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SkyWest 2024 CQ > KV Questions > Flashcards

KV Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Batt 1 is ON and Batt 2 is AUTO

What must not occur when more than displays 2 and 3 are available?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 1 (Safety & Power Up)

A

When more than displays 2 and 3 are available, the airplane must not be dispatched.

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2
Q

After successful fire test, the pilot establishes an AC power source

If AC power is lost, what is the procedure for reestablishing AC power?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 1 (Establishing Electrical Power)

A

When the source of AC power is lost, power down the airplane utilizing the Leaving the Airplane Checklist then perform power up utilizing the Safety and Power Up Checklist

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3
Q

Prior to beginning the external inspection what must be ON to have a valid check on the Brake Wear Indicators?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 1 (External Inspection)

A

Determine there is sufficient hydraulic pressure to activate the Emergency/Parking Brake to check the Brake Wear Indicators.

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4
Q

Inspection of the the ADSPs show ice and snow contamination, what is the procedure?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 1 (FO Originating Checklist)

A

Turn on probe heaters when the OAT is at or below freezing and water, ice, or snow is present or suspected.

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5
Q

Spurious AFCS and ADS EICAS messages may be an indication of what in regard to the ADSPs

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 1 (Air Data Smart Probe Heater)

A

It could mean that the smart probes are contaminated with ice or snow.

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6
Q

The PREFLIGHT section of the SOPM uses the phrase “CLEAR OF ICE” repeatedly for each section of the airplane, what is SkyWest’s philosophy regarding ICE and contamination?

(Not 100% about this)

GDPM Chapter 2 (Clean Aircraft Concept)

A

This means an aircraft must not takeoff when frost, ice, or snow is adhereing to the wings, control surfaces, engine inlets, and other critical surfaces of the aircraft.

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7
Q

What is a Cold Weather Preflight Inspection?

GDPM Chapter 2 (Cold Weather Preflight Inspection)
SOPM Chapter 4 Section 1 (Cold WX Operations)

A

An external walk-around by the flight deck crew used to detect the presence of frost, ice, or snow on critical surfaces from which the requirement for deicing/anti-icing is determined. This inspection consists of a tactile and/or visual check.

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8
Q

When does a Cold Weather Preflight Inspection need to be performed?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 1 (Cold WX Operations)

A
  • The OAT is 5C or less
  • The wing fuel temp is 0C or less
  • Atmospheric conditions conducive to icing exist
  • The a/c has remained overnight and may have frozen contaminants due to exposure to frost or precipitation, which could involve the entier airframe
  • On any through flight where residual ice from the inbound flight may have accumulated on airframe surfaces or components
  • Cold soak ice is suspected in the fuel tank area
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9
Q

If it’s 5 degrees or colder, the preflight inspection must take place within what timeframe?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 1 (Cold WX Operations)

A

Anytime the termperature is 5C or colder, the preflight inspection must take place within 30 minutes of pushback.

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10
Q

Using the pictorial walk around - Describe the preflight action for the Nose Landing Gear

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 1 (External Inspection)

A
  • Wheel Chocks - IN
  • Wheels and Tires - CONDITION
    (Clear of ice)
  • Up Lock Hook - UNLOCKED
  • Downlock Springs - CONDITION
  • Strut/Wheel Well/Doors - CONDITION and NO LEAKS
  • Ground Locking Pin - REMOVED
  • Landing and Taxi Lights - CONDITION
    (Clean and undamaged)
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11
Q

What unique piece of electrical emergenecy equipment resides in the right forward fuselage? Descripe the SOPM extrernal preflight of the RAT.

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 1 (External Inspection)

A

The RAT

RAT Safety Lock Pin - REMOVED

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12
Q

What does the Oxygen Discharge Indicator look like in its normal condition?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 1 (External Inspection)

A

It should be green

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13
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Engine Inlet according to the SOPM?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 1 (External Inspection)

A

Engine Inlet - CONDITION
- Check for FOD and leaks inside air inlet.
- Ensure there is no damage to the T2 sensor and the FADEC cooling inlet is clear.
- Clear of ice or snow

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14
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Fan Blades according to the SOPM?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 1 (External Inspection)

A

Fan Blades - CHECK
- Check for damaged fan blades and ensure fan is free to rotate.
- Check for damage on spinner.

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15
Q

Are there Nacelle Strakes on both sides of the engine?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 1 (External Inspection)

A

Yes

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16
Q

Describe the Main Landing Gear inspection

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 1 (External Inspection)

A
  • Right Main Gear - CHECK
  • Wheels and Tires - CONDITION
    (Clear of ice and unobstructed)
  • Up Lock Hook - UNLOCKED
  • Downlock Springs - CONDITION
  • Strut/Wheel Wells - CONDITION and NO LEAKS
  • Ground Locking Pin - REMOVED
  • Brakes Pin Indicators - CHECK
    (Two upper and two lower per gear assembly)
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17
Q

What document would you refer to regarding missing static discharge wicks? Where is it located?

A

The Configuration Deviation List (CDL)

It is located in the AFM Appendices > Appendix 1

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18
Q

What is the MINTO for your flight?
What is included in MINTO?

Dispatch Release Explanation Guide

A

Minimum Fuel required for takeoff.

It includes:
- En route burn
- GA/Alternate (most distant)
- Holding
- Reserve Fuel

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19
Q

When an alternate is listed on the release, does the alternate fuel value include GA fuel?

Dispatch Release Explanation Guide

A

Yes

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20
Q

Engine Failure Procedures (EFP) are denoted by abbreviations such as DT, LT, RT, and Special. What is the difference between a standard and special EFP?

Performance Handbook Section 2.0 Takeoff

A

Standard EFP is flown when engine failure occurs during takeoff and no special procedure exists. First turn can be made at 1,000’ AFE.

  • Below 1,000 AFE (IMC): Clime straight ahead to 1,000’ AFE, then commence turn to NAVAID or heading as listed on runway analysis page using max bank angle appropriate for aircraft speed.
  • Below 1,000 AFE (VMC): Climb straight ahead to 1,000’ AFE. Return to land visually or complete IMC procedure.
  • 1,000 or more AFE (IMC): Commence turn to NAVAID or heading as listed on runway analysis page using maximum bank angle appropriate for aircraft speed.
  • 1,000 or more AFE (VMC): Return to land visually or complete IMC procedure.

Special EFP are provided when Standard Engine Failure Takeoff Procedures cannot be used due to obstacle requirements. Special procedures are designed to only provide procedures and information that differ from Standard Procedures.
First turn can be made below 1,000’ AFE on specials.

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21
Q

If following a Special EFP and Radar Vectors are not available, at what altitude can the crew proceed on course?

Performance Handbook Section 2.0 Takeoff

A

In IMC, if radar vectors are not available, comply with the special procedure until 3,000’ AFE at which time you may proceed on course (as applicable).

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22
Q

Takeoff in IMC (ceiling <1,000’ and <3SM) and ATC provides a radar vector, no turns shall be commenced below what altitude?

Performance Handbook Section 2.0 Takeoff

A

400’ AFE

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23
Q

Can a pilot turn the airplane with the above conditions if an Instrument or Special Departure procedure requires it?

Performance Handbook Section 2.0 Takeoff

A

Yes

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24
Q

The RWY is reported as WET, what does this mean?

Performance Handbook Section 2.0 Takeoff

A

A runway is considered wet when more than 25% of the runway surface area, within the length and and the width being used, is covered by any visible dampness or water 1/8 in (3mm) or less in depth.

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25
Q

The RWY report has been updated to “contaminated”, what does this mean?

Performance Handbook Section 2.0 Takeoff

A

A runway is considered contaminated when more than 25% of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not), within the reported length and the width being used, is covered by more than 1/8 in (3mm) of standing water or its equivalent in slush, wet snow, dry snow or any depth of ice or compacted snow.

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26
Q

What does TALPA stand for?

FOM Chapter 7 (Runway Assessments)

A

Takeoff and Landing Performance Assessment

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27
Q

TALPA uses RCAM (RCCs) to assess runway conditions, describe the difference in runway condition between an RCC of 6 and RCC of 1

FOM Chapter 7 (Runway Assessments)

A

RCC 6: Dry
RCC 5: BA Good
RCC 4: BA Good to Medium
RCC 3: BA Medium
RCC 2: BA Medium to Poor
RCC 1: BA Poor

Look up specifics in the FOM

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28
Q

Where can the RCAM/Braking action table be found?

A
  • EFC Weather Tile
  • FOM Chapter 7 (Runway Assessments)
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29
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff with a WET runway?

  • EFB
  • ERJ Crosswind Limitations Table
A

31 kt (SkyWest)

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30
Q

MEL 32-47-1a: Brake Temp Sensors - One Inoperative

  1. (D)(T) After each takeoff, landing gear remains extended for seven minutes
  2. In case of engine failure after V1, retract the landing gear and proceed with applicable QRH procedures.

Additional Operational Procedures:
3. (D) Add 660 lb more fuel in the flight planning to account for the increased fuel burn

NOTE:
If the EICAS message LG NO DISPATCH is displayed, wait until the message extinguishes.

What does the bold (T) symbol communicate?

MEL User Guide

A

A bold symbol (T) (Tracking) is a flag to the flight crew that any of the following conditions exist:
- An MEL requires a tracking (or time) restriction.
- A repair interval Category A of one day.
- Procedures that must be performed, tested, or checked before each flight, prior to the first flight of the day, once each flight day, or at a certain number of hours, landings, cycles, etc.

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31
Q

MEL 32-47-1a: Brake Temp Sensors - One Inoperative

  1. (D)(T) After each takeoff, landing gear remains extended for seven minutes
  2. In case of engine failure after V1, retract the landing gear and proceed with applicable QRH procedures.

Additional Operational Procedures:
3. (D) Add 660 lb more fuel in the flight planning to account for the increased fuel burn

NOTE:
If the EICAS message LG NO DISPATCH is displayed, wait until the message extinguishes.

What impact does the above MEL have on flight planning?

See MEL 32-47-1a above

A

Increased fuel burn (660 lbs)

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32
Q

MEL 32-47-1a: Brake Temp Sensors - One Inoperative

  1. (D)(T) After each takeoff, landing gear remains extended for seven minutes
  2. In case of engine failure after V1, retract the landing gear and proceed with applicable QRH procedures.

Additional Operational Procedures:
3. (D) Add 660 lb more fuel in the flight planning to account for the increased fuel burn

NOTE:
If the EICAS message LG NO DISPATCH is displayed, wait until the message extinguishes.

How does the pilot know that this added fuel burn from the MEL has been applied to the Flight Release?

A

Release Remarks Section

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33
Q

Why is the HYD fluid temperature checked during the originating flow?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 1 (Hydraulic System Warm Up)

A

Because the Hydraulic Systems Warm-Up must be accomplished before starting the engines when reservoir temperatures are below -18C.

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34
Q

During ECS ON takeoff, will the APU be ON or OFF?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 4 (After Start, APU)

A

OFF

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35
Q

If ACARS takeoff performance dictates ECS ON takeoff and the crew fails to shut down the APU, the EICAS will generate an ENG REF ECS DISAGREE message, if this happens what do you do?

A
  • Execute Team Model
  • Have pilots reference the QRH
  • Re-enter T/O data to reconfigure aircraft
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36
Q

With an OAT of 4C and light rain, how will the takeoff data pages be configured for anti-ice?

A

Anti-Ice ALL

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37
Q

While programming the FMS 1 a Battery Overtemp message populates on the EICAS with an associated triple chime and Master Warning light, what do you do?

A

BATT 1(2) OVERTEMP

Associated battery - OFF

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38
Q

During engine start, there is no light off with fuel flowing to the engine, what do you do?

A

ENGINE ABNORMAL START
Affected Engine Start/Stop Selector - OFF

39
Q

If during engine start there is no light off with fuel flowing to the engine, would Dry Motoring be considered?

A

Yes, there is unburned fuel that needs to be purged prior to subsequent start attempts.

40
Q

What conditions require aborting a start?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 3 (Abnormal Engine Start Indiciations)

A
  • No positive oil pressure indication within 10 seconds after N2 speed starts to increase.
  • During engine start with a tailwind, when a positive increase of N1 is not indicated before starter cutout (50% N2). In this case, the airplane is repositioned prior to engine start to minimize tailwind effects.
  • No ITT indication within 30 seconds after initial fuel flow (no light off)
  • ITT exceeds start limit (815C - Hot)
  • Oil pressure stabilizies below the engine limits.
  • N1 and/or N2 failing to accelerate to stable idle speed (hung start).
  • An intermittent electrical pneumatic or starter malfunction occurs before the starter disengagement.
41
Q

After second engine start what is the N1 target value toleranace?

SOPM Chapter 4 Second 3 (Engine Start Procedure)

A

+0.5% / -0.1%

42
Q

When is single engine taxi prohibited?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 5 (Single Engine Taxi)

A
  • Ramp/Taxiway Surface Contamination
  • Maneuvering room in the ramp/gate area is marginal
  • Taxi time to/from a runway is expected to be less than 5 minutes
  • Airport-specific regulations prohibit single-engine taxi
  • Risk of injurty to personnel or damage to equipment
  • Captain’s discretion
43
Q

What is the procedure when taxiing in icing conditions in excess of 30 minutes or if fan vibe is detected?

SOMP Chapter 4 Section 5 (Engine Run-Up)

A

Run engines at 54% N1 for 30 seconds or until vibes return to normal.

When airport surface conditions and the concentration of other aircraft do not permit the engine thrust to be increased to 54%, set an acceptable thrust level and time interval that is safe and practical.

44
Q

If deicing is required, what checklist is used after engine start in liue of the After Start Normal Procedures Checklist

A

Pre Deice/Anti-Ice - Engines ON or OFF Checklist

45
Q

When does the Hold Over Time (HOT) begin?

GDPM Chapter 2 (Holdover Time)

A

At the time of the start of the application of the specified fluid.

46
Q

HOTs are for departure planning and must be used in conjunction with Pretakeoff Check Procedures. What is a Pretakeoff Check?

GDPM Chapter 2 (Pre-Takeoff Check)

A

A check of the aircraft’s representative surface for frozen contaminants.

This check is conducted within the aircraft’s HOT, just prior to takeoff, and may be made by observing representative surfaces from whatever vantage point in the aircraft the PIC determines will give an accurate indication of the condition of the aircraft.

47
Q

Is there such thing as an insignificant amount of ice?

A

No, there is no such thing as an insignificant amount of ice.

48
Q

What if Moderate Freezing Rain is occuring, can you depart?

GDPM Appendix B (Freezing Precipitation Table)

A

Yes, as long as appropriate decisions are made (deicing, anti-icing)

49
Q

Where are the required communication elements for deice/anti-ice located? What manual?

A

Ground Delay Program Manual Appendix D
(Communication Elements Table)

50
Q

What is a Pretakeoff Contamination Check?

GDPM Chapter 2 (Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check)

A

A check conducted after the HOT has been exceeded to ensure wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces are free of all frozen contaminants. This check must be completed within five minutes prior to takeoff.

51
Q

The takeoff has to occur within what timeframe after the Pretakeoff Contamination Check?

GDPM Chapter 2 (Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check)

A

5 minutes

52
Q

If the nosewheel deflects partially or fully uncommanded, what is the memory item?

A

Steering Runaway
Steering Disconnect Button - PRESS

53
Q

When is the use of FLEX thrust for takeoff prohibited? Name all three conditions.

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 7 (Before Takeoff Checklist)

A
  1. Takeoff on Contaminated Runway
  2. Reported or Forecast Windshear
  3. When a special departure procedure specifies full thrust for takeoff.
54
Q

When taxiing onto the runway, what does the FO turn on?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 7 (Entering Runway)

A

ALL the exterior lights

55
Q

What lateral and vertical modes do the pilots silently verify on the FMA after RWY HDG verification?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 7 (Entering Runway, Autothrottles)

A

ROLL & TO

56
Q

What is a static takeoff?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 8 (Static Takeoff)

A

Line up on the runway, apply brakes, and advance thrust to 40% N1.

When the engines stabilize at 40% N1, advance thrust levers to TO/GA detent.

Release the brakes when the takeoff thrust (N1 target) is achieved.

57
Q

At what crosswind velocity are static takeoffs not recommended and why?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 8 (Static Takeoff)

A

A static takeoff is not recommended with a crosswind greater than 25kt due to the possibility of compressor stall

58
Q

How are abnormalities verbalized during takeoff roll?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 8 (Takeoff and Thrust Settings)

A

The pilot first noticing the condition or malfunction announces the malfunction.

59
Q

With all engines running, the FD commands a pitch attitude to maintain what speed?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 8 (Rotation and Liftoff)

A

V2 + 10 kt

60
Q

With an engine failure at or after V1 on takeoff/initial climb, what speed will the FD command?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 8 (Engine Failure at or after V1)

A

Vfs

61
Q

For one engine inoperative, the bank angle must be limited to what at V2, V2+5, and V2+10?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 8 (Engine Failure at or after V1)

A

V2: 15 degrees
V2 + 5 kt: 20 degrees
V2 + 10 kt: 25 degrees

62
Q

With an engine failure after V1, how long should a climb speed of Vfs be maintained?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 8 (Engine Failure at or after V1)

A

To a safe altitude defined during the takeoff briefing or as assigned by ATC.

63
Q

Takeoff was conducted in light rain, what is the max wiper speed?

SOPM Chapter 2 Section 3 (Speed Limits)

A

250 kt

64
Q

During climb, traffic preceding you reports Moderate Turbulence ahead at 5,000’. What speed would be appropriate to fly?

SOPM Chapter 2 Section 3 (Speed Limits)
SOPM Chatper 4 Section 10 (Turbulence)

A

250 kt

65
Q

While targeting 250 kt due to turbulence, the airplane pitches up uncommanded and a trim runaway is suspected, what is the memory item?

QRC Memory Item

A

PITCH/TRIM RUNAWAY

AP Disconnect - PRESS & HOLD
PITCH TRIM SYS 1 & 2 CUTOUT - PRESS

66
Q

If the trim runaway is not prompt dealt with, the horizontal stabilizer will overpower the elevators authority. If this happens in a pitch up scenario, how can the pilot(s) keep the airplane from pitching to an attitude that would cause an undesired state?

QRC Memory Item

A

Jammed Control Column - Pitch

Elevator Disconnect Handle - PULL

67
Q

Describe a YAW trim runaway, what is the memory item?

QRC Memory Item

A

ROLL OR YAW TRIM RUNAWAY

AP Disconnect - PRESS & HOLD

68
Q

What if the pitch axis were jammed?

QRC Memory Item

A

Jammed Control Wheel - ROLL

Aileron Disconnect Handle - PULL

69
Q

Having resolved the above issue, the EICAS shows a “CABIN ALTITUDE HIGH” message, what do you do?

QRC Memory Item

A

CABIN ALTITUDE HI

Oxygen masks - DON, 100%
Crew Communciation - ESTABLISH

70
Q

What if instead of the above message you had strong FUMES in the flight deck, maybe an “electrical” smell

QRC Memory Item

A

SMOKE/FIRE/FUMES

Oxygen Masks - DON, 100%
Crew Communication - ESTABLISH

71
Q

If smoke filled the flight deck, what would you do?

QRC Memory Item

A

SMOKE EVACUATION

Oxygen Masks - Don, EMER
Crew Communication - ESTABLISH
Pressurization Dump - PUSH IN

72
Q

When is the fuel check conducted, and how often thereafter?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 10 (Fuel Trend Monitoring)

A

At the TOC and every hour thereafter.

73
Q

What must the pilot(s) ensure is not causing the imbalance before balancing fuel, according to the SOPM?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 10 (Fuel Imbalance)

A

Whenever a fuel imbalance exists, ensure it is not caused by a fuel leak.

74
Q

With an IDG OFF BUS EICAS message, the QRH says APU as required. If you choose to start the APU at cruise, what altitude do you have to be below?

SOPM Chapter 2 Section 4

A

30,000 feet

75
Q

If the first APU start attempt was unsuccessful, how long would you need to wait before a second attempt?

SOPM Chapter 2 Section 4

A

60 seconds

76
Q

ATC requrests slowest practical speed at FL290 for spacing. Could flaps be added momentarily to help comply with the request?

SOPM Chapter 2 Section 3

A

No. Maximum flap extension altitude is 20,000’

77
Q

Icing conditions exist in flight when in visible moisture and what temperature?

SOPM Chapter 2 Section 4

A

At or below TAT +10 C

78
Q

When RCCs are not available, what should be used to determine landing performance?

FOM Chapter 7 (Runway Assessments)

A

Contaminant type and BA (Braking Action) shall be used.

79
Q

The arrival airport is reporting RCCs of 5, 4, 3 on the expected runway. what numeric value represents the worst braking action on the runway?

FOM Chapter 7 (Runway Assessments)
EFB, Weather Tile (Runway Condition Decision Matrix)

A

RCC 3

80
Q

If a runway’s RCCs are reporting 5, 4, 3, which RCC value is used when performing a landing assessment?

FOM Chapter 7 (Runway Assessments)

A

RCC 3

81
Q

What does a crew need to consider when landing with RCCs less than 6?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 13 (Landing on Wet, Slippery, or Contaminated Runways)

A
  • Use autobrake setting MED
  • Make a firm touchdown to avoid hydroplaning
  • Apply maximum reverse thrust
  • Apply firm and symmetrical brake pedal pressure; do not pump the brakes
  • If the airplane loses friction, do not apply the Emergency/Parking Brake, as it inhibits anti-skid protection
  • Maintain runway centerline with rudder
  • Landing on a wet, slippery, or contaminated runway with a tailwind is not recommended
  • Consider using Maximum Performance Landing techniques.
82
Q

With winds straight down the runway at 6G16, what additions would you apply to the ACARs generated Vref speed to calculate Vapp?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 12 (Landing Speeds)

A

Steady State Wind
6/2 = 3 kt

Gust Factor
10 kt

You would add 13 kt to the ACARs generated Vref speed.

83
Q

According to the stabilized approach criteria in the SOPM, what are the requirements by 1,500 HAT or the FAF? (whichever occurs first)

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 12 (Stabilized Approach Criteria)

A
  1. Gears Down
  2. Flaps 3
  3. Airspeed no greater than 180kt
84
Q

What would the PM do if the above critera wasn’t met?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 12 (Stabilized Approach Criteria)

A

Announce the deviations accordingly

85
Q

What is the stabilized approach criteria at 1,000’ for a straight in approach?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 12 (Stabilized Approach Criteria)

A
  1. On lateral and vertical profile
  2. Airspeed +15kts/-5kts of Vap
  3. Sink rate no greater than -1000FPM
  4. Fully configured for landing
  5. Before landing checklist complete
86
Q

According to the SOPM Maximum Performance Landing, can the thrust reverse be used until the airplane comes to a complete stop?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 13 (Max Performance Landing)

A

Yes, but only if necessary.

87
Q

When are thrust reversers most effective, high or low speeds?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 13 (General)

A

They are most effective at high speeds.

88
Q

Some abnormal procedures require the use of the Emergency/Parking Brake to stop the airplane during landing. When this happens, what protections are not available?

SOPM Chapter 4 Section 13 (Emergency/Parking Brake)

A
  1. Locked Wheel Protection
  2. Antiskid Protection
  3. Touchdown Protection
89
Q

According to the ERJ SOPM standardized Minimum/Emegency Fuel Tables, what fuel prediction at the destination or alternate (as appropriate), would require declaring minimum fuel?

SOPM Chapter 5 Section 1 (Minimum/Emergency Fuel)

A

2,250 lbs

90
Q

According to the ERJ SOPM standardized Minimum/Emegency Fuel Tables, how much time does the minimum fuel provide?

SOPM Chapter 5 Section 1 (Minimum/Emergency Fuel)

A

45 minutes of fuel endurance based upon 1,500’ AFE/Green Dot/Clean Configuration

91
Q

According to the ERJ SOPM standardized Minimum/Emegency Fuel Tables, what fuel prediction at the destination or alternate (as appropriate), would require declaring emergency fuel?

SOPM Chapter 5 Section 1 (Minimum/Emergency Fuel)

A

1,500 lbs

92
Q

According to the ERJ SOPM standardized Minimum/Emegency Fuel Tables, how much time does the emergency fuel provide?

A

30 minutes of fuel endurance based upon 1,500’ AFE/Green Dot/Clean Configuration

93
Q

You are holding at a fix due to an unforecasted wx below minimums at your destination:
* What tools do you have available to determine a suitable alternate, and
* How would you determine how much fuel you need to safely proceed to your alternate?

A
  • WX/NOTAMS- Dispatcher, ACARS, ATC
  • Fuel - Dispatcher, Present Position Direct, Secondary Flight Plan, Jeppesen
94
Q

What can cause the FMS landing fuel calculations to be inaccurate?

A
  • Arrivals with long “downwind” legs
  • Wrong runway loaded in the FMS
  • Flying below the final altitude or above the planned TAS as programmed in the progress pages
  • Winds aloft don’t match forecast/FMS inputs
  • EFC in hold page, different than actual hold exit time

SkyWest 2024 CQ (3 decks)

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