Kv Questions Flashcards by Zach Fergot

What must not occur when more than
displays 2 and 3 are available? (SOPM Chap 4
Section 1)

The airplane must not be dispatched in this
case.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If AC power is lost what is the procedure for
reestablishing AC power? (SOPM Chap 4
Section 1)

When the source of AC power is lost, power
down the plane utilizing the Leaving the
Airplane Checklist then perform power up
utilizing the Safety and Power Up Checklist.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Prior to beginning the external inspection
what must be ON to have a valid check on
the Brake Wear Indicators? (SOPM Chap 4
Section 1)

Ensure the parking brake is on prior to the
walk around.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Inspection of the ADSPs show ice and snow
contamination, what is the procedure?
(SOPM Chap 4 Section 1)

During the originating checklist flow, turn on
the ADS heat.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Spurious AFCS and ADS EICAS messages may
be an indication of what in regard to the
ADSPs? (SOPM Chap 4 Section 1)

When the aircraft is exposed to freezing
conditions, undesired indications may occur
during power up.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The PREFLIGHT section of the SOPM uses the
phrase “CLEAR OF ICE” repeatedly for each
section of the airplane, what is SkyWest’s
philosophy regarding ICE and contamination?
(GDPM Chap 2 Clean Aircraft Concept)

The Clean Aircraft Concept is where we must
not takeoff when frost, ice, or snow is
adhering to the wings, control surfaces,
engine inlets, and other critical surfaces.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is a Cold Weather Preflight Inspection?
(GDPM Chap 2 cold wx preflight inspection)
(SOPM Chap 4 Section 1)

The cold weather preflight inspection is
conducted to inspect the critical surfaces for
frozen contaminants. We do this by using the
best vantage point (inside cabin over wings,
jet bridge) and we determine contamination if
we cannot distinguish normally detected
surface features. The leading edge and upper
wing and tail surfaces must be free of ice and
snow.
If we determine there is contamination of
critical portions of the aircraft, we will require
deicing.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When does a Cold Weather Preflight
Inspection need to be performed? (SOPM
Chap 4 Section 1)

FAR-IC-O (Far-Icy-Oh)
Fuel tank temps 0 degrees C or less
Atmospheric conditions conducive
RON with icing conditions
Inbound residual ice
Cold soak ice in fuel tank area
OAT 5 degrees C or less

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If it’s 5 degrees or colder, the preflight
inspection must take place within what
timeframe? (SOPM Chap 4 Section 1)

It must take place within 30 minutes of
pushback.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Use the pictorial walk around – Describe the
preflight action for the Nose Landing Gear.
(SOPM Chap 4 Section 1) (EFB – ERJ Training
– External Inspection)

Nose gear is chocked, wheels and tires are
inflated and not damaged and clear of ice,
uplock hook is unlocked, downlock springs are
secured and good condition, no damage on
the doors, strut no leaks, ground locking pin
removed, landing and taxi lights clean and
undamaged.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What unique piece of electrical emergency
equipment resides in the right forward
fuselage? Describe the SOPM external
preflight of the RAT. (SOPM Chap 4 Section 1)
(EFB – ERJ Training – External Inspection)

The Ram Air Turbine is located on the right
forward fuselage. We want to ensure the red
safety lock pin is not below the RAT door.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What does the Oxygen Discharge Indicator
look like in its normal condition? (SOPM
Chap 4 Section 1)

We are looking for a small green disc.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the proper preflight action of the
Engine Inlet according to the SOPM? (SOPM
Chap 4 Section 1) (EFB – ERJ Training –
External Inspection)

We are looking for no FOD, the T12 sensor is
not damaged, and the FADEC Cooling Inlet is
clear. We also are looking for ice
contamination.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the proper preflight action of the Fan
Blades according to the SOPM? (SOPM Chap
4 Section 1) (EFB – ERJ Training – External
Inspection)

Checking for damaged fan blades and they
are free to rotate, and check damage on the
spinner.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Are there Nacelle Strakes on both sides of
the engine? (SOPM Chap 4 Section 1) (EFB –
ERJ Training – External Inspection)

Yes, there are two Nacelle Strakes per engine,
one on each side.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Describe the Main Landing Gear inspection.
(SOPM Chap 4 Section 1) (EFB – ERJ Training
– External Inspection)

Mostly same as nose gear inspection,
checking clear of any ice, wheels and tires in
good condition, ground locking pin removed,
brakes wear indicators checked, strut/wheel
wells checked, uplock hook unlocked.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What document would you refer to regarding
missing static discharge wicks? Where is it
located? (AFM Appendices, Appendix 1)

We would look in the Configuration Deviation
List, located in the AFM in the back.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the MINTO for your flight, what is
included in MINTO? (Dispatch RLS
Explanation Guide)

MINTO is our minimum takeoff fuel, located
in the highlighted strip with our tail number
and airports for the flight. MINTO includes
enroute fuel burn, go-around/most distance
alternate, reserve fuel, and holding.
BARH
Burn enroute
Alternate
Reserve
Holding

When an alternate is listed on the Release,
does the Alternate fuel value include go-
around fuel? (Dispatch RLS Explanation
Guide)

With an alternate listed, the value is the
alternate fuel burn plus the GA fuel amount,
which is 700 lbs for the E175.

Engine Failure Procedures (EFP) are denoted
by Abbreviations such as DT, LT, RT, and
Special. What is the difference between a
Standard and Special EFP? (Performance
Handbook Section 2)

A Standard EFP departure is where we will
climb straight ahead from the runway until
1,000’ AFE, then we will continue to the
heading listed or direct to the NAVAID and
enter a standard entry hold. In VMC at 1,000’
AFE we can also return to land visually.
A Simple Special EFP departure is provided
when we need to make a turn prior to 1,000’
AFE to a heading/NAVAID. Review the table in
the Performance Handbook for explanation of
each part.
A Complex Special EFP departure is when the
Simple Special departure is not sufficient
enough to avoid terrain. They are found
under Company Charts in the FD Pro app.

If following a Special EFP and Radar Vectors
are not available, at what altitude can the
crew proceed on course? (Performance
Handbook Section 2)

We have to comply until 3,000’ AFE if we do
not have radar vectors.

Takeoff in IMC (ceiling <1000’ and <3SM) and
ATC provides a radar vector, no turns shall be
commenced below what altitude?
(Performance Handbook Section 2)

We cannot make a turn in IMC under vectors
until 1,000’ AFE.

Can a Pilot Turn the airplane with the above
conditions if an Instrument or Special
Departure Procedure requires it?
(Performance Handbook Section 2)

Yes, a pilot can make a turn prior to 1,000’ if
the instrument procedure or Special
departure procedure requires it.

The RWY is reported as WET, what does this
mean? (Performance Handbook Section 2)

A WET runway is defined as a runway with
>25% of the runway surface area, within the
length and width being used, covered by any
visible dampness 1/8 inch or less.

The RWY report has been updated to “contaminated”, what does this mean? (Performance Handbook Section 2)

A Contaminated runway is defined as a runway with >25% of the runway surface area, within the length and width being used, covered by >1/8 inch of standing water or equivalent in slush, wet snow, dry snow, or any depth of ice/compacted snow.

What does TALPA stand for? (FOM Chapter 7)

TALPA stands for Takeoff And Landing Performance Assessment

TALPA uses RCAM (RCCs) to access runway conditions, describe the difference in runway condition between an RCC of 6 and RCC of 1. (FOM Chapter 7)

An RCC of 6 means the runway is dry and the aircraft is achieving maximum control and braking performance. An RCC of 1 means the runway is covered in ice and braking action is poor with significantly reduced deceleration OR directional control.

Where can the RCAM/Braking action table be found? (EFB WX Tile) (FOM Chap 7)

It can be found in the Flight Ops Manual, Chapter 7, Runway Assessments.

What is the maximum crosswind component for a takeoff with a WET runway?

Takeoff with a WET runway is 31 kt limitation. *Review different values as well*

What does the bold (T) symbol communicate? (MEL User Guide)

A bold (D) is a flag to Dispatch, Maintenance, and the flight crew that restrictions apply to the performance and operation. A bold (L) is saying there is a Log Entry required for the MEL in the eAML. A bold (T) is saying the MEL procedure must be Tracked through performing the procedure as often as required in the MEL, not requiring a logbook entry unless a bold (L) is accompanied as well.

What impact does the above MEL have on flight planning?

Read the Remarks section and it says exactly what we need to do to comply.

How does the pilot know that this added fuel burn from the MEL has been added to the Flight Release? (Performance Handbook)

For any MEL/CDL penalties, the penalty is entered into the system and noted in the remarks section of the release. If it is a Takeoff remark, that is located right under the Takeoff Data section of the release. If it is an Enroute remark, that is located directly above the MEL/CDL section on the releas

Why is the HYD fluid temperature checked during the originating flow? (SOPM Chap 4 Section 1)

The hydraulic fluid temperature needs to be at least -18C to start the engines.

During an ECS ON takeoff the APU will be ON or OFF? (SOPM Chap 4 Section 4)

ECS ON – APU OFF ECS OFF – APU ON

During an ECS ON takeoff the APU will be ON or OFF? (SOPM Chap 4 Section 4)

ECS ON – APU OFF ECS OFF – APU ON

If ACARS takeoff performance dictates ECS ON takeoff and the crew fails to shut down the APU, the EICAS will generate an ENG REF ECS DISAGREE message, if this happens, what will you do?

We will run the TEAM model, have the pilots reference the QRH, re-enter takeoff data or reconfigure the aircraft properly for takeoff.

With an OAT of 4 degrees C and light rain, how will the Takeoff Data Pages be configured for Anti-Ice? (SOPM Chap 2 Section 4)

At 4 degrees C, the Takeoff Dataset must be on ALL (both ENG and WING anti-ice).

While programming the FMS a BATT 1 OVERTEMP message populates on the EICAS with an associated triple chime and Master Warning light, what do you do? (QRC Memory Item)

QRC Memory Item: Associated Battery – OFF

What are the starter crank limits on the ground? (SOPM Chap 2 Section 4)

Start Attempts 1 and 2: 90 seconds on, 10 seconds off between. Start Attempts 3-5: 90 seconds on, 5 minutes off between.

During engine start that is no light off with fuel flowing to the engine, what do you do? (QRC Memory Item) (SOPM Chap 4 Section 3)

QRC Memory Item: Affected Engine: Start/Stop Selector – STOP If we have no light off (no ITT increase) within 30 seconds of Fuel Flow being introduced (occurs at ITT <120 and N2 20%) we will perform the abnormal engine start QRC.

With the above Abnormal Start condition, would Dry Motoring be considered?

Yes, we would want to dry motor the engine in this case since we have a fuel soaked engine with no light off of the fuel.

What are the Dry Motoring Cycle Limits on the ground? (SOPM Chap 2 Section 4)

Dry Motor 1: 90 seconds on, 5 minutes off between. Dry Motor 2-5: 30 seconds on, 5 minutes off between. After 5 cycles, process may be repeated after a 15-minute cool down period.

What other conditions require aborting a start? (SOPM Chap 4 Section 3)

1. No positive oil pressure increase within 10 seconds of N2 rotation 2. Tail wind starts with N1 not increasing prior to 50% N2 3. N1 and/or N2 failing to accelerate to stable idle speeds (hung start) 4. ITT trending to exceed starter limit (hot start) 5. No ITT increase within 30 seconds of fuel flow (no light off) 6. Intermittent electrical, pneumatic, or starter malfunction before starter disengagement

After second engine start what is the N1 target value tolerance? (SOPM Chap 4 Section 3)

After second engine start, the target value is -0.1 to +0.5 from the planned N1 value.