

How many PBE’s?

A

4

91
Q

PBE provides oxygen for how long?

A

15 min

92
Q

How many portable oxygen bottles?

A

3 – 175, 2 – 170

93
Q

What lights will turn on with an unpowered aircraft?

A

Courtesy/Service lights, DC ceiling lights

94
Q

DVDR records what?

A
95
Q

Difference between MTOW/MTXW/MLDW?

A

Maximum takeoff, taxi, and landing weight

96
Q

METW?

A

Takeoff weight limit due to en-route drift down performance using Method 1 (2)

97
Q

Method 1?

A

Engine failure, continue to destination, clear obstacles by 5sm laterally and 1000’

98
Q

Method 2?

A

Engine failure, divert to alternate, clear obstacles by 5sm laterally and 2000’

99
Q

Lights when O2 masks are dropped?

A

Fasten Seat Belt, No Smoking, No ELEC devices

100
Q

Masks automatically deployed?

A

14,000-14,750 Cabin altitude

101
Q

What makes our iPad an EFB?

A

Op Specs

102
Q

29.EFB required documents?

A

SOP, FOM, GRG, APM, FMS Guide, MEL, TDP Checklist

103
Q

GND PROX TERR INHIB?

A

Landing at an airport or runway not in our database

104
Q

APU what type of starter

A

Brushless starter generator

105
Q

What do the batteries do during startup?

A

BATT 1 - FADEC and EICAS monitoring, BATT 2 - APU
START BUS

106
Q

APU EMER STOP?

A

Closes SOV without cool down

107
Q

APU fire indications?

A

Fire bell and Triple Chime, Red stripe on EMER STOP button, APU FIRE
message, Master WARNING light

108
Q

AVAIL light?

A

AC GPU connected with volts/amps/Hz satisfied

109
Q

Electrical system, power ratings of the IDG?

A

115V, 40kVA, 400Hz

110
Q

What are the IDG’s?

A

Integrated Drive Generators

111
Q

Where is the IDG located?

A

Accessory Gear Box

112
Q

What controls the IDG?

A

Generator Control Unit

113
Q

What does the ‘OFF’ do?

A

Opens the IDG contactor isolating the IDG from AC BUS

114
Q

What does the ‘DISC’ do?

A

Disconnects constant speed drive from gearbox

115
Q

At what temperature will the IDG automatically disconnect?

A

366°F

116
Q

DC System voltage?

A

28DC

117
Q

What does the BUS TIE do?

A

Closes the circuit if a TRU fails or the RAT is deployed

118
Q

AC STBY BUS?

A

Engine 1 & 2 Exciter CH 1A & 2A

119
Q

AC ESS BUS?

A

AC Fuel Pump 2A, ACMP 3A, 1 Flap CH, 1 Slat CH

120
Q

Why would you use the Inverter?

A

Electrical Emergency

121
Q

What does the Inverter power?

A

AC STBY BUS

122
Q

What does the RAT power?

A

AC ESS BUS

123
Q

Are we allowed to reset circuit breakers?

A

Only on the ground by maintenance or flight crew
when directed by an approved company procedure

124
Q

LAV fire protection?

A

Automatically discharges at 78°C

125
Q

Fire handle, what happens?

A

Closes engine fuel, hydraulic, bleed, and cross-bleed SOV

126
Q

Pull the fire handle when the airplane is cold and dark, what happens?

A

Closes the associated
Fuel and Hydraulic SOV.

127
Q

If the Handle light extinguishes but EICAS message still persists is there a fire?

A

Yes

128
Q

FWD and AFT cargo smoke detectors?

A

FWD – 3 (2), AFT – 2 (1)

129
Q

What happens when smoke is detected?

A

Air circulation fan in the FWD compartment
automatically turns off and the ventilation outflow valve closes

130
Q

How many fire extinguishing bottles for cargo compartments?

A

2 – High/Low Rate. Must be
used in the same compartment.

131
Q

Fuel pumps in left tank?

A

1 Primary ejector, 1 AC electrical, 3 scavenge

132
Q

Fuel pumps in right tank?

A

1 Primary ejector, 1 AC electrical, 1 DC electrical, 3 scavenge

133
Q

AC pump purpose?

A

Backup if ejector fails, Engine start, Cross-feed, APU fuel source without
engines

134
Q

DC pump purpose?

A

Provides pressurized fuel for APU start and engine start when AC power or
AC fuel pumps unavailable

135
Q

If we lose the EDP, which pumps go out?

A

Primary Ejectors and Scavenge pumps

136
Q

Will the engine fail if we lose the EDP?

A

Yes

137
Q

Can we takeoff with FUEL IMBALANCE?

A

Yes, as long as imbalance is less than 790

138
Q

Fuel temperature limitation?

A

Left tank -37°C

139
Q

How is reserve fuel calculated?

A

45 minutes of fuel at LRC at 10,000 feet

140
Q

Max fuel we can carry?

A
141
Q

Molecule of Fuel:

A

Fuel Tank > Ejector Pump > Low-Pressure Pump > Heat Exchanger > Fuel
Filter > High-Pressure Pump > FMU > Fuel Injectors

142
Q

What’s on HYD system 2 but not HYD system 1?

A

Inboard brakes, Nose wheel steering, Landing
gear

143
Q

Why does HYD pump 3B have auto?

A

Back-up and automatically activates if 3A fails

144
Q

When do HYD system 1A and 2A automatically come on?

A

Ground: Flaps greater than 0, ground
speed greater than 50, or TOGA set.

Flight: Flaps greater than 0, or Engine or EDP failure

145
Q

Nosewheel steering if you start ENG 1?

A

ENG 1 started, parking brake released

146
Q

Engine pump shutoff pressed, what happens?

A

Closes HYD SOV, pump still runs

147
Q

At what temperature will the SOV automatically close?

A

125°C

148
Q

How many accumulators per system?

A

System 1 – 2, System 2 – 2, System 3 – 1

149
Q

When is a HYD Warm-Up required?

A

First flight of the day reservoir below -18°C

150
Q

How do you conduct a HYD PBIT?

A

‘STEER OFF’ EICAS message, pressure in all three systems
below 250 psi, set ACMPs 3A, 1 and 2 to ON.

151
Q

In electrical emergency, what pumps do we have?

A

ACMP 3A

152
Q

What provides hydraulic pressure to flight controls until RAT comes on line?

A

Hydraulic 3
accumulator

153
Q

When are the wings heated?

A

40 KIAS to prevent damage to fuel lines

154
Q

When does A/I turn on in the air?

A

1,700ft AGL or 2 minutes (whichever happens first)

155
Q

Bleed Air: A/I

A

Engine lips and 3 outboard slats

156
Q

Electric Heat: A/I

A

Pitot-Static System, Windshields, Water lines, Static port (heated at engine start)

157
Q

What happens if there is a single bleed source failure?

A

Cross bleed opens and uses opposite
bleed air for both wings

158
Q

Why might we turn on A/I manually in the air?

A

Buildup of ice without messages

159
Q

Why might we turn on A/I manually on the ground?

A

After landing during taxi in with icing conditions

160
Q

Definition of icing?

A

10C or below; and visible moisture in any form is present; or when
operating on contaminated surfaces

161
Q

When is single engine taxi not authorized?

A

Braking action less than good; or RVR less than 1200

162
Q

Emergency ram air used and conditions?

A

PACK failure and aircraft below FL250. Smoke
Evacuation.

163
Q

What do we use Pneumatics for?

A

Air condition, A/I, pressurization, water pressurization

164
Q

Three ways PACKS turn off?

A

Dump button, Engine start, Max T/O

165
Q

Three ways Bleeds turn off?

A

Leak, Overpressure, Failure

166
Q

Four ways Recirculation fans turn off?

A

Cockpit switch, Smoke/Fire detected, Dump button
pressed, Respective PACK turned off

167
Q

What’s in the FWD eBay?

A

SPDA1, EICC, FWD eBay Avionics

168
Q

A single pack can provide adequate temperature to what altitude?

A

FL310

169
Q

Dump button, how does it work?

A

Shuts off packs/fans, opens outflow valve, depressurizes
cabin to 12,400ft at 2,000FPM

170
Q

Examples for using Dump button?

A

Emergency evacuation, Fast cabin depressurization, smoke
evacuation

171
Q

What is LFE Mode?

A

Still in Auto, allows pilot to set LFE if not in the MCDU

172
Q

Molecule of Air:

A

Compressor 6th/10th Stage Air > Low/High Stage Bleed Valve > Engine Bleed
Valve > Precooler > Flow Control Valve > PACKS > Flight Deck/Cabin/Mixer

173
Q

Recirculated Air:

A

Filter > Recirculating Fans > Mixer > Cabin

174
Q

Normal/Direct mode difference?

A

Direct mode removes FCMs and no higher level functions

175
Q

What will cause the FCM to go into direct mode?

A

Loss of airspeed

176
Q

Elevator higher level functions?

A

Gain on airspeed, Elevator thrust compensation, AOA limiting

177
Q

Rudder higher level functions?

A

Gain on airspeed, Yaw damper, Turn coordinator

178
Q

Spoilers higher level functions?

A

Gain on airspeed, Roll assist, Speed brakes, Ground spoilers

179
Q

How does the fly-by-wire work?

A

Pilot inputs/Aircraft Systems > FCM > ACE > PCU

180
Q

How long is the FBW backup battery good for?

A

15 minutes

181
Q

How many dedicated ground spoilers?

A

4

182
Q

Will the speed brakes/ground spoilers function in Direct mode?

A

No

183
Q

How many multi-function spoilers?

A

6 (L3, L4, L5, R3, R4, R5)

184
Q

Will the multi-function spoilers function in Direct mode?

A

Yes, for roll only at a default gain

185
Q

Ground spoilers automatically retract?

A

Speed below 45kts for 5 seconds or TLA below 26°

186
Q

Flaps controlled?

A

Electrically activated, electrically actuated

187
Q

If the RAT is deployed, how far can you extend the flaps?

A

Position 3

188
Q

Flight control malfunction in flight requires NTSB report

A
189
Q

Nose wheel steering controlled?

A

Electrically controlled, hydraulically actuated

190
Q

How many uplock/downlock switches per gear?

A

2 uplock and 2 downlock

191
Q

What are the braking protections?

A

Anti-Skid (Reduces wheel brake pressure only effective
above 10 KIAS),

Automatic Wheel Braking (Prevents MLG from retracting with wheels still
spinning),

Touchdown (No brakes until 3 seconds after WOW sensor has sensed ground or
wheel speed above 50 KIAS)

Locked Wheel (Reduces pressure to slower wheel < 30 KIAS)

192
Q

How are the brakes controlled?

A

Electrically commanded, hydraulically activated

193
Q

When would you use the Electrical override?

A

Gear level control box fail, bypasses PSEM

194
Q

When do we use the DN LOCK REL button?

A

Retract gear for obstacle clearance if WOW sensor
fail

195
Q

How many PSEM and WOW sensors?

A

2 PSEM and 6 WOW (2 on each wheel)

196
Q

What happens when 2 WOW sensors on one wheel fail?

A

Prevents gear handle from being raised

197
Q

What are fusible plugs?

A

Pins attached to the wheels, which melt relieving tire pressure in case of tire overheat

198
Q

When would we use LG WRN INHIB?

A

Dual RA failure

199
Q

Auto Brake engagement during RTO:

A

Thrust levers Idle or REV, Wheel speed above 60 KIAS, Toe brakes not applied

200
Q

Auto Brakes Disarmed:

A

Set to OFF, Toe brakes applied, Brake fault, Thrust levers beyond Idle

201
Q

What happens if both channels of the FADEC fail?

A

The engine fails

202
Q

What controls the engines FADEC?

A

Permanent Magnetic Alternator – Above 50% N2

203
Q

Normal start sequence:

A

N2 7% - Ignition, N2 20% - Fuel flow, N2 50% - Starter cutoff

204
Q

What does the Starting system consist of?

A

Air Turbine Starter and Starter Control Valve

205
Q

When should starts be aborted without a light off?

A

30 seconds after initiation of fuel flow

206
Q

What happens if N2 exceeds 100%?

A

FADEC shuts down the engine

207
Q

What will trigger an ATTCS event?

A

Wind shear, Engine failure during takeoff or go-around, N1
difference > 15%

208
Q

When are flexed takeoffs prohibited?

A

Contaminated runway, wind shear, performance
mandates no FLEX

209
Q

What does a hot/hung start require?

A

Mx writeup and return to gate

210
Q

What does WML mean?

A

FADEC detected flame-out and auto re-light is actuating

211
Q

Thrust reverser inadvertently deploys in flight?

A

FADEC limits thrust to idle

212
Q

When is thrust reverse available?

A

Weight-on-wheels

213
Q

Molecule of Air Engine:

A

Fan > Low/High Rate Compressor > Combustor > Turbine > Nozzle

214
Q

What is the turn radius for 180 degree turn on the E170?

A

54’ 8”

215
Q

What is the turn radius for 180 degree turn on the E175?

A

59’ 2”

RPA (3 decks)

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