Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Skywest Kv > Kv Questions > Flashcards

Kv Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What must not occur when more than
displays 2 and 3 are available? (SOPM Chap 4
Section 1)

A

The airplane must not be dispatched in this
case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If AC power is lost what is the procedure for
reestablishing AC power? (SOPM Chap 4
Section 1)

A

When the source of AC power is lost, power
down the plane utilizing the Leaving the
Airplane Checklist then perform power up
utilizing the Safety and Power Up Checklist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Prior to beginning the external inspection
what must be ON to have a valid check on
the Brake Wear Indicators? (SOPM Chap 4
Section 1)

A

Ensure the parking brake is on prior to the
walk around.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Inspection of the ADSPs show ice and snow
contamination, what is the procedure?
(SOPM Chap 4 Section 1)

A

During the originating checklist flow, turn on
the ADS heat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Spurious AFCS and ADS EICAS messages may
be an indication of what in regard to the
ADSPs? (SOPM Chap 4 Section 1)

A

When the aircraft is exposed to freezing
conditions, undesired indications may occur
during power up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The PREFLIGHT section of the SOPM uses the
phrase “CLEAR OF ICE” repeatedly for each
section of the airplane, what is SkyWest’s
philosophy regarding ICE and contamination?
(GDPM Chap 2 Clean Aircraft Concept)

A

The Clean Aircraft Concept is where we must
not takeoff when frost, ice, or snow is
adhering to the wings, control surfaces,
engine inlets, and other critical surfaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a Cold Weather Preflight Inspection?
(GDPM Chap 2 cold wx preflight inspection)
(SOPM Chap 4 Section 1)

A

The cold weather preflight inspection is
conducted to inspect the critical surfaces for
frozen contaminants. We do this by using the
best vantage point (inside cabin over wings,
jet bridge) and we determine contamination if
we cannot distinguish normally detected
surface features. The leading edge and upper
wing and tail surfaces must be free of ice and
snow.
If we determine there is contamination of
critical portions of the aircraft, we will require
deicing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When does a Cold Weather Preflight
Inspection need to be performed? (SOPM
Chap 4 Section 1)

A

FAR-IC-O (Far-Icy-Oh)
Fuel tank temps 0 degrees C or less
Atmospheric conditions conducive
RON with icing conditions
Inbound residual ice
Cold soak ice in fuel tank area
OAT 5 degrees C or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If it’s 5 degrees or colder, the preflight
inspection must take place within what
timeframe? (SOPM Chap 4 Section 1)

A

It must take place within 30 minutes of
pushback.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Use the pictorial walk around – Describe the
preflight action for the Nose Landing Gear.
(SOPM Chap 4 Section 1) (EFB – ERJ Training
– External Inspection)

A

Nose gear is chocked, wheels and tires are
inflated and not damaged and clear of ice,
uplock hook is unlocked, downlock springs are
secured and good condition, no damage on
the doors, strut no leaks, ground locking pin
removed, landing and taxi lights clean and
undamaged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What unique piece of electrical emergency
equipment resides in the right forward
fuselage? Describe the SOPM external
preflight of the RAT. (SOPM Chap 4 Section 1)
(EFB – ERJ Training – External Inspection)

A

The Ram Air Turbine is located on the right
forward fuselage. We want to ensure the red
safety lock pin is not below the RAT door.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the Oxygen Discharge Indicator
look like in its normal condition? (SOPM
Chap 4 Section 1)

A

We are looking for a small green disc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the
Engine Inlet according to the SOPM? (SOPM
Chap 4 Section 1) (EFB – ERJ Training –
External Inspection)

A

We are looking for no FOD, the T12 sensor is
not damaged, and the FADEC Cooling Inlet is
clear. We also are looking for ice
contamination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Fan
Blades according to the SOPM? (SOPM Chap
4 Section 1) (EFB – ERJ Training – External
Inspection)

A

Checking for damaged fan blades and they
are free to rotate, and check damage on the
spinner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Are there Nacelle Strakes on both sides of
the engine? (SOPM Chap 4 Section 1) (EFB –
ERJ Training – External Inspection)

A

Yes, there are two Nacelle Strakes per engine,
one on each side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the Main Landing Gear inspection.
(SOPM Chap 4 Section 1) (EFB – ERJ Training
– External Inspection)

A

Mostly same as nose gear inspection,
checking clear of any ice, wheels and tires in
good condition, ground locking pin removed,
brakes wear indicators checked, strut/wheel
wells checked, uplock hook unlocked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What document would you refer to regarding
missing static discharge wicks? Where is it
located? (AFM Appendices, Appendix 1)

A

We would look in the Configuration Deviation
List, located in the AFM in the back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the MINTO for your flight, what is
included in MINTO? (Dispatch RLS
Explanation Guide)

A

MINTO is our minimum takeoff fuel, located
in the highlighted strip with our tail number
and airports for the flight. MINTO includes
enroute fuel burn, go-around/most distance
alternate, reserve fuel, and holding.
BARH
Burn enroute
Alternate
Reserve
Holding

19
Q

When an alternate is listed on the Release,
does the Alternate fuel value include go-
around fuel? (Dispatch RLS Explanation
Guide)

A

With an alternate listed, the value is the
alternate fuel burn plus the GA fuel amount,
which is 700 lbs for the E175.

20
Q

Engine Failure Procedures (EFP) are denoted
by Abbreviations such as DT, LT, RT, and
Special. What is the difference between a
Standard and Special EFP? (Performance
Handbook Section 2)

A

A Standard EFP departure is where we will
climb straight ahead from the runway until
1,000’ AFE, then we will continue to the
heading listed or direct to the NAVAID and
enter a standard entry hold. In VMC at 1,000’
AFE we can also return to land visually.
A Simple Special EFP departure is provided
when we need to make a turn prior to 1,000’
AFE to a heading/NAVAID. Review the table in
the Performance Handbook for explanation of
each part.
A Complex Special EFP departure is when the
Simple Special departure is not sufficient
enough to avoid terrain. They are found
under Company Charts in the FD Pro app.

21
Q

If following a Special EFP and Radar Vectors
are not available, at what altitude can the
crew proceed on course? (Performance
Handbook Section 2)

A

We have to comply until 3,000’ AFE if we do
not have radar vectors.

22
Q

Takeoff in IMC (ceiling <1000’ and <3SM) and
ATC provides a radar vector, no turns shall be
commenced below what altitude?
(Performance Handbook Section 2)

A

We cannot make a turn in IMC under vectors
until 1,000’ AFE.

23
Q

Can a Pilot Turn the airplane with the above
conditions if an Instrument or Special
Departure Procedure requires it?
(Performance Handbook Section 2)

A

Yes, a pilot can make a turn prior to 1,000’ if
the instrument procedure or Special
departure procedure requires it.

24
Q

The RWY is reported as WET, what does this
mean? (Performance Handbook Section 2)

A

A WET runway is defined as a runway with
>25% of the runway surface area, within the
length and width being used, covered by any
visible dampness 1/8 inch or less.

25
Q

The RWY report has been updated to
“contaminated”, what does this mean?
(Performance Handbook Section 2)

A

A Contaminated runway is defined as a
runway with >25% of the runway surface
area, within the length and width being used,
covered by >1/8 inch of standing water or
equivalent in slush, wet snow, dry snow, or
any depth of ice/compacted snow.

26
Q

What does TALPA stand for? (FOM Chapter 7)

A

TALPA stands for Takeoff And Landing
Performance Assessment

27
Q

TALPA uses RCAM (RCCs) to access runway
conditions, describe the difference in runway
condition between an RCC of 6 and RCC of 1.
(FOM Chapter 7)

A

An RCC of 6 means the runway is dry and the
aircraft is achieving maximum control and
braking performance.
An RCC of 1 means the runway is covered in
ice and braking action is poor with
significantly reduced deceleration OR
directional control.

28
Q

Where can the RCAM/Braking action table be
found? (EFB WX Tile) (FOM Chap 7)

A

It can be found in the Flight Ops Manual,
Chapter 7, Runway Assessments.

29
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component
for a takeoff with a WET runway?

A

Takeoff with a WET runway is 31 kt limitation.
Review different values as well

30
Q

What does the bold (T) symbol
communicate? (MEL User Guide)

A

A bold (D) is a flag to Dispatch, Maintenance,
and the flight crew that restrictions apply to
the performance and operation.
A bold (L) is saying there is a Log Entry
required for the MEL in the eAML.
A bold (T) is saying the MEL procedure must
be Tracked through performing the procedure
as often as required in the MEL, not requiring
a logbook entry unless a bold (L) is
accompanied as well.

31
Q

What impact does the above MEL have on
flight planning?

A

Read the Remarks section and it says exactly
what we need to do to comply.

32
Q

How does the pilot know that this added fuel
burn from the MEL has been added to the
Flight Release? (Performance Handbook)

A

For any MEL/CDL penalties, the penalty is
entered into the system and noted in the
remarks section of the release.
If it is a Takeoff remark, that is located right
under the Takeoff Data section of the release.
If it is an Enroute remark, that is located
directly above the MEL/CDL section on the
releas

33
Q

Why is the HYD fluid temperature checked
during the originating flow? (SOPM Chap 4
Section 1)

A

The hydraulic fluid temperature needs to be
at least -18C to start the engines.

34
Q

During an ECS ON takeoff the APU will be ON
or OFF? (SOPM Chap 4 Section 4)

A

ECS ON – APU OFF
ECS OFF – APU ON

35
Q

During an ECS ON takeoff the APU will be ON
or OFF? (SOPM Chap 4 Section 4)

A

ECS ON – APU OFF
ECS OFF – APU ON

36
Q

If ACARS takeoff performance dictates ECS
ON takeoff and the crew fails to shut down
the APU, the EICAS will generate an ENG REF
ECS DISAGREE message, if this happens, what
will you do?

A

We will run the TEAM model, have the pilots
reference the QRH, re-enter takeoff data or
reconfigure the aircraft properly for takeoff.

37
Q

With an OAT of 4 degrees C and light rain,
how will the Takeoff Data Pages be
configured for Anti-Ice? (SOPM Chap 2
Section 4)

A

At 4 degrees C, the Takeoff Dataset must be
on ALL (both ENG and WING anti-ice).

38
Q

While programming the FMS a BATT 1
OVERTEMP message populates on the EICAS
with an associated triple chime and Master
Warning light, what do you do? (QRC
Memory Item)

A

QRC Memory Item:
Associated Battery – OFF

39
Q

What are the starter crank limits on the
ground? (SOPM Chap 2 Section 4)

A

Start Attempts 1 and 2:
90 seconds on, 10 seconds off between.
Start Attempts 3-5:
90 seconds on, 5 minutes off between.

40
Q

During engine start that is no light off with
fuel flowing to the engine, what do you do?
(QRC Memory Item) (SOPM Chap 4 Section 3)

A

QRC Memory Item:
Affected Engine: Start/Stop Selector – STOP
If we have no light off (no ITT increase) within
30 seconds of Fuel Flow being introduced
(occurs at ITT <120 and N2 20%) we will
perform the abnormal engine start QRC.

41
Q

With the above Abnormal Start condition,
would Dry Motoring be considered?

A

Yes, we would want to dry motor the engine
in this case since we have a fuel soaked
engine with no light off of the fuel.

42
Q

What are the Dry Motoring Cycle Limits on
the ground? (SOPM Chap 2 Section 4)

A

Dry Motor 1:
90 seconds on, 5 minutes off between.
Dry Motor 2-5:
30 seconds on, 5 minutes off between.
After 5 cycles, process may be repeated after
a 15-minute cool down period.

43
Q

What other conditions require aborting a
start? (SOPM Chap 4 Section 3)

A
  1. No positive oil pressure increase within
    10 seconds of N2 rotation
  2. Tail wind starts with N1 not increasing
    prior to 50% N2
  3. N1 and/or N2 failing to accelerate to
    stable idle speeds (hung start)
  4. ITT trending to exceed starter limit (hot
    start)
  5. No ITT increase within 30 seconds of fuel
    flow (no light off)
  6. Intermittent electrical, pneumatic, or
    starter malfunction before starter
    disengagement
44
Q

After second engine start what is the N1
target value tolerance? (SOPM Chap 4
Section 3)

A

After second engine start, the target value is
-0.1 to +0.5 from the planned N1 value.

Skywest Kv (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions