KV Sheppy

Question 1

How is the auto-throttle (AT) armed while on the ground?

a) Push thrust levers past the 70 degree PLA
b) AT button pressed on the guidance panel
c) Pushing the TOGA button
d) You can’t arm it on the ground

Answer 1

AT button pressed on the guidance panel

Question 2

What is the difference between the Pedestal PA button and the ACP PA button?

a) Pedestal is active/hot mic only when pressed
b) ACP button is active/hot mic after being selected and must be
deselected after use to change to inactive/cold mic
c) Both are correct
d) Both are incorrect

Answer 2

Both are correct

Question 3

How many PBE’s are provided in the E175 Cockpit?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) None

Answer 3

1

Question 4

What are the brake temperature indications?

a) Green: Normal/Amber: Caution/Red: Do not dispatch
b) Green: Normal/Amber: See chart
c) Green: Normal/Amber: Caution/ Amber dashed: Invalid
d) Green: Normal/Red: Caution

Answer 4

Green: Normal/Amber: Caution/ Amber dashed: Invalid

Question 5

What happens if a PFD fails?

a) It reverts to the opposite side MFD
b) The PFD information should revert to the respective side MFD
c) It reverts to the EICAS
d) Nothing

Answer 5

The PFD information should revert to the respective side MFD

Question 6

What is the priority for the trim system?

a) CA, FO, backup, autopilot
b) Autopilot, backup, CA, FO
c) Backup, CA, FO, autopilot
d) Main, backup, FO, autopilot

Answer 6

Backup, CA, FO, autopilot

Question 7

The Emergency Lights Power Units provide electrical energy to power the internal Emergency Lighting system for __ minutes.

a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 30

Answer 7

10

Question 8

Which of the following can provide DC power to the aircraft?

a) 2 NICAD batteries
b) DC GPU
c) 3 TRU’s
d) All are correct

Answer 8

All are correct

Question 9

What controls the engine?

a) None are correct
b) A two channel FADEC
c) Generators
d) Batteries

Answer 9

A two channel FADEC

Question 10

When does the de-clutter of the EICAS activate?

a) Climbing through 500’AGL
b) 5 minutes after flaps are up
c) Once the gear is up only
d) 30 sec after gear up, flaps/slats retracted and all parameters normal

Answer 10

30 sec after gear up, flaps/slats retracted and all parameters normal

Question 11

What alerts are generated during a windshear caution or windshear warning?

a) Caution - Amber WSHR on the PFD, aural “Caution Windshear’’
b) Warning - Red WSHR on the PFD, aural “Windshear, Windshear, Windshear”
c) Both are correct
d) Both are not correct

Answer 11

Both are correct

Question 12

How may the COMMs be tuned?

a) Either MCD via the RADIO page
b) Respective sides CCD/PFD
c) Both are correct
d) Both are not correct

Answer 12

Both are correct

Question 13

If the primary and secondary radio functions are not available, how would you tune the COMMs, NAVs, and Transponder?

a) Via the Backup Tuning function on MCDU 2
b) Via the Backup Tuning function on MCDU 1
c) Both are correct
d) Both are not correct

Answer 13

Via the Backup Tuning function on MCDU 2

Question 14

How can the low rate bottle be discharged if the airplane is on the ground?

a) Only by calling maintenance
b) None are correct
c) It can’t be discharged on the ground
d) The extinguishing button must be pressed again

Answer 14

The extinguishing button must be pressed again

Question 15

We know the dashed lead in markings approaching a runway is 150’. If I am exiting a runway and stopped at the beginning of these markings (which is 150’ from the runway), I know I am clear of the runway because my plane is only __ long.

a) 104 feet
b) 94

Answer 15

104 feet

Question 16

The EGPWS database consists of all hard surface runways that are greater than ___ feet in length.

a) 3500
b) 3000
c) 2500
d) None are correct

Answer 16

3500

Question 17

Which statement(s) is true regarding the Fire test?

a) The fire extinguisher handles illuminate steady
b) The fire aural warning sounds
c) The fire warning light on the ITT indicators illuminate
d) All are correct

Answer 17

All are correct

Question 18

What does DES NOW do?

a) Allows a 2000fpm descent
b) Allows the aircraft to descend early at 1000fpm until PTH intercept
c) Allows the aircraft to descend early in FLCH
d) None are correct

Answer 18

Allows the aircraft to descend early at 1000fpm until PTH intercept

Question 19

What is the purpose of the pre-cooler?

a) Cools the bleed air coming from the engine to the AMS
b) Cools the oil
c) Cools the fuel
d) Cools the water

Answer 19

Cools the bleed air coming from the engine to the AMS

Question 20

When is the electrical and pneumatic loading available during APU start?

a) 95% RPM plus 3 seconds
b) 90% RPM plus 3 seconds
c) 90% RPM
d) After 50% RPM

Answer 20

95% RPM plus 3 seconds

Question 21

What fuel pumps are capable of providing fuel to the APU?

a) Right engine running - RH ejector fuel pump
b) Batteries ON only - DC fuel pump in right tank
c) AC powered - ACMP 2
d) All are correct

Answer 21

All are correct

Question 22

During preflight, how would you know if the cockpit crew oxygen had been over pressurized?

a) Master Caution
b) The green blowout disc would be missing on the left forward side of
the fuselage
c) The green blowout disc would be missing on the right forward side of the fuselage
d) None are correct

Answer 22

The green blowout disc would be missing on the right forward side of the fuselage

Question 23

What controls ATTCS?

a) Engine FADEC
b) CCD
c) Oil Pressure
d) Hydraulic Pressure

Answer 23

Engine FADEC

Question 24

What are the different modes of the cockpit quick donning O2 mask?

a) Emergency setting - Pure oxygen with positive pressure
b) Normal Setting - Oxygen and air mixture
c) 100% setting - Pure oxygen at all altitudes
d) All are correct

Answer 24

All are correct

Question 25

How many smoke detectors are installed in the cargo compartments?

a) 3 in the FWD, 2 in the AFT
b) 2 in the FWD, 2 in the AFT
c) 3 in the FWD, 1 in the AFT
d) 2 in the FWD, 3 in the AFT

Answer 25

3 in the FWD, 2 in the AFT

Question 26

What does a “CAS MSG” mean on the PFD(s)?

a) Indicates that the CAS lists from the 2 monitor Warning Function computers do not match
b) CAS miscompare monitoring detects
miscompare
c) If the 2 CAS messages are continuously different for 20 sec a mis-compare indication is shown
d) All are correct

Answer 26

All are correct

Question 27

What is the purpose of the Ramp Horn button installed in the cockpit?

a) To call Ground Personnel via a horn sound when pressed
b) To honk at other airplanes
c) To flash a light
d) None are correct

Answer 27

To call Ground Personnel via a horn sound when pressed

Question 28

What happens after 3 overspeed detection events?

a) Starter switch is disabled
b) FADEC will not re-light the engine
c) Master Warning
d) None are correct

Answer 28

FADEC will not re-light the engine

Question 29

Will the speed brakes/ground spoilers function in direct mode?

a) No, but roll spoiler function is available via default programmed values
b) Yes they will operate normally
c) Yes, if you override them
d) None are correct

Answer 29

No, but roll spoiler function is available via default programmed values

Question 30

How do you select auto-tune if not already selected?

a) Preview must be off
b) Must be in FMS mode
c) Double select standby NAV frequency and set it or delete frequency ID on PROG page
d) All are correct

Answer 30

All are correct

Question 31

How is a “bad” DVDR test alerted?

a) Master Caution alert
b) Master Warning alert
c) A CVR AFT (FWD) FAIL advisory message on the EICAS when the button is pressed
d) None are correct

Answer 31

A CVR AFT (FWD) FAIL advisory message on the EICAS when the button is pressed

Question 32

On the ground, when will ACMP 1 or 2 automatically activate with both engines running?

a) TL set to T/O
b) Wheel-speed greater than 50kt
c) Flaps greater than 0
d) All are correct

Answer 32

All are correct

Question 33

What pump is used once an engine is started?

a) DC fuel pump
b) Primary ejector pump
c) Scavenge pump
d) Number 1 pump

Answer 33

Primary ejector pump

Question 34

Which hydraulic system(s) control the Nosewheel steering?

a) HYD 1 & 2
b) HYD 2
c) HYD 1
d) Nosewheel is free castering

Answer 34

HYD 2

Question 35

What is external pneumatic air used for?

a) Engine start on the ground
b) ECS on the ground
c) Both are correct
d) Both are not correct

Answer 35

Both are correct

Question 36

How is BATT 2 configured during an APU start?

a) BATT 2 is isolated from the system
b) BATT 2 is tied directly to the APU start bus to power the APU starter
c) Both are correct
d) Both are incorrect

Answer 36

Both are correct

Question 37

If one of the AOA Limiting sensors fail in flight, will the Stall Protection system still be capable of performing the AOA limiting?

a) Yes, but only one time.
b) Yes, via channel B
c) No
d) Yes, but only on the Captains side

Answer 37

No

Question 38

Are faults in the water system monitored from the cockpit?

a) No
b) Yes
c) None are correct
d) Both are correct

Answer 38

No

Question 39

What does EICAS Full button do?

a) None are correct
b) Turns off the de-clutter mode
c) Turns off the EICAS
d) Brightens the EICAS display

Answer 39

Turns off the de-clutter mode

Question 40

When does the VTA appear?

a) When you select FPA
b) One minute prior to TOD
c) 50 miles from the TOD
d) At The TOD Point

Answer 40

One minute prior to TOD

Question 41

What is the primary purpose of HYD 3 system?

a) Back up for the landing gear
b) Back up for the nose wheel steering
c) Aids systems 1 and 2
d) Back up for the flight controls

Answer 41

Back up for the flight controls

Question 42

When S.E. taxiing (ENG1 or 2) and the APU running, would both windshields be heated?

a) Yes, there would be normal windshield heating since you have two sources of AC power.
b) No, two engines would be required to be running
c) No, the APU cannot provide AC power
d) No, neither windshield is heated on the ground

Answer 42

Yes, there would be normal windshield heating since you have two sources of AC power.

Question 43

What is the purpose of the AC fuel pump?

a) Engine start
b) Back up in case of primary ejector pump fails
c) Crossfeed operations
d) All are correct

Answer 43

All are correct

Question 44

When is the free wheel steering mode automatically activated?

a) Steering failure > 76 degrees
b) Steering system failure
c) Air/Ground system failure
d) All

Answer 44

All

Question 45

How do you override the FSBY mode on the ground?

a) Both pilots select the FSBY OVRD menu item on the respective weather controllers
b) One pilot selects the STAB OFF box 4 times in less than 3 seconds, enabling the WX mode.
c) Both
d) Both are incorrect

Answer 45

Both

Question 46

How many ice detectors must be working to have ice protection?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

Answer 46

One

Question 47

What does the PBE provide?

a) Pink indication - Bad
b) Blue indication - Good
c) Pressurized oxygen and protection from smoke, fire and fumes up to 40,000ft for at least 15 minutes
d) All are correct

Answer 47

All are correct

Question 48

The Emergency Lights Power Units provide electrical energy to power the internal Emergency Lighting system for _ minutes.

a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 30

Answer 48

10

Question 49

What are some of the systems that use hydraulic power?

a) Spoilers
b) Nose wheel steering
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 49

Both are correct

Question 50

The Windshear Escape Guidance Mode is activated when?

a) Manually when windshear warning or caution condition is detected and TOGA switch is pressed.
b) Automatically when windshear warning condition is detected and thrust lever is set to TO/GA position.
c) Automatically when Windshear warning condition is detected and the FD mode is in TO or GA
d) All are true

Answer 50

All are true

Question 51

How is the APU controlled?

a) Via the right engine FADEC
b) Via a dedicated FADEC
c) Via the left engine FADEC
d) Through the battery

Answer 51

Via a dedicated FADEC

Question 52

Can a single ECS pack provide temperature control and pressurization?

a) Yes, but limited to operations at or below FL310
b) No
c) Yes, at all altitudes
d) Only pressurization

Answer 52

Yes, but limited to operations at or below FL310

Question 53

When will the RAT deploy?

a) Manually via the RAT deployment handle
b) Main AC busses loss power
c) Both answers are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 53

Both answers are correct

Question 54

If an engine fails, does the opposite wing receive ice protection?

a) No. The crossbleed valve in inhibited with an engine failure.
b) Yes. The wings are heated electrically
c) Yes. The crossbleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings.
d) No

Answer 54

Yes. The crossbleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings.

Question 55

The CLB thrust mode engages when?

a) Landing gear retracted
b) Any change in FD vertical mode
c) Airplane above 400’ AGL
d) All are correct

Answer 55

All are correct

Question 56

A “Plug Type” door uses aircraft pressurization to push the door into the frame and ensures a good seal.

a) True
b) False

Answer 56

True

Question 57

What happens to artificial feel if the ailerons or elevators are disconnected?

a) If the elevator is jammed, artificial feel is half the normal load
b) If the CA side (left aileron) is jammed, there is no artificial feel on the FO’s side
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 57

Both are correct

Question 58

Can fuel be transferred from tank to tank or be dumped overboard?

a) Only during single engine operations
b) Yes
c) No
d) None are correct

Answer 58

No

Question 59

What are some of the parameters that must be met to enable APPR 2?

a) Both RA/BARO knobs set to RA
b) Both NAV frequencies set to the correct LOC frequency in the MCDU
c) Both PFD’s set to the correct LOC inbound course
d) All are correct

Answer 59

All are correct

Question 60

How many brake applications does the emergency brake provide?

a) The accumulators have sufficient pressure to provide six full-brake applications.
b) The accumulators have sufficient pressure to provide three full-brake applications.
c) The accumulators have sufficient pressure to provide one full-brake
applications.
d) As many as required, the emergency brake is mechanical.

Answer 60

The accumulators have sufficient pressure to provide six full-brake applications.

Question 61

When does the DVDR start recording Audio?

a) Only when there is a Master Warning
b) Only when airborne
c) Aircraft power up
d) Records even if aircraft is not powered

Answer 61

Aircraft power up

Question 62

How are the flight controls trimmed?

a) Pitch is via the horizontal stabilizer
b) Ailerons and rudder surface repositioned to a new neutral position
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 62

Both are correct

Question 63

During an engine start the FADEC will prevent fuel flow introduction with an ITT greater than?

a) 175 C
b) 160 C
c) 150 C
d) 120 C

Answer 63

120 C

Question 64

How do Ice Detectors work/function?

a) Vibrating sensor element that changes frequency when ice builds up around it. Once ice is detected, the sensor element heats, the ice melts, normal vibrating characteristic are restored and the heating stops. The cycle repeats as ice rebuild on the probes
b) Vibrating sensor element that changes frequency when ice builds up around it. The ice naturally delaminates from the probe.
c) Sensor measures thickness of ice the then sends signal to EICAS. Then a inflatable boot cracks the ice off the sensor.
d) Vibrating sensor element that changes frequency when ice builds up around it. After the aircraft lands, maintenance restores the probe.

Answer 64

Vibrating sensor element that changes frequency when ice builds up around it. Once ice is detected, the sensor element heats, the ice melts, normal vibrating characteristic are restored and the heating stops. The cycle repeats as ice rebuild on the probes

Question 65

What does the hydraulic shutoff button do when pressed on the overhead panel?

a) Isolates fluid from the pump but doesn’t shut it down
b) Closes the shutoff valve
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 65

Both are correct

Question 66

What speed will the FD command during a One Engine Inoperative Go-Around when the GA Button is pressed?

a) Vac
b) Vapp
c) V2
d) Vfs

Answer 66

Vac

Question 67

When cleared for a LOC approach the proper selection on the FGC is ____ .

a) APP
b) NAV
c) HDG
d) None of these

Answer 67

NAV

Question 68

Can both engine fire bottles be used for one engine if needed?

a) Yes
b) No
c) By opening the crossfire valve
d) None are correct

Answer 68

Yes

Question 69

What is the purpose of the collector box?

a) Ensures constant fuel flow to the engine
b) Keeps the fuel pumps submerged
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 69

Both are correct

Question 70

What is the primary use for the APU bleed air?

a) Assist with engine airstart below FL210
b) Engine start on the ground
c) ECS on the ground
d) All are correct

Answer 70

All are correct

Question 71

What does the WML indication mean on the EICAS?

a) Wind-milling engine
b) FADEC has detected a flame-out and is attempting an auto relight
c) An assisted start has been commanded
d) All are correct

Answer 71

All are correct

Question 72

How can you shut down the APU immediately?

a) You can’t
b) APU emergency stop button
c) APU emergency stop button only after the one minute cool down period
d) None are correct

Answer 72

APU emergency stop button

Question 73

How may the NAVs be tuned?

a) Either MCD via the RADIO page
b) Respective sides CCD/PFD
c) Both are correct
d Both are not correct

Answer 73

Both are correct

Question 74

Where can the Oxygen quantity be read?

a) MFD Status page
b) At the oxygen cylinder panel
c) Both are correct
d) Both are not correct

Answer 74

Both are correct

Question 75

What does the RAT directly power?

a) DC BUS 1
b) IDG 1
c) BATT 2 only
d) AC ESS BUS

Answer 75

AS ESS BUS

Question 76

The TCAS is intended to serve as a backup to?

a) Application of the Right of Way rules
b) Visual collision avoidance
c) Air traffic separation
d) All are correct

Answer 76

All are correct

Question 77

What uses electric heat for ice protection?

a) Pitot Static System - Pressurization static port
b) Windshields
c) Water Lines
d) All

Answer 77

All

Question 78

Why are HYD ACMP 3A and 3B switches labeled ON and AUTO?

a) 3A pump is primary and has no automation
b) 3B pump is a back-up and automatically activates if 3A fails
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 78

Both are correct

Question 79

When does DES NOW appear on the FP page?

a) Within 100 miles of the TOD
b) Within 20 miles of the TOD
c) Within 75 miles of the TOD
d) Within 50 miles of the TOD

Answer 79

Within 50 miles of the TOD

Question 80

What is the purpose of the accumulator?

a) Helps to avoid pump cavitation
b) Helps maintain constant pressure by covering transient demands
c) Provides a backup source of hydraulic energy or pressure
d) All are correct

Answer 80

All are correct

Question 81

What is the purpose of the BANK button?

a) Enables and disables bank angle to 17 degrees in HDG mode
b) Turns off HDG mode
c) Limits bank angle to 15 degrees in NAV mode
d) None are correct

Answer 81

Enables and disables bank angle to 17 degrees in HDG mode

Question 82

What is the maximum temperature for takeoff and landing

a) ISA+ 35 degrees C
b) 52 degrees C
c) 40 degrees C

Answer 82

52 degrees C

Question 83

How do the landing gear doors actuate?

a) Electrically
b) The Embraer 175 does not have gear doors
c) Mechanically, during landing gear extension or retraction
d) Hydraulically

Answer 83

Mechanically, during landing gear extension or retraction

Question 84

How many portable oxygen cylinders are installed in the cabin

a) 4 (2 in the FWD section and 2 in the AFT section)
b) 3 (1 in the FWD section and 2 in the AFT section)
c) 2 (1 in the FWD section and 2 in the AFT section)
d) Only 1 in the FWD section

Answer 84

3 (1 in the FWD section and 2 in the AFT section)

Question 85

What compressor stage is bleed air tapped for anti-icing operations?

a) N1 bypass Stage
b) Both High Stage and Low Stage Valve
c) Low Stage Valve (LSV)
d) High Stage Valve (HSV)

Answer 85

High Stage Valve (HSV)

Question 86

What is bleed air used for?

a) ECS (heating and cooling)
b) Engine and wing anti-icing
c) Engine start
d) All are correct

Answer 86

All are correct

Question 87

How many multi-function spoilers are on each wing?

a) 5 total spoiler panels (only the outboard 3 are considered multi-function spoilers)
b) 6 total spoiler panels (the outboard 2 are considered multifunction spoilers)
c) 8 total
d) 6 total

Answer 87

5 total spoiler panels (only the outboard 3 are considered multi-function spoilers)

Question 88

What are some reasons the APU will shut down on the ground?

a) Overspeed
b) FADEC critical fault
c) APU high oil temperature
d) All are correct

Answer 88

All are correct

Question 89

Does the FADEC provide engine start protection?

a) Yes, but only on the ground during a hot start, hung start or no light-off
b) No
c) Only in the air
d) Yes, at all times

Answer 89

Yes, but only on the ground during a hot start, hung start or no light-off

Question 90

How long does the fly by wire backup battery (lead acid) last?

a) 5 minutes
b) 10 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 60 minutes

Answer 90

15 minutes

Question 91

How many Life Vests are located within the E175 Cockpit?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) None

Answer 91

3

Question 92

Can cargo extinguishing be used if no smoke is detected?

a) Yes, the high rate bottle extinguishing button must be pressed twice, once to arm and once to discharge
b) The low rate bottle discharges after 1 minute in flight
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 92

Both are correct

Question 93

Where does the APU get its fuel?

a) Left fuel tank through the crossfeed valve
b) Right fuel tank
c) Both are correct
d) Both are not correct

Answer 93

Both are correct

Question 94

How are the brakes commanded?

a) Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated
b) Pedal position transduces send brake requests to the BCM (Brake Control Module)
c) Brake by wire
d) All

Answer 94

All

Question 95

How many cargo compartments are on the E175?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4

Answer 95

2

Question 96

What would be the indication of an APU fire?

a) APU FIRE is displayed on the EICAS
b) Red stripe in the EMER STOP button
c) Fire aural warning
d) All are correct

Answer 96

All are correct

Question 97

How is a crew alerted when the aircraft approaches a stall?

a) Master Warning Indication
b) Stick Shaker Activation
c) “Stall, Stall” aural warning
d) FD indicates 10 degree nose down

Answer 97

Stick Shaker Activation

Question 98

What is the initial pitch guidance when the GA mode is active?

a) 8 degrees
b) 10 degrees
c) 12 degrees
d) 15 degrees

Answer 98

8 degrees

Question 99

What is the minimum battery voltage to start the APU without following a recharge procedure?

a) 21.0V DC
b) 22.5V DC
c) 24.0V DC
d) None are correct

Answer 99

22.5V DC

Question 100

An aircraft that is pressurizing normally will hold any door or DV window shut until the aircraft is depressurized.

a) True
b) False

Answer 100

True

Question 101

Where is the fuel tank temperature taken?

a) Left tank
b) Right tank
c) Center tank
d) Both tanks

Answer 101

Left tank

Question 102

How are the lavs protected from fire?

a) Thermal plugs melt at a set temperature allowing release of the water extinguisher
b) There is no fire extinguishing bottle in the lav
c) Overhead sprinklers
d) Thermal plugs melt at a set temperature allowing release of the halon bottle

Answer 102

Thermal plugs melt at a set temperature allowing release of the halon bottle

Question 103

What happens when a cargo extinguishing button is pushed when smoke has been detected?

a) High rate bottle discharges immediately
b) On the ground, the low rate bottle will not automatically discharge
c) Low rate bottle discharges after 1 minute in flight
d) All are correct

Answer 103

All are correct

Question 104

What is the steering angle for the Nosewheel steering?

a) Variable (based on speed): i. +/-76 degrees up to 60 knots ii. +/- 7 degrees up to 100 knots
b) Variable up to 76 degrees at any speed
c) Variable (based on speed): i. +/- 76 degrees up to 10 knots ii. +/- 7 degrees at 100 knots
d) Fixed up to 10 knots then variable up to 100 knots

Answer 104

Variable (based on speed): i. +/- 76 degrees up to 10 knots ii. +/- 7 degrees at 100 knots

Question 105

What are the higher level functions associated with pitch?

a) Gain on airspeed
b) Elevator thrust compensation
c) AOA limiting/Stall protection
d) All are correct

Answer 105

All are correct

Question 106

What is the normal disengagement process for the autopilot?

a) Pressing a second time cancels the aural warning and cancels the FMA
annunciation
b) Pressing once triggers the aural warning “autopilot”
c) Pressing the quick disconnect button on either control wheel
d) All are correct

Answer 106

All are correct

Question 107

What happens if a thrust reverser deploys in flight?

a) FADEC limits respective engine thrust to idle
b) FADEC shuts down the engine
c) Nothing
d) FADEC adds additional thrust

Answer 107

FADEC limits respective engine thrust to idle

Question 108

What protections are provided for braking?

a) Locked Wheel
b) Touchdown
c) Anti-Skid
d) All

Answer 108

All

Question 109

QRH guidance states that when an “abnormal door indication” is received, the flight may continue safely if the aircraft pressurization is normal.

a) True
b) False

Answer 109

True

Question 110

What is the range of the radar?

a) 5-300NM
b) 5-600NM
c) 10-300NM
d) 10-600NM

Answer 110

10-300NM

Question 111

Roll Control is provided by what?

a) Ailerons, Elevators
b) Ailerons, Multifunction Spoilers

Answer 111

Ailerons, Multifunction Spoilers

Question 112

All TCAS aural advisories are inhibited when the present position altitude is below?

a) 400’ MSL during descent, or 600’ MSL during climb.
b) 600’ AGL during descent, or 400’ AGL during climb
c) 400’ MSL during descent, or 600’ MSL during climb
d) 400’ AGL during descent, or 600’ AGL during climb

Answer 112

400’ AGL during descent, or 600’ AGL during climb

Question 113

Can the DV windows be removed by the crew?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Only the FO’s side
d) Only the CAs side

Answer 113

No

Question 114

What does moving the APU start switch to OFF do?

a) Initiates normal APU shutdown
b) Starts the 1 minute cool down
c) Closes the APU bleed valve
d) All are correct

Answer 114

All are correct

Question 115

What happens when you turn the APU start knob to ON?

a) Powers the APU FADEC
b) Displays APU EICAS information following FADEC self-test
c) Opens the APU fuel shutoff valve
d) All are correct

Answer 115

All are correct

Question 116

What activates when the fight deck oxygen masks are removed from their storage unit?

a) Flow of oxygen
b) Flight deck speakers
c) Mask microphone
d) All are correct

Answer 116

All are correct

Question 117

What type of batteries are installed on the aircraft?

a) 2 Lead Acid 28V DC
b) 2 NiCad 22.8V DC, 27A
c) 2 Lead Acid 24V DC, 28A
d) 1 NiCad 24.0V DC, 27A

Answer 117

2 NiCad 22.8V DC, 27A

Question 118

When would you press the guarded GRD PROX FLAP OVRD button?

a) When flap configuration is different from normal landing flap configuration (Zero or Reduced Flap settings)
b) When receiving a Flaps aural warning
c) When landing with Flaps Full
d) When performing a Flaps 4 Take off

Answer 118

When flap configuration is different from normal landing flap configuration (Zero or Reduced Flap settings)

Question 119

Can the pilot override the automatic function of the Anti-Ice system?

a) Yes
b) No
c) No, unless the MCDU is selected to OFF
d) No, the E-175 Ice Protection is 100% automatic

Answer 119

Yes

Question 120

When does the DVDR start recording flight data?

a) After the first engine start
b) Aircraft power up
c) Both are correct
d) Both are not correct

Answer 120

After the first engine start

Question 121

If a PFD has failed and occupies the MFD and then the EICAS fails, what happens?

a) EICAS replaces the PFD
b) EICAS goes to the opposite MFD
c) Lose the EICAS
d) None are correct

Answer 121

EICAS goes to the opposite MFD

Question 122

How long after deployment before the RAT will supply power?

a) 3 seconds
b) 8 seconds
c) 30 seconds
d) Immediately

Answer 122

8 seconds

Question 123

What are some of the Emergency equipment items located within the cockpit?

a) 3 O2 masks
b) Fire extinguisher
c) 3 Life vests
d) All are correct

Answer 123

All are correct

Question 124

What battery is used for the APU ground start?

a) BATT 2 powers the starter
b) BATT 1 powers the FADEC and EICAS for monitoring
c) Both are correct
d) Both are not correct

Answer 124

Both are correct

Question 125

How is SE taxi possible on ENG 1 as nosewheel steering is on HYD 2?

a) Parking brake set after taxi, pump will continue running for 6 minutes
b) ACMP 2 will activate if engine 1 is running and the parking brake released
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 125

Both are correct

Question 126

When will the APU automatically shut down if a fire is detected?

a) On the ground (after 10 seconds)
b) In the air after 5 seconds
c) Never
d) None are correct

Answer 126

On the ground (after 10 seconds)

Question 127

How should the MCDU be set if there are icing conditions on the ground?

a) Off
b) On
c) Null
d) All

Answer 127

All

Question 128

The DC Electric Fuel pump is used to provide pressurized fuel for normal APU operations and engine starting when?

a) When AC power is not available
b) The Engine driven fuel pump fails
c) When AC power is being used
d) None of these are correct

Answer 128

When AC power is not available

Question 129

What is the purpose of the surge/vent tank?

a) Collects fuel during wing down maneuvers and returns it to the
main tanks
b) Equalizes tank pressure during refueling
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 129

Both are correct

Question 130

The anti-skid system will stop the airplane for all runway conditions in a shorter distance than is possible with either anti-skid off or brake pedal modulation.

a) True
b) False

Answer 130

True

Question 131

How many hydraulic systems does the E175 have?

a) One System
b) Two Systems
c) Three Systems
d) Four Systems

Answer 131

Three Systems

Question 132

What does FMA stand for?

a) Flight Manual Annunciator
b) Flight Mode Annunciator
c) Final Mode Altitude
d) Flight Mode Acquisition

Answer 132

Flight Mode Annunciator

Question 133

How many ECS packs are installed?

a) 1 pack
b) 2 packs (left and right)
c) 3 packs
d) 4 packs

Answer 133

2 packs (left and right)

Question 134

At FL 370 IDG 1 Fails and after running the QRH it directs me to start the APU. I would need to descend to FL300 to start it. How high can I climb while using the APU for electrical supply?

a) 30,000 feet
b) 33,000 feet
c) 41,000 feet

Answer 134

33,000 feet

Question 135

What is FLEX?

a) Thrust used on contaminated runways
b) Additional thrust that can be used if needed
c) Reduced takeoff thrust based on an assumed temperature
d) None are correct

Answer 135

Reduced takeoff thrust based on an assumed temperature

Question 136

What page appears, by default, when the FMS units are first powered?

a) Flight plan page
b) Progress page
c) Radio page
d) Nav page

Answer 136

Radio page

Question 137

Which of the following FMA color codes are correct?

a) Green - Non FMS mode
b) Magenta - FMS mode
c) White - Armed mode
d) All are correct

Answer 137

All are correct

Question 138

At what temperature would you expect to see “BATT 1 (2) OVERTEMP” on the EICAS?

a) 60 degrees C
b) Greater than 60 degrees C
c) 70 degrees C
d) Greater than 70 degrees C

Answer 138

Greater than 70 degrees C

Question 139

What are some of the items that the crew verifies on the NAV IDENT page?

a) Software version
b) Date
c) Time
d) All are correct

Answer 139

All are correct

Question 140

How do you manually extend the landing gear in event of a failure of the gear handle?

a) Landing gear override switch/Alternate landing gear handle to free fall the gear
b) Landing gear handle down and yaw the aircraft
c) Landing gear DN LCK RLS button by the gear handle
d) Manual handle pump the gear down

Answer 140

Landing gear override switch/Alternate landing gear handle to free fall the gear

Question 141

What happens to the flight control system when the RAT deploys and is the only AC power source?

a) Horizontal stab trim operates at 1⁄2 speed
b) Slat/flap system operates at 1⁄2 speed
c) Slat/flap position is limited to 3
d) All are correct

Answer 141

All are correct

Question 142

Will the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Maybe
d) None are correct

Answer 142

No

Question 143

How many Cockpit Escape Ropes are available in the E175?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) None

Answer 143

2

Question 144

If a pilot modulates the brake pedals, the anti-skid system is forced to readjust the brake pressure to establish optimum braking

a) True
b) False

Answer 144

True

Question 145

What are the basic modes of the flight director?

a) ROLL and FPA
b) ROLL and TO
c) HDG and FPA
d) ON and OFF

Answer 145

ROLL and FPA

Question 146

When is glideslope inhibit automatically reset?

a) It can’t be reset
b) Climbing above 500ft
c) Climbing above 2000ft
d) None are correct

Answer 146

Climbing above 2000ft

Question 147

At FL370, IDG One fails. I ask the PM to look up the procedure in the QRH. I know I need two AC electrical sources. What’s the highest altitude that I can start the APU?

a) 29,000 feet
b) 30,000 feet
c) 33,000 feet
d) 41,000 feet

Answer 147

30,000 feet

Question 148

Can the oxygen door dispensing units be opened manually if it fails to automatically deploy?

a) Yes, but only by your phone
b) Yes, with a manual release tool located at each FA station
c) No
d) None are correct

Answer 148

Yes, with a manual release tool located at each FA station

Question 149

When will the FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL EICAS message be presented?

a) 100 lbs of fuel remaining in the tank
b) 660 lbs of fuel remaining in the tank
c) 880 lbs of fuel remaining in the tank
d) 1060 lbs of fuel remaining in the tank

Answer 149

660 lbs of fuel remaining in the tank

Question 150

During flight, can the low-rate bottle be discharged before the 1 minute is up?

a) Yes, by pushing the extinguishing button again
b) Only below 10,000ft
c) Only above 31,000ft
d) No

Answer 150

Yes, by pushing the extinguishing button again

Question 151

Can a normal APU shutdown be cancelled?

a) Yes, by moving the start switch back to ON before the one minute cool down is over
b) Yes, anytime
c) Only by maintenance
d) No

Answer 151

Yes, by moving the start switch back to ON before the one minute cool down is over

Question 152

What will trigger an ATTCS event?

a) Windshear detected
b) Engine failure during TOGA
c) N1 difference >15% between engines
d) All are correct

Answer 152

All are correct

Question 153

How is bleed air directed for pneumatic anti-ice on the wings?

a) Only from onside engine
b) From the MCDU TRS Page
c) From onside or crosside.
d) Bleed air is only used for engine nacelle anti-ice

Answer 153

From onside or crosside.

Question 154

How many igniters per engine?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 0

Answer 154

2

Question 155

How do you change the range of the radar?

a) Through the CCD
b) By twisting the outer knob on the MCDU
c) By twisting the inner know on the MCDU.
d) All are correct.

Answer 155

Through the CCD

Question 156

What is the purpose of the inverter?

a) Convert 115V AC to 24 V DC
b) Convert 28V DC from the batteries to 115V AC to power the Standby Bus when an AC source is not available
c) Convert 24V DC to 28V DC
d) None are correct

Answer 156

Convert 28V DC from the batteries to 115V AC to power the Standby Bus when an AC source is not available

Question 157

With ALL selected on the MCDU for ENG and WING auto-ice, when will the ENG and WING Anti-Ice come on?

a) ENG - Wheel speed greater than 40 knots WING - Wheel speed greater than 60 knots
b) ENG - After engine start WING - Wheel speed greater than 60 knots
c) ENG - After engine start WING - Wheel speed greater than 40 knots
d) ENG - Wheel speed greater than 60 knots WING - Any engine running

Answer 157

ENG - After engine start WING - Wheel speed greater than 40 knots

Question 158

What is the RAT rated at?

a) 15KVA
b) 400Hz
c) 115V AC
d) All are correct

Answer 158

All are correct

Question 159

What is the oxygen duration of an oxygen chemical generator?

a) 12 minutes
b) 21 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 1 hour

Answer 159

12 minutes

Question 160

How would you “correct” an IRS failure?

a) In case of an individual failure, the opposite IRS can be selected on the reversionary panel
b) Reset the IRS circuit breaker
c) You can’t correct it
d) None are correct

Answer 160

In case of an individual failure, the opposite IRS can be selected on the reversionary panel

Question 161

What uses bleed air for ice protection?

a) Pitot Static System - Outboard slats (3)
b) Engine Cowls - Outboard slats (3)
c) Engine Cowls - Wings (2)
d) Pitot Static System - Engine Cowls

Answer 161

Engine Cowls - Outboard slats (3)

Question 162

A portable ELT is installed in the passenger cabin and located:

a) in the last left hand side overhead bin
b) in the first right hand side overhead bin
c) in the Row 8, right hand side overhead bin
d) None of these

Answer 162

in the last left hand side overhead bin

Question 163

What happens if the TEST/RESET button is pressed with the flight deck oxygen masks not stowed?

a) Oxygen flow is stopped
b) Deactivates mask microphone
c) Deactivates flight deck speakers
d) All are correct

Answer 163

All are correct

Question 164

When does the wing anti ice perform its test?

a) Reaching 10000 feet AGL or ten minutes after takeoff whichever is first.
b) Reaching 1700 feet AGL after takeoff
c) After both engines are started and weight on wheels sensor indicates aircraft on ground.
d) Immediately after takeoff with both engines funning

Answer 164

Reaching 10000 feet AGL or ten minutes after takeoff whichever is first.

Question 165

What sources are used for airplane anti-icing and de-icing?

a) Bleed air heat
b) Type I and Type Iv fluid.
c) Bleed air heat - Electric heat
d) Electric heat

Answer 165

Bleed air heat - Electric heat

Question 166

What happens when an engine fire handle is pulled?

a) Closes the engine fuel SOV
b) Closes the engine bleed SOV and crossbleed valve
c) Closes the engine hydraulic SOV
d) All are correct

Answer 166

All are correct

Question 167

What is the priority for AC power on the aircraft?

a) Respective IDG (onside), APU (inside), GPU (outside) Opposite IDG (cross side)
b) GPU then APU
c) Onside IDG, then cross side IDG (with APU available)
d) None are correct

Answer 167

Respective IDG (onside), APU (inside), GPU (outside) Opposite IDG (cross side)

Question 168

Which of the following is part of the normal engine start sequence (on the ground)?

a) 7% N2 - Ignition
b) 50% N2 - Ignition off/starter cutout
c) 20% N2 - Fuel flow
d) All are correct

Answer 168

All are correct

Question 169

Will a loss of airspeed data cause the flight controls to revert to direct mode?

a) Only on the ground
b) Only below 10,000ft
c) Yes
d) No

Answer 169

Yes

Question 170

Can engine bleed air flow back to the APU?

a) During engine starts
b) Only for anti-ice
c) No, there is a check valve
d) None are correct

Answer 170

No, there is a check valve

Question 171

What is the hydraulic pressure during normal operation of the EDP’s?

a) 2400psi
b) 2700psi
c) 3000psi
d) 3300psi

Answer 171

3000psi

Question 172

What keeps the gear locked in position?

a) Extended - Downlock springs/Retracted uplock hooks
b) Extended no lock required / Retracted gear doors
c) Extended - Over center device / Retracted hydraulic bolt
d) Only extended position is locked

Answer 172

Extended - Downlock springs / Retracted uplock hooks

Question 173

How many igniters activate for engine start?

a) Ground - 1 igniter (AUTO)
b) Air - 2 igniters (AUTO)
c) Both are correct
d) Both are incorrect

Answer 173

Both are correct

Question 174

Which of the following TO pitch angle logic is correct when airborne and IAS speed greater than target?

a) Both engines operating - V2 + 10kt
b) Single engine failure below V2 - V2
c) Single engine failure above V2 - V2 + 10kt
d) All are correct

Answer 174

All are correct

Question 175

When pressing the Annunciators Test button, all striped bars and caption indications will illuminate except:

a) GPU Pushbutton light
b) EMERG/PARK BRAKE light
c) Fire Test lights
d) All of these are correct

Answer 175

All of these are correct

Question 176

When is the Emergency Ram Air Ventilation activated?

a) Both packs commanded or failed off below FL250
b) Ram air pressure greater than cabin pressure (via the right side)
c) Both are correct
d) Both are not correct

Answer 176

Both are correct

Question 177

How many Stick Pushers are available on the E175 (i.e. motors)?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4

Answer 177

0

Question 178

Non-normal autopilot disengages when?

a) Windshear escape guidance is activated
b) Either stick shaker is activated
c) AP button pressed on the guidance panel
d) All are correct

Answer 178

All are correct

Question 179

Are both cargo compartments pressurized?

a) Only on the ground
b) Yes
c) No
d) None are correct

Answer 179

Yes

Question 180

What is the Maneuvering Airspeed (VA)

a) 240 KIAS
b) 250 KIAS
c) 270 KIAS
d) Green Dot

Answer 180

240 KIAS

Question 181

Can the igniters be turned off during flight?

a) The switch can’t be moved in flight
b) The switch can be turned off but the FADEC disregards the command
c) Yes, they can be off
d) None are correct

Answer 181

The switch can be turned off but the FADEC disregards the command

Question 182

What is the PTU?

a) Power transfer unit
b) Power timer unit
c) Pulse transfer unit
d) Power thrust unit

Answer 182

Power transfer unit

Question 183

When will the speed brakes automatically close, even if the lever shows deployed?

a) Flaps equal or greater than 2
b) Airspeed less than 180
c) TLA greater than 70 degrees
d) All are correct

Answer 183

All are correct

Question 184

When are the recirculation fans commanded off?

a) Dump button is pressed
b) Cockpit switch
c) Respective pack is commanded off
d) All are correct

Answer 184

All are correct

Question 185

What are some of the items that the crew verifies on the NAV IDENT page?

a) Date
b) Software version
c) Time
d) All are correct

Answer 185

All are correct

Question 186

What overheat protection is provided for the hydraulic system

a) 100 C causes High Temperature EICAS caution message
b) 125 C shutoff valve will automatically actuate
c) 145 C causes Hydraulic Overheat EICAS warning message
d) All are correct

Answer 186

All are correct

Question 187

How are the engine cowls heated?

a) Hot Bleed Air - 6th stage compressor section
b) Electrically from either engine IDG
c) Hot Bleed Air - 10th stage compressor section
d) Heated oil recirculating through engine.

Answer 187

Hot Bleed Air - 10th stage compressor section

Question 188

How long does it take for the IESS to align?

a) 60 seconds
b) 90 seconds
c) 2 minutes
d) 5 minutes

Answer 188

90 seconds

Question 189

How many cabin doors provide access to the aircraft cabin?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Answer 189

4

Question 190

What is the purpose of the scavenge pumps?

a) Maintains fuel level in the collector box
b) Cleans the fuel
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 190

Maintains fuel level in the collector box

Question 191

How many primary fuel tanks does the aircraft have?

a) 2 integral tanks
b) 3 tanks
c) 4 tanks
d) 6 tanks

Answer 191

2 integral tanks

Question 192

What are some of the items that the IRS computes?

a) Ground Speed
b) Heading
c) Airplane position
d) All are correct

Answer 192

All are correct

Question 193

Can a single bleed source power both ECS packs?

a) Yes, through a crossbleed valve
b) Only above FL390
c) No
d) None are correct

Answer 193

Yes, through a crossbleed valve

Question 194

When does the windshield heat perform its BIT?

a) Before any AC power is applied to the aircraft
b) When AC power is applied to the TRU(s)
c) When a single AC power is available (IDG) the corresponding windshield heat will heat for 120 sec.
d) With both engines running and the test switch is depressed.

Answer 194

When a single AC power is available (IDG) the corresponding windshield heat will heat for 120 sec.

Question 195

When can you use the TURB mode?

a) When in WX mode at selected ranges of 100NM or less.
b) When in WX mode at selected ranges of 50NM or less.
c) Only in moderate to severe turbulence.
d) Only when directed by ATC

Answer 195

When in WX mode at selected ranges of 50NM or less.

Question 196

The IDG and APU generator is electrically rated at which of the following?

a) 115V AC
b) 400 Hz
c) 40 KVA
d) All are correct

Answer 196

All are correct

Question 197

The amber IDG lights on the overhead panel will illuminate for which of the following?

a) High oil temperature
b) Low oil pressure
c) Both are correct
d) Both are not correct

Answer 197

Both are correct

Question 198

How many Taxi Lights are available on the aircraft?

a) Side Lights (1 per side in each wing root)
b) Nose Landing Gear - (1)
c) Both Nose Landing Gear and Side Lights
d) None of these are correct

Answer 198

Both Nose Landing Gear and Side Lights

Question 199

What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is not pushed after a fire has been detected?

a) After 10 seconds the APU FIRE EXTG fires
b) Nothing
c) Aural “fire, fire, fire”
d) After 1 minute the APU FlRE EXTG button illuminates

Answer 199

After 1 minute the APU FlRE EXTG button illuminates

Question 200

Fire Protection is provided for which systems?

a) Engines, APU, Cargo Only
b) Engines, Cargo, Wheel Wells
c) APU , Electronic bays, Galley
d) Engines, APU , Cargo, Lav Trash Bin

Answer 200

Engines, APU , Cargo, Lav Trash Bin

Question 201

What happens to the forward cargo compartment in the event smoke is detected?

a) FWD cargo ventilation outflow valve closes
b) FWD cargo recirculation fan shuts off
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 201

Both are correct

Question 202

What target speed will the flight director (FD) command during a go-around?

a) All engines operating - Vref + 20kt
b) Single engine - Vac
c) Both are correct
d) Both are not correct

Answer 202

Both are correct

Question 203

How many hydraulic pumps are on the aircraft?

a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

Answer 203

6

Question 204

Is one detection loop capable of detecting an overheat condition?

a) Yes, if one fails the other will work
b) Must have both
c) No
d) None are correct

Answer 204

Yes, if one fails the other will work

Question 205

Can hydraulic fluid be transferred between each system?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Only when the temperature of the reservoir is above 120C
d) Only when the hydraulic SOV is closed

Answer 205

No

Question 206

What is the maximum crosswind for landing when Vis < 4000 or 3/4SM

a) 15 Knots
b) 25 Knots
c) 30 Knots
d) 35 Knots

Answer 206

15 Knots

Question 207

What happens when the ignition switch is selected to OVRD?

a) Switches igniters
b) Activates both igniters on the ground or in flight
c) Activates only 2 igniters in flight only.
d) Activates 1 igniter on the ground or
or in flight only in flight

Answer 207

Activates both igniters on the ground or in flight

Question 208

What are some items the Takeoff Configuration System check?

a) Flaps not in takeoff position
b) Any spoiler panel deployed
c) Parking Brake Applied
d) All are checked

Answer 208

All are checked

Question 209

What mode does FLCH use to maintain speed?

a) FPA
b) SPDe
c) SPDt
d) None are correct

Answer 209

SPDe

Question 210

Which hydraulic pump cannot be deferred?

a) Pump 1
b) Pump 2
c) Pump 3A
d) Pump 3B

Answer 210

Pump 3A

Question 211

How does the Auto Flight Control System (AFCS) provide for stall protection?

a) Aural Warning 10 percent above stall speed “Stall, Stall”
b) Pushes both control columns forward via stick pushers
c) Activation of the stick shaker.
d) By limiting the Angle of Attack (AOD) via the available control column authority (i.e. prevents the available pitch that the control column is capable of requesting.

Answer 211

By limiting the Angle of Attack (AOD) via the available control column authority (i.e. prevents the available pitch that the control column is capable of requesting.

Question 212

What are the three ways that the landing gear may be extended?

a) Normal - LG lever DOWN
b) Electric override - Bypasses PSEM to control selector valve.
c) Alternate gear extension - Manual uplock release opens Free-Fall Sequencing Valve.
d) All

Answer 212

All

Question 213

Do the cockpit crew and passengers share the same emergency oxygen?

a) Only through a cross-valve
b) There is no emergency oxygen
c) Yes
d) No

Answer 213

No

Question 214

What does ATTCS stand for?

a) Automatic thrust torque channel system
b) Automatic takeoff thrust control system
c) Automatic timed thrust control system
d) Always take the coffee sir

Answer 214

Automatic takeoff thrust control system

Question 215

What is the flap/slat extension/retraction sequence?

a) The move at the same time
b) Slats extend first and retract last
c) Flaps extend first and slats last
d) None are correct

Answer 215

Slats extend first and retract last

Question 216

What stops the wheels from spinning during retraction?

a) Main Gear: BCM applies brakes after weight on wheels-Nose gear: Snubbers in the nose bay stop the wheels
b) Main Gear: BCM applies brakes after weight on wheels-Nose gear
N/A
c) Main gear and nose wheel have snubbers in the wheel well.
d) Main Gear: BCM applies brakes after weight on wheels-Nose gear BCM applies brakes after weight on wheels

Answer 216

Main Gear: BCM applies brakes after weight on wheels-Nose gear: Snubbers in the nose bay stop the wheels

Question 217

What is protected from ice and rain?

a) Engine inlets - Wing leading edge
b) Smart probes - Water and waste drains
c) Windshields
d) All

Answer 217

All

Question 218

The IDGs are monitored and controlled by which of the following?

a) Dedicated Generator Control Unit (GCU)
b) A backup battery
c) GPU
d) None are correct

Answer 218

Dedicated Generator Control Unit (GCU)

Question 219

The Flap System is ____ operated.

a) Mechanically
b) Hydraulically
c) Electrically
d) Manually

Answer 219

Electrically

Question 220

How many data bases does the FMS interface with?

a) 3 (Navigational, custom, aircraft)
b) 2 (Custom and aircraft)
c) 2 (Main and standby)
d) 1 (aircraft)

Answer 220

3 (Navigational, custom, aircraft)

Question 221

What is the maximum Turbulent airspeed at or above 10,000?

a) 270 KIAS
b) .76M
c) Either one, whichever is lower
d) Neither one

Answer 221

Either one, whichever is lower

Question 222

What airplane systems have fire detection and protection?

a) APU
b) Lavatories
c) Cargo compartments
d) All are correct

Answer 222

All are correct

Question 223

What is the maximum slat/flap setting if the RAT is deployed?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) Full

Answer 223

3

Question 224

What is the SECT function?

a) Selecting this reduces the angle of sweep from 110 degrees to 30
degrees and increases the sweep to 24 sweeps per minute.
b) Selecting this reduces the angle of sweep from 60 degrees to 30 degrees and increases the sweep to 24 sweeps per minute.
c) Selecting this allows the radar to only “see” in one quadrant at a time.
d) Selecting this allows the radar to “see” in only 30 degree sections.

Answer 224

Selecting this reduces the angle of sweep from 60 degrees to 30 degrees and increases the sweep to 24 sweeps per minute.

Question 225

What display units normally display when batteries are set to ON and AUTO?

a) Display units 2 and 3
b) Display units 1 and 4
c) Display unit 1 only
d) All are displayed

Answer 225

Display units 2 and 3

Question 226

The Flight Crew will verify cockpit oxygen quantity via _____ .

a) Gauge in the Nosewheel Well
b) Forward Cargo Compartment
c) the MFD STATUS page
d) Aft Cargo Compartment

Answer 226

the MFD STATUS page

Question 227

Windshear detection is activated between?

a) 10’ and 500’ during initial takeoff, go-around, and final approach phases
b) 10’ and 1000’ during initial takeoff, go-around, and final approach phases
c) 10’ and 1500’ during initial takeoff, go-around, and final approach phases
d) 10’ and 2500’ during initial takeoff, go-around, and final approach phases

Answer 227

10’ and 1500’ during initial takeoff, go-around, and final approach phases

Question 228

When do you get a gear disagree message?

a) Whenever the main gear and nose gear disagree
b) When the downlock is not detected
c) 10 seconds after the discrepancy is detected
d) 20 seconds after the discrepancy is detected

Answer 228

20 seconds after the discrepancy is detected

Question 229

How are root cause messages depicted on the EICAS?

a) Message is in red
b) Asterisk next to EICAS message
c) Chevron next to EICAS message
d) None are correct

Answer 229

Chevron next to EICAS message

Question 230

Do the main cabin door slides need to be disarmed inside prior to using the outside door handle to open the door in order to prevent a slide deployment?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Only the forward main cabin door
d) Only the service doors

Answer 230

No

Question 231

What are the functions of the multi-function spoilers?

a) 3 outboard spoilers used for roll control, speed brakes and ground
spoilers
b) 2 inboard spoilers used only as ground spoilers
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 231

Both are correct

Question 232

How do you know that VNAV has been selected?

a) The bottom right box of the FMA is magenta
b) The VNAV button lights up
c) The top right box of the FMA is magenta
d) The top right box of the FMA is green

Answer 232

The top right box of the FMA is magenta

Question 233

How long should the batteries last without being recharged?

a) 10 minutes
b) 20 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 1 hour

Answer 233

10 minutes

Question 234

What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is pushed after a fire has been detected?

a) APU shuts off immediately
b) APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates
c) APU fuel SOV closes
d) All are correct

Answer 234

All are correct

Question 235

Can the “Landing Gear” aural warning be silenced by pushing the LG WRN INHIB button?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Yes, but with flaps five
d) Yes, but with flaps full.

Answer 235

Yes

Question 236

In AUTO, when does the Ice Protection system function automatically?

a) After 1700 agl or 2 minutes after takeoff (regardless of MCDU setting)
b) After 1700 agl or 2 minutes after takeoff (if ANTI-ICE ON or ALL in the MCDU)
c) After 1000 agl or 2 minutes after takeoff (regardless of MCDU setting)
d) After 1000 agl or 2 minutes after takeoff (if ANTI-ICE ON or ALL in the MCDU)

Answer 236

After 1700 agl or 2 minutes after takeoff (regardless of MCDU setting)

Question 237

Once a chemical oxygen generator (cabin) is activated, can it be shut off?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Only if the mask is re-stowed
d) None are correct

Answer 237

No

Question 238

What is powered via the AC Standby Bus?

a) Engine exciters 1A and 2A
b) Cockpit lighting
c) Fire Handles
d) Glare-shield lighting

Answer 238

Engine exciters 1A and 2A

Question 239

Does the FADEC provide underspeed and overspeed protection?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Only on bottle starts
d) Only in the air

Answer 239

Yes

Question 240

What is the maximum speed for Flaps 2 (VFE2)

a) 230 KIAS
b) 215 KIAS
c) 180 KIAS
d) 160 KIAS

Answer 240

215 KIAS

Question 241

What happens when the crossfeed switch is selected to LOW 1?

a) Crossfeed valve is opened
b) ACMP 2 turns on to provide fuel from the right tank to both engines
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 241

Both are correct

Question 242

Can a high rate bottle be used for one compartment and a low rate bottle for the other compartment?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Maybe
d) Only within 1 minute

Answer 242

No

Question 243

What is the difference between normal mode and direct mode?

a) Direct mode only operates at 50%
b) There are no high level functions available in direct mode
c) There is no difference
d) There are no lower level functions available in direct mode

Answer 243

There are no high level functions available in direct mode

Question 244

Can you use the emergency brakes at high speeds?

a) Yes - Anti-Skid always is on
b) Yes - Carefully there is no anti-skid
c) No - Only one application is allowed
d) No - There is no anti-skid

Answer 244

Yes - Carefully there is no anti-skid

Question 245

What is the only way to close the engine fuel SOV?

a) Pull the associated engine fire handle
b) Push the ENG SOV button
c) Move start switch to fuel off
d) All are correct

Answer 245

Pull the associated engine fire handle

Question 246

What does the Overheat Detection System (ODS) observe?

a) APU bleed
b) Engine bleeds and packs
c) Plumbing for the wing and anti-ice system
d) All are correct

Answer 246

All are correct

Question 247

In the air, when will ACMP 1 or 2 automatically activate with both engines running?

a) Engine failure or EDP failure
b) Flaps greater than 0
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 247

Both are correct

Question 248

Can the APU be used to provide bleed air for deicing?

a) Yes, below FL330
b) Yes, only on the ground
c) Yes, above -40 degrees
d) No

Answer 248

No

Question 249

How are the engines and APU protected from fire?

a) APU has 1 halon fire bottle
b) Engines have 2 halon fire bottles
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 249

Both are correct

Question 250

The engine may be started via what means?

a) APU
b) Windmill start
c) Opposite engine cross-bleed start
d) All are correct

Answer 250

All are correct

Question 251

What do the primary control electronics (P-ACE) control?

a) The ailerons
b) The elevator only
c) The rudder only
d) The rudder and elevator surfaces

Answer 251

The rudder and elevator surfaces

Question 252

How many fire extinguishing bottles are installed for the cargo compartments?

a) 1 high rate bottle and 1 low rate bottle
b) 2 high rate bottles
c) 2 high rate and 2 low rate bottles
d) 2 low rate bottles

Answer 252

1 high rate bottle and 1 low rate bottle

Question 253

What is the minimum airspeed that the RAT is capable of providing AC power?

a) There is no minimum speed
b) 115kt
c) 120kt
d) 130kt

Answer 253

130kt

Question 254

What is the primary purpose of the PTU?

a) To allow landing gear retraction and extension in the event of an engine 2 failure or EDP 2 failure
b) To allow landing gear retraction and extension in the event of an engine 1 failure or EDP 1 failure
c) Add hydraulic pressure to system 1
d) None are correct

Answer 254

To allow landing gear retraction and extension in the event of an engine 2 failure or EDP 2 failure

Question 255

When does the N1 WING ANTI-ICE Cyan line appear?

a) Landing Gear Down only
b) Only with Flaps Extension
c) Displayed only in icing conditions during final approach (below RA 1200ft), with Landing Gear Down or Flaps Extended
d) None are correct

Answer 255

Displayed only in icing conditions during final approach (below RA 1200ft), with Landing Gear Down or Flaps Extended

Question 256

Who can perform the test for the anti-ice system?

a) Maintenance
b) First Officer
c) Flight Attendant
d) Captain

Answer 256

Maintenance

Question 257

What is the maximum headwind for a CAT II approach

a) 15 Knots
b) 25 Knots
c) 30 Knots
d) 35 Knots

Answer 257

25 Knots

Question 258

What is the purpose of the DN LOCK RLS button on the landing gear lever?

a) Mechanically releases the landing gear level lock.
b) Insures that the landing gear will retract after engine failure.
c) Opens the sequencing valve for the manual gear release
d) Mechanically releases the landing gear up lock.

Answer 258

Mechanically releases the landing gear level lock.

Question 259

What will happen if the batteries are turned off during the one minute cool down period?

a) APU will shut down after 2 minutes
b) APU will shut down immediately
c) Master caution
d) Master warning

Answer 259

APU will shut down immediately

Question 260

What is the minimum oxygen for the cockpit crew?

a) 3 crew Green for 3
b) 2 crew: Blue for 2
c) Both are correct
d) Both are not correct

Answer 260

Both are correct

Question 261

Can you have windshield heat in flight with a single source AC?

a) Yes, but one windshield heat push button must be depressed.
b) Yes, but only the left windshield is heated, unless the left heating system fails, then the right will be powered.
c) No, you would have to start the APU.
d) No. The QRH would direct you to leave icing area immediately.

Answer 261

Yes, but only the left windshield is heated, unless the left heating system fails, then the right will be powered.

Question 262

On approach to Rwy 17C in DFW, the rain is so heavy I need my wipers. What speed do I need to be below before turning them on?

a) 250 KIAS
b) 320 KIAS

Answer 262

250 KIAS

Question 263

What does the cyan line on the N1 gauge represent during an approach?

a) The minimum N1 required to maintain 140kt
b) The minimum N1 required in icing conditions
c) The minimum N1 required in hot operations
d) None are correct

Answer 263

The minimum N1 required in icing conditions

Question 264

Is takeoff permitted if the brake temperature is in the Amber range?

a) Yes - Refer to the chart in the QRH
b) Yes - After 30 minute cooling period
c) Yes - With dispatch approval
d) No - Brake temps must be in the green before takeoff

Answer 264

No - Brake temps must be in the green before takeoff

Question 265

How would you recognize an ADS failure?

a) A red cross is shown over the failed PFD
b) The affected PFD loses all air data information
c) An EICAS message alerting the crew of the failure
d) All are correct

Answer 265

All are correct

Question 266

When does the auto-throttle automatically disengage?

a) Thrust levers beyond the TOGA position
b) After touchdown
c) Reverse thrust during RTO
d) All are correct

Answer 266

All are correct

Question 267

Which of the following is part of the normal engine start sequence (on the ground)?

a) 7% N2 - Ignition
b) 20% N2 - Fuel flow
c) 50% N2 - Ignition off/starter cutout
d) All are correct

Answer 267

All are correct

Question 268

When will the Flight Director (FD) automatically turn on in flight?

a) Autopilot engagement
b) TO/GA button actuation
c) Manual selection of any vertical and lateral mode
d) All are correct

Answer 268

All are correct

Question 269

If a Category B MEL is entered into the AML on a Monday, on what day would it officially expire?

a) Thursday
b) Friday
c) Saturday
d) Following Monday

Answer 269

Thursday

Question 270

The first layer of Fight Attendant injury prevention beings with:

a) Advising the Flight Attendant of weather ahead
b) Making a turbulence PA to the cabin
c) A proper preflight briefing with the crew
d) Turning on the fasten seatbelt sign

Answer 270

A proper preflight briefing with the crew

Question 271

What is the primary method for determining takeoff performance?

a) QRH charts
b) Calculator
c) CCI
d) TPS

Answer 271

TPS

Question 272

Where is the Basic Operating Weight of the aircraft denoted?

a) On the release
b) Yellow sticker in the AML
c ) Pink sticker in the AML
d) None are correct

Answer 272

Yellow sticker in the AML

Question 273

A LAHSO clearance, regardless of the performance capability of the aircraft, may not be accepted if ATC provides it after the aircraft is on the Final Approach and has descended below how many feet AGL?

a) 100ft
b) 1000ft
c) 500ft
d) 3000ft

Answer 273

1000ft

Question 274

The acronym SEL on a dispatch release indicates:

a) Special supplemental Information installed on this aircraft
b) Special Equipment is not installed on this aircraft
c) Special Equipment installed on this aircraft
d) Special supplemental Information is not installed on this aircraft

Answer 274

Special Equipment installed on this aircraft

Question 275

When are we directed to declare an emergency in regards to fuel remaining?

a) Anytime the flight has less than 1 hour of fuel
b) Anytime the flight less than 20 minutes of fuel
c) Anytime the flight has less than 30 minutes of fuel
d) None are correct

Answer 275

Anytime the flight has less than 30 minutes of fuel

Question 276

The Envoy Flight ID is located where:

a) On the monitor in the passenger boarding area
b) Pre Departure Clearance
c) Aircraft Maintenance Log
d) The Flight Release

Answer 276

The Flight Release

Question 277

What is the maximum variance per zone between the actual passenger count and the Load Closeout passenger count?

a) 2 PAX
b) 3 PAX
c) 4 PAX
d) 5 PAX

Answer 277

2 PAX

Question 278

Which of the following does not help to keep the cabin cool during the summer season when temperatures are greater than 90 degrees F or 32 degrees C?

a) Recirc Fan ON
b) Recirc Fan off
c) Open all Gasper Vents
d) Turn off all reading and non- essential cabin lights

Answer 278

Recirc Fan ON

Question 279

The total quantity of dry ice that can be shipped on Envoy aircraft cannot exceed?

a) 45 lbs per aircraft
b) 50 lbs per aircraft
c) 70 lbs per aircraft
d) No limit

Answer 279

50 lbs per aircraft

Question 280

What is acceleration altitude?

a) The altitude to retract the gear.
b) The altitude where the pilot should normally reduce pitch, accelerate and cleanup the aircraft and specially following an engine failure on takeoff.
c) The altitude where the pilot should lower the nose and accelerate to 250kt.
d) None are correct

Answer 280

The altitude where the pilot should normally reduce pitch, accelerate and cleanup the aircraft and specially following an engine failure on takeoff.

Question 281

Who should a crewmember contact if they are too fatigued to continue performing their duties or notice that another crewmember is too fatigued to continue performing their duties?

a) Crew Scheduling
b) Their doctor
c) Dispatch
d) All are correct

Answer 281

Crew Scheduling

Question 282

Your aircraft has a Category B MEL expiring tonight at your destination, but you must divert to another airport with no maintenance and remain overnight, can you depart the next day?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Only if you depart VFR
d) None are correct

Answer 282

Yes

Question 283

Where can crewmembers find a listing of the airports that require Special Airport Qualifications?

a) FM 2
b) AOM Vol 1
c) MEL
d) FOM

Answer 283

FOM

Question 284

If a particular airport or runway configuration is not listed in the Jepps as approved for LAHSO, may it be used for LAHSO?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Only if the runway is longer than 10,000ft
d) Only at DFW

Answer 284

No

Question 285

In case of RVSM required equipment failure while in RVSM airspace, a pilot must:

a) Request to exit the RVSM airspace
b) Notify ATC
c) Declare an emergency
d) Request a hold while a checklist is run

Answer 285

Notify ATC

Question 286

When are shoulder harnesses required to be used in addition to seatbelts?

a) Landing
b) Taxi
c) Takeoff
d) All are correct

Answer 286

All are correct

Question 287

What wind speed requires taxi and takeoff operations be suspended?

a) 35kt or more
b) 40kt or more
c) 50kt or more
d) There is no limit

Answer 287

50kt or more

Question 288

Crewmembers will normally sign in how long before their scheduled departure time at the beginning of their sequence?

a) 20 min
b) 30 min
c) 45 min
d) 1 hour

Answer 288

45 min

Question 289

What is considered low visibility taxi procedures?

a) Surface visibility less than 1⁄2 mile or 2400 RVR
b) Visibility less than 1 mile
c) Visibility less than 2 miles
d) None are correct

Answer 289

Surface visibility less than 1⁄2 mile or 2400 RVR

Question 290

Exemption 17203 grants relief to:

a) Restricted (high minimums) Captains
b) New Hire First officers
c) New Hire Dispatchers
d) All of the answers are correct

Answer 290

Restricted (high minimums) Captains

Question 291

What does a “LA” indicate on the SPCL line of the Load Closeout?

a) Load amount
b) Live animal
c) Loose animal
d) Los Angeles

Answer 291

Live Animal

Question 292

What is the recommended holding speed for the E145/E175 in non-icing conditions?

a) 180kt
b) 200kt
c) 250kt
d) QRH 2 engine holding table

Answer 292

QRH 2 engine holding table

Question 293

Can a crew fly with only 1 IPAD available

a) Yes, but only to a domicile to get a loan or replacement
b) Yes, for the remainder of the trip
c) If its VFR
d) No

Answer 293

Yes, but only to a domicile to get a loan or replacement

Question 294

What does a silver dot next to a dent in the airframe signify?

a) Maintenance has inspected the area and found damage to be within limits
b) Maintenance covered a hole
c) Nothing
d) None are correct

Answer 294

Maintenance has inspected the area and found damage to be within limits

Question 295

What are the critical phases of flight that require a Sterile Cockpit?

a) The last 1000ft an any assigned altitude during climb or descent
b) Takeoff and landing
c) Holding, regardless of altitude
d) All are correct

Answer 295

All are correct

Question 296

Where does a crewmember find what the latest updates for the electronic flight bag?

a) Bulletin board in chief pilots office
b) EFB, Flight Ops Technical, Revision Status Sheet
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 296

EFB, Flight Ops Technical, Revision Status Sheet

Question 297

When is APA data required to be used for takeoff?

a) When departing airports in Mexico
b) When the runway is contaminated
c) We don’t use APA data
d) None are correct

Answer 297

When the runway is contaminated

Question 298

With a Forward Caution Zone indicated on the Load Closeout, what are the requirements for the actual passenger count in Zone A and Zone C (for E145)/Zone E (for E175)?

a) Zone A - actual number of passengers must be less than or equal to the load closeout
b) Zone C (E145)/Zone E (E175) - actual number of passengers must be greater than or equal to the load closeout
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 298

Both are correct

Question 299

If TPS is unavailable, how can the takeoff performance and speeds be determined?

a) QRH
b) VAA
c) VAQ
d) All are correct

Answer 299

All are correct

Question 300

RVSM airspace is?

a) Airspace between FL180 and FL410
b) Airspace above 18000’
c) Airspace above FL290
d) Airspace between FL290 and FL410 inclusive

Answer 300

Airspace between FL290 and FL410 inclusive

Question 301

What would a “P” denote next to the MAX TO weight on the EWBS?

a) Primary Weight
b) Power Takeoff
c) Performance weight limit (airport analysis data or VAQ data)
d) None are correct

Answer 301

Performance weight limit (airport analysis data or VAQ data)

Question 302

Based on the following, what is the validity period for this report? KMEM 1217202 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 PROB40 2022 1SM TSRA OVC008CB FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC025 PROB40 2202 3SM SHRA FM0200
35012KT OVC008 PROB40 0205 2SM -RASN BECMG 0608 02008KT NSW

a) 1800Z to 1800Z
b) 1200z to 1200Z
c) 1200Z to 1800Z

Answer 302

1800Z to 1800Z

Question 303

Who has the final authority to accept or decline any LAHSO clearance?

a) PIC
b) SIC
c) ATC
d) Dispatch

Answer 303

PIC

Question 304

When is it required by the flight crew to advise the dispatcher of any flight release amendments?

a) Reroute for weather
b) Holding over a fix
c) Shortcut given by ATC
d) All are correct

Answer 304

All are correct

Question 305

What is the maximum airspeed under Class B airspace?

a) 200kt
b) 240kt
c) 250kt
d) 300kt

Answer 305

200kt

Question 306

What is the lowest RVR (published) you can use for a CAT 1 ILS approach?

a) 1400 RVR
b) 1800 RVR
c) 2400 RVR
d) 2800 RVR

Answer 306

1800 RVR

Question 307

Can a First Officer ever use the photo pages for the purposes of certification to operate into a SAQ/SARA airport?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Only if the chief pilot allows it
d) None are correct

Answer 307

No

Question 308

What actions should the crewmember take when you have received an updated medical?

a) Do a HIL entry to update weight
b) Provide a copy to the Chief Pilots office
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 308

Both are correct

Question 309

With a drift down flight plan, what should the flight crew do if the actual ramp weight exceeds the planned ramp weight listed on the dispatch release?

a) Contact dispatch
b) Contact the chief pilot
c) Add 1000lbs of fuel
d) Remove 1000lbs of fuel

Answer 309

Contact dispatch

Question 310

If runway conditions appear worse than what was expected or planned, crews should:

a) Turn off anti-skid system
b) Put out more flaps
c) Land on the threshold to gain more rollout distance
d) Execute a go-around and re-assess the landing distance required

Answer 310

Execute a go-around and re-assess the landing distance required

Question 311

Exemption 17203 provides relief for high minimums Captains to fly a CAT II or Non-Precision approaches

a) True
b) False

Answer 311

False

Question 312

During a flight, you encounter a reroute for weather and are given a shortcut to your destination. Are you required to advise dispatch of the changes?

a) Yes, you are required to tell dispatch anytime there is a significant change from a flight’s planned route or altitude.
b) ATC will advise the company on your behalf
c) No, dispatch is tracking your flight and is aware of the changes
d) You are not required if the reroute is weather-related

Answer 312

Yes, you are required to tell dispatch anytime there is a significant change from a flight’s planned route or altitude.

Question 313

When is a destination alternate required?

a) Airshows/VIP movement with+/- 2 hours
b) Braking action reported as NIL
c) Crosswind component more than 25kt forecasted
d) All are correct

Answer 313

All are correct

Question 314

When TPS is not available what is the secondary means of obtaining takeoff data?

a) Airport Analysis
b) QRH
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 314

Both are correct

Question 315

If the current temperature is warmer than the planned temperature by more than 2 C, what must the flight crew do?

a) Obtain new TPS data
b) Wait for the temperature to cool
c) Nothing
d) None are correct

Answer 315

Obtain new TPS data

Question 316

Crew scheduling can reduce the crewmember’s show time at an outstation to what minimum time?

a) 10 min
b) 15 min
c) 20 min
d) 45 min

Answer 316

20 min

Question 317

When would a Takeoff alternate be required?

a) When the weather is below 1000ft ceiling and 3 mile visibility
b) When the weather at the departure station is below authorized CAT 1 landing minimums
c) You always need a takeoff alternate
d) Never

Answer 317

When the weather at the departure station is below authorized CAT 1 landing minimums

Question 318

Seat power systems for the passengers is an example of a SEL and is NOT required to be operational for dispatch:

a) True
b) False

Answer 318

True

Question 319

If a crew member is removed due to fatigue, how long do they have to complete the mandatory report?

a) 12 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 48 hours
d) 72 hours

Answer 319

48 hours

Question 320

If the Load Closeout indicates MANUAL next to the C-4 weight instead of SCANNED, what additional paperwork is the crew required to obtain?

a) Manual weight and balance form
b) TOLD card
c) Cargo worksheet
d) None are correct

Answer 320

Cargo worksheet

Question 321

When is the uniform jacket, or company approved leather jacket, required to be worn?

a) Optional all year
b) Only in December
c) All year
d) From the beginning of November to the end of April

Answer 321

From the beginning of November to the end of April

Question 322

What form(s) must the FAA present to the crew in order to ride in the jumpseat?

a) FAA Form 110A (ID)
b) W boarding pass
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 322

Both are correct

Question 323

When is it required to start a new AML page?

a) No more mechanical discrepancy blocks
b) No more Accepted by Captain blanks available
c) Start of each new flight day
d) All are correct

Answer 323

All are correct

Question 324

Can a crew takeoff on a contaminated runway with a tailwind?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Only if TO RSV is used
d) Only if it is less than 5 knots

Answer 324

No

Question 325

Where can the photo pages for SAO/SARA airports be found?

a) AOM Vol 1
b) FM 1
c) JeppFD-Pro App
d) None are correct

Answer 325

JeppFD-Pro App

Question 326

What is a NEF, where are they located in the MEL, and can NEF items be Flight Crew Placarded?

a) Yes, they can be flight crew placarded
b) MEL General section
c) Non-essential equipment furnishings
d) All are correct

Answer 326

All are correct

Question 327

If the plane is going to sit unattended for more than _ mins, you need to complete the secure checklist.

a) 20 min
b) 30 min
c) 60 min
d) 90 min

Answer 327

30 min

Question 328

When is a runway considered contaminated?

a) When more than 25% of the required field length within the width to be used is covered by more than 1/8th inch of standing water, slush, or wet snow, more than 3/4th inch of dry snow, compacted snow or ice.
b) When the entire runway is wet
c) When there is FOO on the runway
d) All are correct

Answer 328

When more than 25% of the required field length within the width to be used is covered by more than 1/8th inch of standing water, slush, or wet snow, more than 3/4th inch of dry snow, compacted snow or ice.

Question 329

What is the primary method a crewmember should follow if they lose an Airman or Medical certificate on duty?

a) Call Training manager for a copy
b) Request a replacement certificate from the FAA website
c) Get a copy from the chief pilot
d) None are correct

Answer 329

Request a replacement certificate from the FAA website

Question 330

Which item is NOT required for RVSM operations?

a) Altitude Alerter
b) Autopilot with Altitude hold
c) Altitude encoding transponder
d) Airspeed Indicator

Answer 330

Airspeed Indicator

Question 331

How would a Captain ensure they are qualified for a flight into an airport identified as SARA or requiring SAQ?

a) Review the SAQ chart in FOM.
b) By looking at Google maps
c) By attending ground school
d) None are correct

Answer 331

Review the SAQ chart in FOM.

Question 332

What should you do if you’re cleared to takeoff from an intersection that is not listed on your TPS?

a) Contact dispatch
b) Obtain a new TPS with the intersection to be used and check your performace required
c) Return to the gate
d) Nothing, you are authorized to takeoff if the runway is the same

Answer 332

Obtain a new TPS with the intersection to be used and check your performace required

Question 333

If you are unable to obtain an IFR clearance at airports which do not have operating ATC facilities and it is not possible to obtain an IFR clearance from the flight deck, what conditions must exist before the flight can takeoff?

a) Flight remains VFR
b) VFR conditions reported at the time of takeoff
c) Crew obtains IFR clearance as soon as practical but prior to 50NM
d) All are correct

Answer 333

All are correct

Question 334

If the Auto-NOTOC system is not available, which form must be used to notify the Captain that HAZMAT is being carried?

a) Form 8710
b) Form OK123
c) Form OK333
d) Form HAZ50

Answer 334

Form OK333

Question 335

What is the time frame limit on consumption of alcohol prior to being on duty?

a) 8 hours
b) 12 hours
c) 24 hours
d) None

Answer 335

12 hours

Question 336

The correct number of characters required for an Envoy Flight ID is:

a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8

Answer 336

7

Question 337

Can a flight be dispatched utilizing the Conditional Language Exemption, 17347, for international flights?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Only if it’s VFR
d) No

Answer 337

No

Question 338

What does the FOM define as the weight of a Cabin Crewmember? ACM?

a) 184lb; 200lb
b) 182lb; 210lb
c) 186lb; 205lb
d) 180lb; 180lb

Answer 338

182lb; 210lb

Question 339

What are the lowest possible minimums for landing as a restricted Captain?

a) 300/1 mile or 4500 RVR, unless using FAA Exemption 17203 (CAT 1 minimums with autopilot on)
b) 500/1 mile
c) 1800 RVR
d) 1600 RVR

Answer 339

300/1 mile or 4500 RVR, unless using FAA Exemption 17203 (CAT 1 minimums with autopilot on)

Question 340

If an alternate is listed on your release what is the minimum HOLD fuel time that will be listed on the dispatch release?

a) 12 min
b) 20 min
c) 30 min
d) 45 min

Answer 340

12 min

Question 341

When performing a manual weight and balance on a flight without a Flight Attendant, will they need to be subtracted from the Basic Operating Weight?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Subtract 200lbs only
d) Subtract 300lbs only

Answer 341

Yes

Question 342

Vertical separation in RVSM airspace is?

a) 500’
b) 1000’
c) 1500’
d) 2000’

Answer 342

1000’

Question 343

A Runway Condition Code (RCC) of 0 provides better braking action than an RCC of 6.

a) True
b) False

Answer 343

False

Question 344

When does a Dispatch Release expire?

a) Flight cancels
b) Lands at a point not on the original release
c) Returns to the station after taking off (air interruption)
d) All are correct

Answer 344

All are correct

Question 345

How would a crew know which items could be deferred under a flight crew placard and where could they find the procedure on how to perform a Flight Crew Placard?

a) A YES is listed in the Flight Crew Placarding column in the MEL and the procedure to Flight Crew Placarding is listed in the MEL General Section.
b) A YES is listed on the release
c) Call chief pilot
d) None are correct

Answer 345

A YES is listed in the Flight Crew Placarding column in the MEL and the procedure to Flight Crew Placarding is listed in the MEL General Section.

Question 346

When the airport advertises on the ATIS or from ATC that “Braking Actions Advisories in Effect”, the highest Runway Condition Code will be “4” but may actually be lower than that.

a) True
b) False

Answer 346

True

Question 347

When Exemption 17203 is applied, restricted captains are required to add 100 feet and 1⁄2 statue mile to CAT I ILS minimums:

a) True
b) False

Answer 347

False

Question 348

Prior to the taxi phase of flight, which chart should be displayed on each pilot’s EFB?

a) SID
b) Enroute chart
c) Airport diagram
d) None are correct

Answer 348

Airport diagram

Question 349

What is the lowest RVR (published) you can use for a CAT 2 ILS approach?

a) 600 RVR
b) 1200 RVR
c) 1400 RVR
d) 1600 RVR

Answer 349

1200 RVR

Question 350

When are headsets with boom microphones required to be used?

a) Only during taxi
b) Operations below 18,000ft, including taxi
c) Only below 10,000ft
d) None are correct

Answer 350

Operations below 18,000ft, including taxi

Question 351

GOGO WIFI is an example of a SEL and is required equipment for dispatch:

a) True
b) False

Answer 351

False

Question 352

Who is required to review the AML prior to flight?

a) First Officer
b) Captain
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 352

Both are correct

Question 353

How long before a hold should you be established at your holding speed?

a) Only slow down when you enter hold
b) 3 minutes prior to entering hold
c) 10 minutes prior to entering hold
d) None are correct

Answer 353

3 minutes prior to entering hold

Question 354

While at the gate, you pull TPS data for an intersection departure. After you begin taxiing, ATC clears you to “line up and wait full length.” Are your performance numbers valid for this takeoff?

a) Yes, full length data can be used
b) You must contact dispatch
c) You must return to the gate
d) No, you will need to ask for an intection departure that matches your TPS

Answer 354

Yes, full length data can be used

Question 355

Under normal conditions when shall a crewmember be at the aircraft and ready for flight?

a) 10 min
b) 20 min
c) 25 min
d) 45 min

Answer 355

20 min

Question 356

What is the standard weight for Valet bags? What about Checked bags? What about Heavy Checked bags?

a) 10; 20; 30
b) 20; 30; 60
c) 30; 30; 30
d) 50; 75; 100

Answer 356

20; 30; 60

Question 357

How can a crew obtain APA data?

a) Contact chief pilot
b) Contact dispatch
c) AOM VOL 1
d) QRH

Answer 357

Contact dispatch

Question 358

One piece of information transmitted by a Mode S transponder is:

a) The aircraft’s Flight ID or call sign
b) The aircraft’s ‘N’ number
c) The aircraft’s ‘Nose’ number
d) The number of passengers on board

Answer 358

The aircraft’s Flight ID or call sign

Question 359

Is a flight crew authorized to Flight Crew Placard a CDL item?

a) Yes
b) No
c) If dispatch says you can
d) If maintenance says you can

Answer 359

No

Question 360

What is a VDP?

a) Visual Display Procedure
b) Visual Descent Point
c) Vertical Down Point
d) None are correct

Answer 360

Visual Descent Point

Question 361

If the outside temperature exceeds by 1 degree, would you need to obtain a new TPS?

a) Yes
b) Only when flying MTOW
c) Only when taking off flaps 22
d) No because TPS displays current plus 2 degree runway and climb
limited weight

Answer 361

No because TPS displays current plus 2 degree runway and climb
limited weight

Question 362

Due to extreme smoke in the cockpit, the only way to see outside is to open my DV window. At what speed should I slow to for this operation?

a) 160 KIAS
b) 165 KIAS
c) 180 KIAS
d) 195 KIAS

Answer 362

160 KIAS

Question 363

What hydraulic system(s) provide brake pressure?

a) HYD 2 = Inboard Brakes
b) HYD 1 = Outboard Brakes
c) HYD 1&2 = Emergency/Parking Brake
d) All

Answer 363

All

Question 364

Dispatch will provide an amended release when any of the following occur:

a) Route changes of 100 nm or more
b) Altitude changes of 2000 ft or more
c) Changes with the planned destination airport or planned
alternate(s)
d) All are correct

Answer 364

All are correct

Question 365

Exemption 17203 does NOT provide relief for high minimums Captains to fly CAT II or Non-Precision approaches

a) True
b) False

Answer 365

True

Question 366

What is the purpose of the Ice Detector(s)?’

a) They command the ENG and WING Anti-ice valves to open
b) Indicates ICE on EICAS and a master caution
c) Indicates ICE on EICAS and a master warning
d) Trigger to turn ICE to all or on in the MCDU

Answer 366

They command the ENG and WING Anti-ice valves to open

Question 367

When would a second destination alternate be required?

a) When the weather at the destination and first alternate is forecast to be marginal
b) When using Conditional Language Exemption 17347
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 367

Both are correct

Question 368

Which of the following will not help keep the flight deck cool if the aircraft is unattended for less than 30 mins?

a) Keep the flight deck door closed.
b) Reduce the Brightness of all displays
c) Install Sun Shades
d) Open All the flight deck vents.

Answer 368

Keep the flight deck door closed.

Question 369

If the current AML page has been voided by Maintenance after the Captain has already accepted the aircraft, does the Captain need to accept the aircraft again?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Only if chief pilot says so
d) None are correct

Answer 369

No

Question 370

How often are Captains required to have completed a line check?

a) Within the preceding 12 months
b) Every 2 years
c) Every 3 years
d) Not required

Answer 370

Within the preceding 12 months

Question 371

Does a Captain have the authority to cancel a flight?

a) Anytime
b) Only after calling the chief pilot
c) Yes, but only due to weather
d) No, only SOC

Answer 371

No, only SOC

Question 372

The correct format for entry of the Envoy Flight ID is:

a) E N Y 3 9 8 9
b) ENY 3 9 8 9
c) E N Y 3989
d) ENY3989

Answer 372

ENY3989

Question 373

What should a crew do if a silver dot is not located next to a visible dent in the airframe?

a) Put a sticker on it themselves
b) Contact MX to ensure the area in question hasn’t already been noted
in the Aircraft Damage Log (ADL), prior to making an entry
c) Assume it’s been noted by MX
d) Call crew scheduling

Answer 373

Contact MX to ensure the area in question hasn’t already been noted
in the Aircraft Damage Log (ADL), prior to making an entry

Question 374

What is the definition of Release fuel?

a) Planned ramp fuel plus all the ferry fuel
b) Planned ramp fuel without any ferry fuel
c) The amount of fuel needed at takeoff
d) None are correct

Answer 374

Planned ramp fuel without any ferry fuel

Question 375

Where can crewmembers find a list of common medications that are approved for use while on duty?

a) AOM 1
b) FM 2
c) FM 1 (FOM)
d) None are correct

Answer 375

FM 1 (FOM)

Question 376

Can a flight be dispatched utilizing the Conditional Language Exemption, 17347, for international flights?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Only if it’s VFR
d) None are correct

Answer 376

No

Question 377

How is the Landing Gear normally extended and retracted?

a) Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated.
b) Inertia extension and hydraulically retracted.
c) Electrically commanded and electrically actuated.
d) Hydraulically commanded and hydraulically actuated

Answer 377

Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated.

Question 378

What is the maximum tailwind for takeoff or landing

a) 10 Knots
b) 15 Knots

Answer 378

10 Knots

Question 379

What ways can you disconnect the nosewheel steering?

a) Disconnect switch on the either yoke/Disconnect switch on GPU access panel
b) Disconnect switch on Captains yoke/Disconnect switch on GPU access panel
c) Nosewheel override with tiller handle
d) Simultaneously hold both yoke disconnect switches down for 2 seconds

Answer 379

Disconnect switch on the either yoke/Disconnect switch on GPU access panel

Question 380

Do the FADECs alternate automatically during the engine start?

a) Yes, unless a fault is noted
b) Only if the pilot switches them
c) No
d) None are correct

Answer 380

Yes, unless a fault is noted

Question 381

A table of aircraft altitudes, cabin altitudes and pressure differentials that can be used as a ballpark comparison to check for normal cabin pressurization is contained in the:

a) QRH
b) AOM-1
c) AOM-2
d) FOM

Answer 381

QRH

Question 382

When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?

a) Cabin altitude of 14,000 MSL
b) Aircraft altitude above 41 ,000 MSL
c) Cabin altitude of 10,000 MSL
d) None are correct

Answer 382

Cabin altitude of 14,000 MSL

Question 383

What is the purpose of the DC fuel pump?

a) To dump fuel
b) Used for APU or engine start if no AC fuel pump or AC power
c) Maintain positive fuel pressure to the scavenge tank
d) To keep fuel warm

Answer 383

Used for APU or engine start if no AC fuel pump or AC power

Question 384

When the Captain is not an IOE instructor and the FO has less than 100 hours in the type of aircraft being flown what conditions warrant the Captain making all Takeoffs and Landings?

a) Visibility in the latest weather is at or below 3⁄4 mile
b) Crosswind component for runway to be used is more than 15kts
c) SARA airports
d) All are correct

Answer 384

All are correct

Question 385

Can a crew takeoff on a contaminated runway doing a FLEX TO 1 (E175)/ ALT T0-1 (E145) Takeoff Thrust?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Only on ferry flights
d) Only if less than MTOW

Answer 385

No

Question 386

What are the advantages of runway intersection departures?

a) Reduces taxi time
b) Reduces delays
c) Fuel savings
d) All are correct

Answer 386

All are correct

Question 387

What conditions must exist for a flight crew to cancel an IFR flight plan?

a) VFR weather conditions exist
b) Remain radar monitored by ATC
c) Remain in direct communication with the appropriate ATC facility
d) All are correct

Answer 387

All are correct

Question 388

Automatic ice detection is enabled above ___ ft AGL or ___ minutes after takeoff, whichever occurs first.

a) 1700, 2
b) 1700, 3
c) 1500, 2
d) 1500, 3

Answer 388

1700, 2

Question 389

At FL 370 IDG 1 Fails and after running the QRH it directs me to start the APU. I would need to descend to FL300 to start it. How high can I climb while using the APU for electrical supply?

a) 30,000 feet
b) 33,000 feet
c) 41,000 feet

Answer 389

33,000 feet

Question 390

How do you turn the Engine Anti-Ice on for icing conditions on the ground for T/O?

a) On the overhead ICE panel
b) Via the MCDU on the T/O Data set menu
c) Ice detector automatically turns Engine Anti-Ice on.
d) It is automatically sensed if the overhead panel switch in pressed in.

Answer 390

Via the MCDU on the T/O Data set menu

Question 391

If Ground Support equipment is not providing adequate cooling, what should you do?

a) Coordinate with Dispatch if boarding may be delayed due to temps.
b) Attempt to notify the Station Agent
c) Send a pipeline or M31 ACARS message
d) All of these

Answer 391

All of these

Question 392

What is the recommended holding speed for the E145/E175 in icing conditions?

a) E145 - 210 kts, E175 - 200 kts
b) E145 - 200 kts, E175 - 210 kts
c) 160kts
d) 180kts

Answer 392

E145 - 200 kts, E175 - 210 kts

Question 393

What is a NEF, where are they located in the MEL, and can NEF items be Flight Crew Placarded?

a) Non-essential equipment furnishings
b) Yes, they can be flight crew placarded
c) MEL General section
d) All are correct

Answer 393

All are correct

Question 394

In order for apply Exemption 17203 which of the following restrictions apply:

a) Aircraft must be CAT II qualified
b) Autopilot must be used to CAT 1 DH
c) Both captain and first officer must be trained in CAT II operations
d) All of the answers are correct

Answer 394

All of the answers are correct

Question 395

How early may a scheduled Flight depart assuming all passengers and cargo are onboard?

a) 5 minutes
b) 20 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) Anytime

Answer 395

5 minutes

Question 396

If you are operating a Functional Check Flight will EWBS or TPS be available?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Only in IFR conditions
d) Only in VFR conditions

Answer 396

No

Question 397

When are the AIR Data Smart Probes and TAT probes heated?

a) Temperature drops below 10 degrees C
b) When either Ice Detector senses ice
c) When the ADS probes switch is out.
d) Whenever and engine is running or airborne

Answer 397

Whenever and engine is running or airborne

Question 398

What is the maximum Landing Gear Retraction airspeed (VLR)

a) 200 KIAS
b) 210 KIAS
c) 240 KIAS
d) 250 KIAS

Answer 398

250 KIAS

Question 399

How are the aircraft batteries charged?

a) An AC power source providing power to the TRU’s
b) Through each other
c) DC GPU
d) None are correct

Answer 399

An AC power source providing power to the TRU’s

Question 400

Is there a total loss of power during the 8 second RAT deployment?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Only a 50% loss
d) None are correct

Answer 400

No

Question 401

What is the purpose of the Ice Detector(s)?

a) They command the ENG and WING Anti-ice valves to open
b) Indicates ICE on EICAS and a master caution
c) Indicates ICE on EICAS and a master warning
d) Trigger to turn ICE to all or on in the MCDU

Answer 401

They command the ENG and WING Anti-ice valves to open

Question 402

What is the lowest visibility authorized for Envoy departure operations?

a) 300 RVR
b) 600 RVR
c) 1200 RVR
d) 1800 RVR

Answer 402

600 RVR

Question 403

When Exemption 17203 is applied, restricted captains are NOT required to add 100 feet and 1⁄2 statue mile to CAT I ILS minimums:

a) True
b) False

Answer 403

True

Question 404

What does “L” mean next to the MAX TO weight on the EWBS?

a) MAX landing weight plus enroute fuel burn weight limit
b) Light takeoff weight
c) MAX landing weight plus ferry fuel
d) None are correct

Answer 404

MAX landing weight plus enroute fuel burn weight limit

Question 405

Which items are you required to carry or have readily available while performing duties on the aircraft or attending training?

a) Passport
b) Medical certificate
c) Pilot certificate
d) All are correct

Answer 405

All are correct

Question 406

Where are the familiarization videos found for SAQ/SARA airports?

a) My.envoyair.com
b) Ground school
c) Both are correct
d) None are correct

Answer 406

My.envoyair.com

Question 407

Turbojet aircraft shall be dispatched on the basis of wet runway weights when the visibility at the airport of intended landing is less than?

a) 3 miles
b) 3⁄4 mile or RVR 4000
c) 1 mile or RVR 6000
d) None are correct

Answer 407

3⁄4 mile or RVR 4000

Question 408

Can you carry a passenger onboard your aircraft that is obviously under the influence of any intoxicating liquor or drugs?

a) Yes, as long as the gate agent says it’s ok
b) No, unless it’s a medical patient under proper care
c) Anytime
d) None are correct

Answer 408

No, unless it’s a medical patient under proper care

Question 409

How much rest must a crewmember receive prior to the start of any reserve period or FOP?

a) 10 hours, with a minimum of 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity
b) 8 hours
c) 12 hours
d) 14 hours

Answer 409

10 hours, with a minimum of 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity

Question 410

If the Engine Bleed Valve (EBV) electrical and/or pressure signal is lost, what position will the EBV go to?

a) Valve will remain in its last known position.
b) Fail safe open if either the electrical or pressure signal is not present.
c) Fail safe open if pressure signal is present.
d) Fail safe closed for fire protection.

Answer 410

Fail safe open if either the electrical or pressure signal is not present.

Question 411

When CARGO SMOKE FWD or AFT illuminates and the Flight Crew follows QRH procedure, pressing the illuminated push button, how long will the reduced flow rate extinguishing agent remain in the cargo compartment?

a) 45 minutes with a 30 minute diversion time allowed
b) 60 minutes with a 45 minute diversion time allowed
c) 90 minutes
d) 75 minutes with a 60 minute diversion time allowed

Answer 411

75 minutes with a 60 minute diversion time allowed

Question 412

What is the height of the E175?

a) 33 feet
b) 35 feet

Answer 412

33 feet

Question 413

I can carry 64 coach passengers in the E175 and 54 in the E170.

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

Answer 413

FALSE

Question 414

What is the minimum altitude for takeoff and landing

a) -1,000 feet
b) 0 feet
c) 10,000 feet
d) 9,600 feet

Answer 414

-1,000 feet

Question 415

If you have departed the gate and a flight crew placard requires the cockpit door to be opened what action must be taken?

a) None are correct
b) Both are correct
c) Return to the gate and normal procedures shall be followed
d) Takeoff and write it up at the destination

Answer 415

c) Return to the gate and normal procedures shall be followed

Question 416

What is the correct way to void an entry in the AML?

a) Sign name and employee number
b) Draw a single line through each line of entry
c) Print the word VOID or ENTERED IN ERROR across the entire entry
d) All are correct

Answer 416

d) All are correct

Question 417

Who is primarily responsible for the safety of passengers and crew?

a) Gate Agent(s)
b) Dispatch
c) The Captain
d) The Flight Attendant(s)

Answer 417

c) The Captain

Question 418

If I took off from Aspen with APU ECS. Enroute to Chicago I notice my APU still running climbing through 13,500’ MSL. How high can I climb using the APU for bleed air?

a) 30,000 feet
b) 31,000 feet
c) 15,000 feet
d) 21,000 feet

Answer 418

c) 15,000 feet

Question 419

Where is the external ground source panel located?

a) Lower fairing between the wings
b) Tail section
c) Right wing outboard of the engine
d) None are correct

Answer 419

a) lower fairing between the wings

Question 420

If actual ramp weight exceeds your planned ramp weight on the dispatch release by 2,000lbs or more what shall the Captain do?

a) Contact chief pilot
b) Nothing
c) Contact dispatch and consider obtaining a new fuel plan
d) None are correct

Answer 420

c) Contact dispatch and consider obtaining a new fuel plan

Question 421

What is the maximum oil pressure?

a) 155 psi
b) 163 psi
c) 95 psi

Answer 421

c) 95 psi

Question 422

What is the maximum tire limit ground speed?

a) 180 Knots
b) 210 Knots
c) 195 Knots

Answer 422

c) 195 Knots

Question 423

I would need to make an AML entry if during an engine start the ITT exceeded what temperature?

a) 965 degrees C
b) 970 degrees C
c) 1006 degrees C
d) 815 degrees C

Answer 423

d) 815 degrees C

Question 424

What are the landing currency requirements?

a) 3 takeoffs and landing every year
b) 3 takeoffs and landings within 90 days on the type aircraft they are to serve
c) b) 3 takeoffs and landings within 180 days on the type aircraft they are to serve
d) 3 takeoffs and landings every 6 months

Answer 424

b) 3 takeoffs and landings within 90 days on the type aircraft they are to serve

Question 425

What are the basic modes of the flight director?

a) HDG and FPA
b) ON and OFF
c) ROL and FPA
d) ROL and TO

Answer 425

c) ROL and FPA

Question 426

When the Crew initiates a Go-Around, the SPEED selector is in MAN. When is the earliest the Crew can select SPEED to FMS?

a) Gear UP
b) 1000’ AGL
b) Flaps 0
c) 400’ AGL

Answer 426

a) Gear UP